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222 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Who was responsible for the thought of epidemics, infection; founder of tuberculosis?
Hippocrates
Who found that epidemic diseases are caused by transferable tiny particles or "spores" via direct or indirect contact?
Fracastoro
Who was the founder of the transmission of syphilis & gonorrhea?
John Hunter
Who figured out that washing hands is of significant importance?
Semmelweis
Who demonstrated the contagiousness of cholera through contaminated water?
Snow
What are Koch's Postulates?
To establish that an organism is the cause of a dz, it must be:
1.) Found in all cases of the dz examined, while absent in healthy organisms
2.) Prepared & maintained in a pure culture
3.) Capable of producing the original infection, even after several generations in culture.
4.) Retrievable from an inoculated animal & cultured again
Who is the "father of microscopy"?
Leeuwenhoek
Who founded that microbes are the cause of fermentation: invented a process in which liquids such as milk were heated to kill most bacteria & molds already present within them (pasteurization). Known as the father of germ theory & bacteriology
Pasteur
What is the cause of infection?
Microbes
What is described as the natural habitat for the organism in which it must propagate. Any person, animal, plant, soil or substance in which an infectious agent normally lives & multiplies?
Reservoir of infection
What is the habitat from which the organism is transmitted and in which it must survive but may or may not propagate. ie. feces, nasal secretions, vaginal secretions, semen, blood, pustules, etc.
Immediate source of infection
What are 7 modes of transmission?
1.) Individual to individual spread
2.) Food-Borne Infections
3.) Waterborne Infections
4.) Airborne Infections
5.) Soil
6.) Hospital Acquired Infections (HAIs)
7.) Indirect via a vector
What are 7 ways microbes from individual to individual is spread?
1.) Skin-to-skin contact
2.) Droplets during coughing, sneezing, or kissing
3.) Stool-to-mouth (fecal-oral) via dirty hands or utensils
4.) Sexually transmitted
5.) Blood-to-blood contact
6.) Spread from mother to fetus
7.) Autoinfection
The individual at risk of infection
Susceptible host
Describe the morphology of viruses.
Acellular microbes; Not capable of any of the activities of other microbes such as metabolism; numerous shapes; enveloped/non-enveloped; only capable of replicating when they have infected particular cell types
Comprised of cell capsule (+/-), cell wall & cytoplasmic membrane. Surrounds the cytoplasm of the prokaryotic cell
Cell Envelope
Amorphous, polymeric, often-gelatinous materials lying outside the cell wall.; antiphagocytic property; may prolong survival in the environment; antigenically diverse which is important in vaccine production & in lab diagnosis
Capsule
Basic differences b/t Gm + and Gm - bacteria. Give the organism its shape & a rigid structure protecting the cell's internal structures. Rigidity is provided by peptidoglycans; permeable.
Cell wall
Phospholipid bilayer; selectively permeable; involved in active transport of nutrients, respiration, excretion & chemoreception
Cytoplasmic membrane (plasma membrane, cell membrane)
A region in which the chromosome is physically located within the cell
Nucleoid
Bacterial surface layers; one of most abundant cell envelope surface components; simple structure composed of either a single protein or glycoprotein depending on the species
S-layers
Long whiplike structures of locomotion; comprised of 3 parts: filament, hook and basal body; highly antigenic; role in virulence - chemotaxis
Flagella
Shorter, straighter, and thinner than flagella; composed of protein pilin/fimbrin; role as receptor & adherence
Pili or fimbriae (plural) (Pilus or fimbria is singluar)
DNA, single circular structure with no nuclear membrane
Chromosome
RNA & protein; involved in protein synthesis; an attack site for some antibiotics such as tetracycline & gentamicin
Ribosomes
Important for transfer of antimicrobial resistance, virulence factors, etc.
Plasmids
Viruses that attack bacteria; insert their DNA into bacterial DNA for purposed of replication & may lyse or just replicate along with it. Can also transfer antimicrobial resistance, virulence factors, bacterial antigens, etc.
Bacteriophages (phages)
Chemical composition variable; present in some bacterial cells; may be composed of polyphosphate, poly-beta-hydroxybutyrate, glycogen
Storage granules or inclusions
Bacterial structure associated w/ invagination of the plasma membrane. Is the site of the respiratory enzymes; may also form as an artifact of fixation
Mesosome
What are the 5 basic morphologic forms of bacteria?
Coccus, Rod, Spiral, Filamentous, Appendaged
Spherical or ovoid
Staphylococci, Streptococci
Coccus
Straight and cylindrical
Pasteurella, Brucella, Haemophilus
Rod
Series of twists or turns & are tightly or loosely coiled
Spiral
Long, thin cells or chains of cells
Filamentous
Have extensions from the cell that are smaller than the diameter of the organism & contain cytoplasm & bound by the cell wall
Appendaged
Very rigid structure; some possess techoic acids; Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Lactobacillus, Bacillus spp.
Gram positive
Polymers of glycerol phosphate or ribitol; attach to N-acetylmuramic acid, important in phage attachment and regulation of cell growth. Provide rigidity to the cell wall; dominant cell antigen in some bacteria
Techoic acid
Attached to glycolipid in the cell membrane; may serve as an anchor for the peptidoglycan. Amphiphiles, are excreted as vesicles thought to be involved in protein secretion, and exhibit at high concentrationss many of the lss toxic properties of endotoxins. Produce IL-6 and IL-10
Lipoteichoic acids
High in lipid content, thinner walled, appear as a unite membrane, thus it is called the outer membrane; have 3 layers in their cell walls & much less peptidoglycan; Borrelia, Treponema, Mycoplasma
Gram-negative
Proteins in the outer membrane that form pores or diffusion channels that allow the passage of small hydrophilic molecules
Porins
Contains porins and receptors for phages; may contain proteases & other enzymes, aggressins, evasins, and toxins for host cells; shields from lysozyme. Less permeable to hydrophobic and amphipathic molecules thus making Gm- bacteria less susceptible to antibiotics.
Outer Membrane
What is the toxic component of the lipid moiety of lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
Lipid A
Substitutes dark-field condensor for the conventional condenser, which obliquely reflects a powerful source of light onto a wet preparation, where small objects scatter light and can be seen brilliant images against a dark background
Dark-field microscopy
Light waves passing through transparent objects, such as cells, emerge in different phases, depending on the properties of the material through which they pass. Useful in studying the fine detail of unstained living microorganisms
Phase-contrast microscopy
Detects microorganisms that are stained with various fluorescent dyes; widely used in clinical microbiology for the identification of microorganisms
Fluorescent microscopy
Instead of visible light, a beam of electrons is focused by an electromagnetic field instead of by glass lenses; short wavelength
Electron microscopy
Used for demonstrating morphology & size of stained bacteria & fungi; stained bacterial smears & wet mounts; staining affinity may allow preliminary classification of bacteria & the morphology of fungal structures permits identification of the genus; has 3 objectives
Brightfield Microscopy
Types of stains used on bacteria that can be visualized using Brightfield microscopy
Gram stain, Kinyoun stain for partial acid fast bacteria, and Ziehl-Neelsen stain for true acid-fast organisms
Differentiates b/t Gm+ and Gm- organisms on the basis of differences in the structure of their cell wall. Gm + blue, thick cell wall composed of mainly peptidoglycan & teichoic acids. Gm- stain red, outer membrane & periplasmic space with small amount of peptidoglycan
Gram Stain
Gram Stain procedure
1) Fixed by heat
2) Crystal/methyl violet
3) iodine solution (mordent); rinse with water
4) decolorize with acetone/ethyl alcohol
5) counterstain with safranin
organisms retain the basic dye following decolorization & appear deep violet
Gram +
Organisms do not retain the basic dye but take up the counterstain (safranin) and stain red/pink
Gram -
"seed"; have capacity to produce highly resistant, thick-walled spores; occur when vegetative cells are deprived of some factor or nutrient necessary for growth
Spores
Describe the formation of spores
1) Realignment of DNA materials into filaments & invagination of plasma membrane, forming forespore
2) Forespore surrounded by plasma membrane
3) Forming endospore surrounded by double membrane
4)The facing side of the 2 plasma membranes is the peptidoglycan synthesizing side, and spore cortex
5) Spore coat is formed outside the spore cortex
6) Once spore formation is complete, mature spore is released by the disintegration of the envelope of the mother cell (sporangium)
Each spore germinates into how many vegetative cells when conditions for growth are favorable?
Single
What is germination of spored brought about by? (4)
1) Heat
2) Aging
3) Damage to coat
4) Presence of adequate moisture
The remarkable resistence of spores is thought to be due to what 4 things?
1) layered structure
2) dehydrated state
3) negligible metabolic activity
4) high content of dipicolinic acid
Not found in vegetative cells, occurs in spore wall in combo with large amounts of calcium
Dipicolinic acid
Resist heat & can be boiled; resist disinfectants; relatively impervious; not susceptible to antibiotics; can be destroyed with certainty only by moist heat at 121C for 15 minuts
Spores
Used for identifying microorganisms at the species and strain levels. Restriction enzymes are used to cut a molecule of DNA at locations where a specific base sequence occurs. Resulting restriction fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis
DNA fingerprinting
Genes & operons controlled by the same regulator constitute what?
a regulon
Distinct class of genomic islands located on bacterial chromosomes or may be part of a plasmid; acquired by horizontal gene transfer (transformation, transduction, bacterial conjugation)
Pathogenicity islands (PAIs)
Mobile DNA elements that can capture & carry genes, particularly those responsible for antibiotic resistance; do so by site-specific recombination. The antibiotic resistence genes they capture are located on gene cassettes.
Integrons
Science of classifying organisms
Taxonomy
Groups of organisms with similar genetic & metabolic characteristics
Species
Group of related genera; classified based on constitutive characteristics,cellular characteristics, cultural characteristics, & biochemical characteristics
Family (aceae)
group of related species. also subgenera
genus
contains strains of bacteria that have many characteristics in common
Species
Further subdivision of some species on the basis of small but consistent differences
Subspecies
Consists of descendants (clone) of a single isolate in pure culture; for each species, there is a type strain, which usually is the particular culture from which the species description was originally made
Strain
Strain with special biochemical or physiologic properties; differentiated on the basis of some type of biological difference
Biovar, biotypes
Strain with distinctive antigenic properties. Differentiated on the basis of their antigens
Serovar
Latin: Firmus, strong & cutis, skin, referring to the cell wall: Gm + bacteria
Division Firmicutes
Gram-negative bacteria
Division Gracilicutes
Gram-negative cell wall free bacteria
Division Tenericutes
Capable of living & reproducing either inside or outside cells
Facultative intracellular parasite
Cannot reproduce outside their host cell, parasites reproduction is entirely reliant on intracellular resources
Obligate intracellular parasite
Classified based on constitutive characteristics, cellular characteristics (Gm -), cultural characteristics (facultative anaerobic, growth on blood agar, growth on MAC agar) & biochemical characteristics (oxidase-negative, saccharolytic). Normal enteric flora
Family Enterobacteriaceae
what are 3 genera characteristics?
1) Gram stain
2) cellular morphology
3) atmospheric growth requirements
Strains with distinctive antigenic properties; differentiated on the basis of their antigens
Serovars
Name and describe the 4 bacterial antigens
1) Capsular (K): Carbohydrate, a surface antigen external to the cell wall
2) Fimbriae (F): Protein
3) Flagellar (H): Protein
4) Somatic (O): Carbohydrate, antigen located in cell wall
Constitutive components of gram negative cell wall-free bacteria
1) Lack cell wall
2) Cytoplasm w/ chromosome & ribosomes
3) Cytoplasmic membrane composed of proteins & sterols. Cholesterol in membrane provides for osmotic stability
Changes in cell wall composition, induced by the action of lysozyme or of antibiotics leaves structures that remain bound by the cytoplasmic membrane only and are called what? They lack rigidity and are susceptible to osmotic change
Protoplasts (Gm +) or Spheroplasts (Gm -)
Pathogenic bacteria w/out cell walls
L forms
Well-defined structure closely adherent to the cell wall. Amorphous, polymeric, often-gelatinous materials lying outside the cell wall. Most composed of polysaccharide, but those of several species consist of polypeptide; some have both. They are antigenically diverse. Main function is for protection of the bacterium from adverse environmental conditions. Antiphagocytic.
Capsule
What are the requirements to destroy spores?
Moist heat at 121 C for 15 minutes
Thin delicate covering made of protein
Exosporium
Composed of layers of spore specific proteins
Spore Coat
Composed of loosely linked peptidoglycan & contains dipicolinic acid (DPA).
Cortex
Contains cell wall, cytoplasmic membrane, nucleoid, & cytoplasm. Only has 10-30% of water content of vegetative cells, so is in a gel state. Survives in acidic environments
Core
Formed during sporulation & bind to DNA in the core. Protect DNA from UV light, desiccation, & dry heat. Serve as a carbon energy source during germination
Small acid soluble spore proteins (SASPs)
Process of converting a spore back to a vegetative cell
Germination
When the vegetative cell forms the endospore
Sporogenesis
3 stages of germination
1) Activation: occurs in response to factors such as brief exposure to heat, abrasion of spore coat or environmental acidity.
2) Initiation: Occurs if other environmental conditions (presence of adequate nutrients favorable). Spore cortex & coat are degraded, water is absorbed, calcium dipicolinate is released & outgrowth develops.
3) Outgrowth: period of active biosynthesis & terminate w/ division of the new vegetative cell
Long, filamentous appendages that arise at the level of the cytoplasmic membrane & extend through the wall into the surrounding medium. Responsible for motility. Usually found in rod-shaped Gm - bacteria
Flagella
How do flagella differ in their numbers & arrangements on cells?
1) Polar
2) Peritrichous
3) Periplasmic
Single polar flagellum
Monotrichous
2 or more flagella originating at one pole or point
Lophotrichous
Single flagellum located at 2 diff points or poles
Amphitrichous
2 or more (a tuft) flagella at 2 points or poles of the cell
Amphilophotrichous
FLagella arising over the entire cell surface
Peritrichous
Gram - spriochetes. Aids in motility by rorating the spriochete
Periplasmic
3 parts to a flagella
1) Filament
2) Hook
3) Basal Body
Composed of protein flagellin to form a hollow cylinder. Monomers of the protein are synthesized & passed through the lumen of the cylinder, at the growing tip of the flagellum helix, the monomer undergoes a conformational change & becomes added to the distal end of the flagellum
Flagellar filament
Acts as a sleeve from which flagellar filament emerges; allows the transmission of a rotary motion from the basal body to the filament
Hook
Composed of complex rings connected by a rod-shaped structure; Ring structure attached to cell membrane rotates as a part of an energy-dependent reaction, causing the rigid flagellar helix to turn like a propellar
Basal Body
Ability of a flagellated organism to alter the expressed antigenic type of flagella they produce; differential expression of genes coding for variously structured flagellin proteins
Phase variation
Flagellar antigens in Gm - bacteria are referred to as what?
"H antigens"
Smaller appendages found on the surface of many Gm - bacteria. Serve as attachment sites for bacteriophages
Fimbriae/Pili
Any non-flagellar hairlike appendages
Fimbriae
Used to denote the fimbriae of Gm - bacteria that function specifically in the transfer of DNA form one cell to another during conjugation
Pili
Function as organelles for attachment to cells or mucosal surfaces
Adhesions
The only mechanism of genetic exchange between bacteria that requires cell-to-cell contact
Conjugation
How do Gm - bacteria transfer genetic material?
They possess a plasmid called the F plasmid that codes for a sex pilus
How do Gm + bacteria transfer genetic material?
Via a co-aggregation of the organisms in response to production of pheromones by the donor bacterium. Under stimulation by these pheromones, potential recipient bacteria synthesize a receptor molecule that is specific for a conjugative adhesin present on the donor cell. Aggregation results in the establishment of the cell-to-cell connections necessary for plasmid mobilization to occur.
Is there conjugation b/t Gm - and Gm + bacteria?
No
The exchange of genetic info via bacteriophages
Transduction
Uptake of free exogenous dsDNA from the surrounding environment
Transformation
Describe Gm - bacterial conjugation with the F plasmid.
Once contact of an F+ cell with an F- cell is established by the sex pilus, the circular F plasmid begins to be replicated. During this process, one of the single strands of the plasmid DNA is passed through the pilus into the recipient cell. The single strand that is passed begins to be repliacted as it enters the recipient cell, and the end result is 2 cells that contain complete conjugative plasmids (both become F+ cells)
After infecting the bacterial cell, the phage regulatory genes "take over" the cellular biosynthetic machinery, resulting in the expression of phage structural genes & the production of new phage particles that are released on lysis & death of the host bacterium.
Lytic bacteriophages
Genetic material of the bacteriophage becomes incorporated into the host cell DNA as a "prophage" & replicates along with the bacterial chromosome
Temperate bacteriophage (lysogenic bacteriophage)
Any time a lysogenic bacterium is exposed to adverse conditions, the lysogenic state can be terminated. This is called what?
Induction
Name some conditions which favor the termination of the lysogenic state.
1) Desiccation
2) Exposure to UV or ionizing radiation
3) Exposure to mutagenic chemicals
What are the components of a bacteriophage?
Head
Collar
Tail
Base plate
Fibrils
Small genetic elements located in the cytoplasm & can replicate independently. Majority are circular & composed of dsDNA. Can carry multiple genes.
Plasmids
Plasmid of bacteria or viral DNA that can integrate itself into the chromosomal DNA of the host organism
Episome
Plasmids can carry genes encoding for what?
1) Antibiotic resistance
2) Virulence factors
3) Metabolic activities
4) Cryptic plasmids (plasmids without any functional genes)
Require oxygen for growth. Use oxygen to oxidize substance in order to obtain energy. Incapable of supporting growth from the energy supplied by fermentation. All accomplish a respiratory type of metabolism & use only oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor. Have the advantage of yielding more energy than obligate anaerobes, but face high levels of oxidative stress.
Obligate aerobic bacteria
Bacteria grow in either the presence or absence of air, but they grow better when oxygen is present. Can be found on the skin or in the gut
Facultative anaerobic bacteria
Organisms lack the ability to grow in the presence of air & often even small amounts of oxygen are toxic. Ex: Bacteroides, Clostridium, Fusobacterium. Lack ability to remove toxic forms of oxygen.
Obligate anaerobic bacteria
Used to determine the atmospheric requirements of the obligate aerobic bacteria, facultative anaerobic bacteria & obligate anaerobic bacteria.
Aerotolerance tests
Air + Carbon Dioxide. Require the presence of CO2 to survive but require low concentrations of oxygen. Can be found in intestinal tract, respiratory tract, etc.
Capnophilic
Candle jar, oxygen is less than atmosphere
Microaerophilic
Atmosphere for anaerobic bacteria
10% CO2, 10%H, 80%N
Organic molecule is final hydrogen receptors, 2ATP + acids, alcohols, etc.
Fermentation
Oxygen is final hydrogen receptor, 38ATP, CO2, H2O
Aerobic Respiration
Other inorganics, besides oxygen, are final hydrogen receptor, 34 ATP + NH3 + H2S, etc.
Anaerobic Respiration
Organisms that are incapable of using either light or inorganic compounds as an energy source or of using CO2 as a sole carbon source. Require more complex materials such as sugars, AAs, FAs, or NAs as sources of energy & carbon sources for growth. (An organism that cannot synthesize its own food & is dependent on complex organic substances for nutrition)
Heterotrophs
Heterotrophs that live on dead or decaying organic matter.
Saprophytes
Live on or in another living organism and derive nutrition from the host
Parasites
Doesn't cause disease
Commensal parasite
Normally harmless in their usual environment but cause dz when they gain access to other sites or tissues
Opportunist parasite
Must cause dz in order to be transmitted from one host to another. Must also infect a host in order to survive. (ex: Mycobacterium tuberculosis & Treponema pallidum)
Obligate pathogen
Bacteria that can obtain carbon & energy by hydrolysis of carbohydrate molecules
Saccharolytic bacteria
INability to metabolize carbohydrates
Asaccharolytic Bacteria
Optimum growth from 25C to 40C (77-104F) Contains most known organsims
Mesophilic bacteria
Optimal incubation temp <20C (<68F)
Psychrophilic bacteria
Optimal incubation temp >40C (>104F)
Thermophilic bacteria
Optimal incubation temp >100C (>212F)
Hyperphilic bacteria
What is the optimal pH range for bacterial growth?
7.2-7.4
Organisms damage tissues while they are outside phagocytes & other cells. They do not have the capacity to survive for long periods in phagocytic cells (Ex: Klebsiella & Pasteurella sp)
Extracellular pathogens
Not confined to cells, but they can survive, and in some instances multiply, in phagocytic cells. Phagocytes may also destroy the parasite & prevent or ultimately eliminate infection
Facultative Intracellular pathogens
Chlamydia, rickettsia, and viruses. Can only propagate within cells
Obligate Intracellular pathogens
What is happening in the lag phase for bacterial growth?
Following innoculation of bacterial cells into fresh broth medium. 2 important characteristics of this phase:
1) Cells are rapidly making new DNA & RNA and inducing the synthesis of new enzymes needed for cell division & thus, there is a great deal of metabolic activity taking place
2) There is no increase in cell numbers.
What is happening in the logarithmic or exponential growth phase?
Cell division occurs at a maximum rate for the growth conditions provided by the medium & environmental conditions. Cell numbers are increasing (doubling) at an exponential rate
What is taking place in the stationary growth phase?
Cells may run out of nutrients, or cell waste products may build up to toxic levels, or the population density may become so great that the rate of diffusion of nutrients b/t cells becomes limiting. Then the rate of cell division slows below exponential levels.
What happens during the decline or death growth phase?
Eventually, cells begin to die, initiating the decline or death phase. Rate of cell death in the population is exponential.
Loss of a cell's ability to form a colony when transferred to a plate
Cell Death
Rate of cell division during exponential growth. Time it takes for one doubling in cell numbers.
Generation Time or Doubling Time
An asexual process that divides bacteria into two equal progeny cells. The chromosomes, which have doubled in number preceding the division, are distributed equally to the 2 daughter cells.
Binary Fission
A microbe capable of causing dz
Pathogen
The capacity of a microbe to produce dz
Pathogenicity
Degree of pathogenicity
Virulence
Microbial products that permit a pathogen to cause dz
Virulence factor (or Determinant)
4 routes of exposure to pathogenic bacteria
1) Inhalation, ingestion
2) Sexual, other direct contact
3) Wounds, other injuries
4) Insect, animal bites
6 bacterial interactions with the host:
1) Adherence (fimbriae/pili)
2) Invasion
3) Initial multiplication
4) Evasion of defense - specific, nonspecific
5) Spread of infection
6) Damaging the host
Bacterial virulence factors include?
1) Surface structures
2) Antigenic variation
3) Invasive pathogens
4) Endotoxins
5) Toxins
6) Extracellular enzymes
7) Iron (essential nutrient for growth & metabolism of nearly all microorganisms)
8) Intracellular pathogens
Bacterial surface structures/virulence factors:
1) Capsules: Antiphagocytic
2) Fimbriae: Colonization of tissues
3) Cell Wall Antigen: Gm - & Bm +
4) Cytoplasmic membrane: Gm -, cell wall-free bacteria
The capsules of mucoid strains of Pasteurella multocida & Steptococcus equi consist almost wholly of what?
Hyaluronic acid.
What are the 2 types of virulence factors needed to develop dz enterotoxigenic E. coli?
1) Fimbrial adhesions
2) Enterotoxins
Responsible for bovine contagious pyelonephritis. Members possess fimbriae which allow attachment to the urogenital mucosa
Corynebacterium renale
Virulent strains, when isolated form cases of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis, are fimbriate, haemolytic & grow into the agar. Virulence is attributed to fimbriae, which allow adherence of the organisms to the cornea, circumventing the protective effects of lacrimal secretions & blinking
Moraxella bovis
4 bacterial adherence attachment sites:
1) Keratinized or mucosal epithelium
2) Specialized epitheilum (ocular, aural)
3) Chitin
4) Cell membrane components
Most important protein of the cell wall, which is responsible for virulence. Responsible for type-specific immunity, inhibits phagocytosis & has an immunotoxic effect on polymorphs and platelets
M Protein
What are the main components of LPS molecules?
Core polysaccharides bound to lipid A & long external polysaccharide side chains
What do the polysaccharide side chains do for the LPS molecule?
Sitmulate antibody production & correspond to the somatic (O) antigens used for serotyping of Gm - bacteria.
Full-length O chains render the bacterial cell (smooth/rough)?
Smooth
Absence or shortening of the O chain renders the bacterial cell (smooth/rough)?
Rough
Which bacterial cell strain is more antiphagocytic? Smooth or rough?
Smooth strains
Repeat unit; highly immunogenic in a vertebrate animal
O antigen
Genetic makeup of an organism or group of organisms with reference to a single trait, set of traits, or an entire complex of traits
Genotype
Observable constitution of an organism; the appearance of an organism resulting from the interaction of the genotype & the environment
Phenotype
Why is it an advantage for an organism to exist on or near the surface of a eukaryotic cell?
From this location it can produce toxins & derive nutrients while avoiding most of the mechanisms of the humoral acid cellular immune systems
Organisms that reside outside of eukaryotic cells; are readily killed once phagocytized
Extracellular parasites
Those organisms that have the capacity to grow & survive both inside & outside of eukaryotic cells. May survuve long periods of time inside cells
Facultative Intracellular parasites
those which can grow only within cells
Obligate or strict intracellular parasites
List (& give examples) of ways bacteria may gain entry to deeper tissues:
1) Trauma/puncture: Clostridium tetani
2) Endocytosis: Salmonella typhimurium
3) Receptor mediated endocytosis: Chlamydophila psittaci
4) Uptake by antigen sampling sites: Salmonella
5) Disruption by cytotoxins: Salmonella
6) Direct penetration: Leptospira
An acute infectious dz caused by bacteria Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The throat infection causes a gray to black, tough, fiber-like covering pseudomembrane which can block the airways
Diphtheria
Cell damage & death are ultimately dependent on what 3 things?
1) What cells are involved: neural, heart, skin, etc.
2) How many cells are infected: mild vs. fulminating
3) How fast the infection proceeds; rate of damage vs rate of repair
Endotoxins do not act directly on cells. Rather, they bind to what?
CD14
If the CD14 is on the surface of a macrophage, the macrophage is stimulated to produce what? What is it responsible for?
TNFalpha. Responsible for the cascade of events (fever, acidosis, hypotension, DIC, shock, death) that most importantly end in vascular permeability & possible death of the host.
3 immunologic effects of LPS:
1) Acts as an adjuvant
2) T-independent mitogen that produces polyclonal B-cell activation & a predominantly IgM response.
3) Activates complement via both classical & alternative pathways
LPS role in dz production:
When septicemic Gm - infections occur, endotoxin is major cause of death. Definitely dose related, but even in low quantities, endotoxin is a potent stimulator of cytokine release
Often produced within the body & exert their effects either locally or systemically. Some cause cell death either by digesting lipids in cytoplasmic membranes or by insertion into the membranes, forming protein pores. They are soluble proteins produced & excreted by both Gm - & Gm + bacteria. Strongly antigenic. Much more toxic. Most are heat labile. Can be converted to toxoids, neutralized by antibodies
Exotoxins
What are 3 groups of exotoxins based on mechanisms of action?
1) Cytolytic toxins
2) Toxins with intracellular activity
3) Others (includes those w/ unknown mechanism)
A toxin of a pathogenic organism treated so as to destroy its toxicity but leave it capable of inducing the formation of antibodies on injection
Toxoid
A toxin responsible for gas gangrene and myonecrosis in infected tissues. The toxin also possesses hemolytic activity.
Alpha toxin
2 toxins that uncouple protein synthesis by NAD-dependent ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2?
Cornybacterium diphtheriae toxin & Pseudomonas aeruginosa exotoxin A
Anthrax toxin is a heterotrimeric protein consist of what 3 things?
Protective antigen
Lethal factor
Edema factor
Classically detected by their effects on RBC membranes (hemolysis)
Hemolysins
What is the role of hemolysin in disease?
Cytolytic toxins may lyse cells or merely produce membrane effects that result in permeability changes
Staphylocci, where the alpha hemolysin causes complete hemolysis (_____ hemolysis) and the beta hemolysin causes incomplete hemolysis (_____ hemolysis)
beta; alpha
Name and describe the 4 hemotoxins
1) alpha: complete hemolysisl Mechanism of action is through hexamers forming transmembrane channels (pores)
2) beta: incomplete. Phospholipase C activity
3) Gamma: proteins A, B, & C are encoded & these pair as A&B and C&B. Complete hemolysis
4) Delta: Complete hemolysis. Has strong detergent-like activity.
Major components of plasma membrane of mammalian cells. Act on different substrates. Lyse erythrocytes. Some act on selected Eukaryotic cells.
Phospholipases
An endopeptidase that primarily interferes with the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter at nerve synapses. Tonic muscular contractions.
Tetanus neurotoxin
Some of the most potent toxins known. Ultimately block the release of acetylcholine from cholinergic endings resulting in flaccid paralysis. Flaccid paralysis is the main, lethal effect
Clostridium botulinum neurotoxin
Intracellular survival & spread are mediated in large part by production of what?
Exotoxins
Converts fibrinogen to fibrin. Clots
Coagulase
Hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid in connective tissue & may contribute to spread of the organism in the host.
Hyaluronidase.
Hydrolyzes lipids
Lipase
Hydrolyzes deoxyribonuclei acid (DNA)
Nuclease
Break the peptide bonds in collagen. Assist in destroying extracellular structures in pathogenesis of bacteria such as Clostridium
Collagenase
Catalyzes the hydrolysis of urea to ammonia & CO2. Helicobacter pylori uses this to adjust pH of stomach to aid in colonization
Urease
An important component of the hosts innate immune response against invading microorganisms. Family of enzymes with antimicrobial activity characterized by the ability to damage the cell wall of bacteria. Can be found in body secretions & tears
Lysozyme
"Blue pus" (Pyocyanin) is a characteristic of suppurative infections caused by what?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
What is pyocyanin?
Blue pigment, impairs the normal function of human nasal cilia, disrupts the respiratory epithelium, & exerts a proinflammatory effect on phagocytes.
A siderophore that is produced under low-iron conditions to sequester iron from the environment for growth of the pathogen
Pyochelin
What type of epithelium is characterized by the following?
1) Transient interaction
2) Some produce keratin-hydrolyzing enzymes
3) Usually crossed via breaks, burns
4) Moisture facilitates entry
5) Importance of skin best illustrated by its loss
Keratinized Epithelium
What are some defenses of keratinized epithelium?
1) Low pH (fatty acids), drying
2) keratinocytes (most of epidermis)' maintain low pH; ingest/kill bacteria
3) Adapted flora, mainly G+
4) Cell sloughing
5) Lysozyme protects pores, follicles
What type of epithelium is characterized by the following?
1) Single layer, multiple cell types, functions
2) Tight junctions connect cells, few bacteria can disrupt
3) Turnover of mucosal cells
4) Mucus composed of proteins, polysaccharides
5) Lubrication, entrapment
Mucosal epithelium
What are some defenses of mucosal epithelium?
1) lung architecture: speed of particle
2) mucociliary ladder in lungs
3) cough, sneeze stimulated by histamine
4) uterus protected by cervix
5) Microflora - upper respiratory tract, lower genitourinary tract
6) GI microflora: great competitors, make antibacterial products
7) Low O2 (difficult for aerobes)
8) Detergent effect of bile salts
9) Macrophages/phagocytosis
Certain protein antigens are able to bind directly to the variable beta region of the T-cell & stimulate large #s of T-cells to release IL-2 & IL-4. A massive overstimulation of the immune system results and in many cases this is life-threatening. An example would be the Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST1)
Superantigen