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242 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Asymptomatic bacteriuria only requires treatment in which 2 scenarios? |
1. Pregnant women 2. Patients undergoing urologic instrumentation |
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What are bacteriuria diagnosis criteria by voided urine in: Men? Women? |
Men: Single voided urine with isolation of single species forming > or equal to 10^5 cfu/mL
Women: 2 consecutive voided urines with isolation of single species forming > or equal to 10^5 cfu/mL |
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What are bacteriuria diagnosis criteria in catheterized specimen in men and women? |
single catheterized specimen with single bacterial species forming > or equal to 10^2 cfu/mL |
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Most common cause of UTIs (and %) |
Escherichia coli (85%) |
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Common cause of UTI in you sexually active women |
Staphylococcus saprophyticus |
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Common cause of UTI in older males with obstructive uropathy |
Enterococcus |
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Culture negative UTI often do to which species (3) |
Ureaplasma urealyticum, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma hominis |
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Fungal UTI mainly caused by ______ |
Candida species |
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Hemorrhagic cystitis due to _____________ is most often seen in BMT recipients |
adenovirus (type 11) |
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Urine dipstick leukocyte esterase is ______ (more/less) sensitive and ______ (more/less) specific than Urine dipstick nitrate |
more; less |
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What is the most common cause of infectious diarrhea? |
Noroviruses (rotavirus, Norwalklike virus, enteric adenovirus) |
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Rotavirus outbreaks occur during what time of year? |
cold weather months ("winter vomiting disease") |
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Bacterial causes of noninflammatory (watery, without fever) (5) |
Vibrio cholera E. coli (ETEC) C. perfringens S. aureus B. cereus |
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What is most common cause of traveler's diarrhea |
ETEC - produces choleralike toxin
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Cholera most like caused by which serogroups? |
O1 O139 |
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Bacterial caused of inflammatory (dysenteric) diarrhea (8) |
Shigella Campylobacter Salmonella E. coli (EHEC) C. difficile Aeromonas Yersinia Vibrio (noncholera) |
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Most common strain of EHEC is ______ , produces ______ toxin and is associated with which syndrome? |
0157:H7; Shiga; hemolytic uremic syndrome
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True/False: Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) produces Shiga toxin |
false |
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Most common cause of bacterial enteritis in US |
Campylobacter jejuni |
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What is the most common identified cause of Guillian-Barre syndrome |
Campylobacter jejuni |
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Reactive arthropathy (enteropathic arthritis) is seen in association with Camplylobacter jejuni and which HLA class? |
HLA-B27 |
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Most common cause of antibiotic associated diarrhea |
Clostridium difficile |
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Which strain of C. diff is most virulent? Virulency is due to deletion of which gene? |
BI/NAPI/027 tcdC gene |
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Culture for C. diff can give misguiding results b/c it is the isolation of what that is diagnostic for C. diff colitis? |
toxin |
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What is reference method for C. diff detection? |
cytotoxicity method |
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Antibiotic associated ischemic/hemorrhagic colitis associated with which bacteria? |
Klebsiella oxytoca |
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Prolonged diarrhea or diarrhea in recent traveler who presents with blood diarrhea, likely attributed to which parasite? |
Entamoeba histolytica |
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E histolytica can look identical to the nonpathogenic _______; thus, stool EIA has better sensitivity and specificity than light microscopy. |
Entamoeba histolytica |
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What 2 purposes does stool microscopy serve? |
1. detection of leuckocytes 2. detection of parasite ova and larvae |
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Which test can substitute for microscopic search for leukocytes? |
stool lactoferrin |
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Which type of test can substitute for microscopic search for stool ova and parasites? |
ELIZA methods
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Routine stool culture is capable of isolating which organisms? (6) |
Salmonella species E. coli Campylobacter species Yersinia enterolitica Vibrio species |
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Most common cause of community acquired PNA
Also cause of lobar PNA
Often assoc. with bacteria
_____ % of adults have pharyngeal colonization |
Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) |
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Major cause of hospital acquired PNA
Necrotizing PNA w/ cavitation |
Staphylococcus aureus |
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Most isolates of this cause of PNA are nontypeable strains
Cause of bronchopneumonia
COPD is a major risk factor
Together with ________ a major cause of acute exacerbations of COPD |
Haemophilus influenzae |
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Exposure to aerosolized particles (construction assoc. dust, hot tub, cooling systems)
Patients usually have underlying smoking hx, COPD, DM, liver disease, renal disease, hematolymphoid neoplasms or immunodeficiency
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Legionella pneumophilia |
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Legionella pneumophilia: Atypical PNA with high grade fever, hyponatremia, renal dysfunction, diarrhea and neuro abnormalities |
Legionnaires' disease |
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Legionella pneumophilia: flulike illness without PNA |
Pontiac fever |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY RISK FACTORS FOR AGENTS OF PNA:
COPD (3) |
Haemophilus influenzae Moraxella catarrhalis Legionella pnuemophilia |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY RISK FACTORS FOR AGENTS OF PNA:
Alcoholism (4) |
S. pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumonaie anearobes (aspiration) Gram - aerobic bacilli |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY RISK FACTORS FOR AGENTS OF PNA:
Neutropenia |
Aerobic Gram - bacilli |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY RISK FACTORS FOR AGENTS OF PNA: Animal exposure 1. cattle, cats (1) 2. birds (2) 3. bat or birds (1) 4. Mouse urine and feces (1) 5. Rabbits (1) |
1. Coxiella burnetii 2. Chlamydophila psittaci and Cryptococcus neoformans 3. Histoplasma capsulatum 4. Hantavirus 5. Francisella tularensis |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY RISK FACTORS FOR AGENTS OF PNA:
Sandstorm exposure (1) |
Coccidioides immitis/posadasii |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY RISK FACTORS FOR AGENTS OF PNA:
Bronchietasis, cystic fibrosis (3) |
Pseudomonas aeruginosa Burkholderia cepacia Staphylococcus aureus |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY RISK FACTORS FOR AGENTS OF PNA:
AIDS (2) |
Pneumocystis jiroveci Cryptococcus neoformans |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY RISK FACTORS FOR AGENTS OF PNA:
Venitaled (9) |
1. S aureus 5. S pneumoniae 2. P aeruginosa 6. K pneumoniae 3. Serratia species 7. Enterobacter 4. E. coli 8. fungi |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY CLINICAL FEATURES OF PNA:
Atypical ("walking") PNA (2) |
Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydia pneumoniae |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY CLINICAL FEATURES OF PNA:
Typical (lobar) PNA (1) |
Streptococcus pneumoniae |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY CLINICAL FEATURES OF PNA:
Bronchopneumonia (1) |
Haemophilius influenza |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY CLINICAL FEATURES OF PNA:
Necrotizing PNA (2) |
Staphylococcus aureus Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY CLINICAL FEATURES OF PNA:
Aspiration pneumonia (5) |
Streptococcus pneumonia Staphylococcus aureus H influenzae enterobacteriaceae P aeruginosa |
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In community acquired PNA these three bacteria tend to afflict those with underlying bronchiectasis, CF, advanced malignancy. Also major causes of hospital acquired PNA, particularly ventilator associated PNA |
Pseudomonas aeruginosa Serratia marcescens Acinetobacter baumannii |
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Viral PNA
Sin Nombre Virus (emerged in "4 Corners", NM) Deer mouse sheds virus in urine and feces Flulike prodrome followed by ARDS PB: thrombocytopenia, neutrophilia w/o toxic granulation, erythrocytosis, immunoblastic lymphocytes |
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS) |
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Most common viral cause of croup |
Parainfluenza virus |
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Most common cause of bronchiolitis in children |
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) |
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Second most common cause of bronchiolitis in children |
Human metapnuemovirus |
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Viral PNA
Emerged in China type of coronavirus Flulike prodrome followed by ARDS |
SARS (Severe acute respiratory syndrome) |
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Endocarditis of previously normal valve typically presents as acute bacterial endocarditis due to rapid valve destruction. The most common cause is _____ , which usually affects the _____ sided valves; however, can affect _____ sided valve in IV drug users. |
S aureus; left; right |
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Endocarditis of underlying damaged valve typically presents as subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE), due to formation of vegetations. The most common cause is _______, particular _______ genera, and ______ is associated with colorectal carcinoma. |
Streptococci; viridans; S bovis |
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S. pneumoniae endocarditis, meningitis and pneumonia are the triad that characterize which syndrome? |
Austrian Syndrome |
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Endocarditis of prosthetic valves that occur within first 2 months are due to _______, _______, and _______; those that occur within first year are due to ______ and ________; and those that occur later are due to ________. |
S aureus, S epidermidis, Gram - bacilli; S epidermidis and S aureus; causes similiar to SBE |
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Blood culture negative endocarditis (BCNE) can be attributed to which three situations? |
1. Prior antibiotic tx 2. Noninfectious endocarditis (Libman-Sacks endocarditis, nonbacterail thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis, carcinoid heart syndrome 3. Hard to culture bacteria: Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Chlamydia, Legionella, Tropheryma Whipplei and highly fastidious "HACEK" organisms |
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Laboratory diagnosis of endocarditis requires ____ # of blood cultures drawn at separate times ______# hours apart ____# of sets for each draw with adequate volume of _____ cc |
3 1-8 2 (paired peripheral and central) 20-30 cc |
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Most common cause of viral encephalitis |
arbovirus |
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Other causes of viral encephalitis |
HSV1, HHV6, mumps, mealses, VZV |
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Virus which causes necrosis and hemorrhage within the anterior temporal lobes; associated with RBCs in CSF |
HSV1 |
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Exanthem subitum - common cause of pediatric viral encephalitis |
HHV6 |
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Arboviruses (St Louis and California) are transmitted by what vector? |
mosiquito |
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3 amebic organisms responsible for encephalitis |
1. Naegleria fowleri (primary amebic meninoencephalitis) 2. Acanthamoeba species 3. Balamuthia mandrillaris (granulomatous amebic encephalitis) |
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Aseptic meningitis usually caused by which viruses? and at what time of year? |
enteroviruses; summer and fall |
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Which virus is the most common cause of aseptic meningitis in the winter and spring? |
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCM) |
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Differential diagnosis of neonatal bacterial meningitis (4) |
1. GBS 2. E. coli (Gram - aerobe) 3. Klebsiella (Gram - aerobe) 4. Listeria monocytogenes |
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Most common cause of bacterial meningitis at extremes of age (< 1month and >70) |
Listeria monocytogenes |
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Differential diagnosis of bacterial meningitis in children and young adults (3) |
1. Neisseria meningitides 2. S. pneumoniae 3. H. influenzae, type B
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Most common cause of bacterial meningitis in Southeast Asia |
Streptococcus suis |
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Common agents responsible for meningitis in HIV patients |
S. pneumoniae Mycobacterium tuberculosis Cryptococcus |
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CSF: _______ Meningitis - mild leukocytosis (250 leukocytes per mL) - predominance of mononuclear cells (especially lymphs) - mild to moderate increase in protein - normal glucose |
Aseptic (viral) |
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CSF: _______ Meningitis - marked leukocytosis - predominance of neutrophils - glucose markedly depressed |
Bacterial
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CSF: _____ - varies from normal to findings typical of viral meningitis |
Encephalitis |
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Prosthetic joint infections - most common agent |
Coagulase negative staphylococci |
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Bacteria found relatively commonly in infected shoulder protheses |
Propionibacterium acnes |
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Prosthetic joint infections Causative agents occurring early (<3 months) |
1. S. aureaus 2. Gram - bacilli |
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Prosthetic joint infections Causative agents occurring after a delay (>3-24 months) |
Coag neg staph P acnes |
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Prosthetic joint infections Synovial fluid leukocyte count cutoffs for: 1. Knee 2. Hip |
1. 1700/mL; 65% neutrophils 2. 4000/mL; 80% neutrophils |
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Catheter related sepsis is supported by quantitative colony count from catheter that is ___ fold higher than peripheral specimen; or time to positive culture that is earlier by ____ or more hours. |
5; 2 |
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Two most common bacteria responsible for neonatal sepsis |
E. coli and GBS |
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Most common cause fungal meningitis |
Cryptococcus |
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Most common causes of impetigo (infection of epidermis) |
S. aureus, S. pyogenes |
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Most common causes of furunculosis (infection of skin adnexa, boils) and carbunculosis (draining sinuses from multiple confluent infected skin adnexa) |
S. aureus, S. pyogenes |
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Most common cause of skin infection associated with whirlpools |
Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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Most common causes (3) of skin infection resulting from dog bite |
1. Capnocytophaga canimorsus 2. Pasteurella multocida 3. Staphylococcus intermedius |
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Most common cause of mycobacterial skin infections |
1. M fortuitum 2. M chelonae 3. M marinum 4. M haemophilum 5. M ulcerans 6. M leprae |
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Most common cause of Toxic Shock Syndrome |
S aureus |
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Most common causes of Scalded skin syndrome (Lyells or Ritters syndrome) |
S aureus, S pyogenes |
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Most common cause of Erythrasma |
Corynebacterium minutissimum |
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Most common cause of Pseudomembranous colitis |
Clostridium difficile |
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Most common cause of botryomycosis |
Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans |
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Most common cause of Juvenile periodontitis |
Francisella tularensis |
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Most common cause of ulceroglandular fever |
Burkholderia mallei |
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Most common cause of Glanders |
Burkholderia pseudomallei |
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Most common cause of Rocky mountain spotted fever |
Rickettsia rickettsii |
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Most common cause of Visceral larva migrans |
Toxocara canis/cati |
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Most common cause of Cutaneous larva migrans |
Ancylostoma braziliense |
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Most common cause of bacterial cellulitis and the cause of erysipelas |
S pyogenes (group A strep) |
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Most common cause of Erysipeloid bacterial cellulitis |
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae |
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Most common cause of animal bite associated bacterial cellulitis |
Pasteurella multocida |
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Most common cause of fresh water associated bacterial cellulitis |
Aeromonas hydrophila |
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Most common cause of salt water associated bacterial cellulitis |
Vibrio vulnificans |
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Most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis |
S pyogenes (group A strep), Clostridium diphtheriae |
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Most common cause of Whooping cough |
Bordetella pertussis |
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Most common cause of acute epiglottitis |
H influenzae type B |
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Most common cause of Chancroid |
Haemophilus ducreyi |
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Most common cause of lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) |
Chlamydia trachomatis |
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Most common cause of bacterial arthritis in children and adults, monoarticular |
S aureus, streptococcus |
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Most common cause of bacterial arthritis in IVDU |
Pseudomonas |
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Most common cause of young adults, polyarticular |
N gonorrhoeae |
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Most common cause of Croup (acute laryngotracheobronchitis) |
Parainfluenza virus, serotypes 1-3 |
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Most common cause of viral PNA in infants/children |
RSV |
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Most common cause of viral PNA in adults |
Influenza A (orthomyxovirus) |
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Most common cause of bacterial community acquired PNA |
S pneumoniae H influenzae L pneumoniae S aureus M pneumoniae |
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Most common cause of bacterial PNA in chronic alcoholics |
Klebsiella pneumoniae |
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Most common cause of bacterial PNA in cystic fibrosis |
Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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Most common cause of "atypical/walking" PNA |
Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydia pneumoniae |
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Most common cause of nosocomial PNA |
E coli, P aeruginosa, S aureus, L pneumoniae |
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Most common cause of Otitis media |
S pneumoniae, H influenze, M catarrhalis |
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Most common cause of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (cirrhosis with ascites) |
S pneumoniae |
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Most common cause of secondary bacteria peritonitis (ruptured bowel) |
Mixed (E coli, enterococci, B fragilis, other anaerobes) |
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Most common cause of gastroenteritis with short incubation period (1-8 h) |
S aureus, B cereus |
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Most common cause of gastroenteritis associated with fried rice |
B cereus |
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Most common cause of gastroenteritis known as Traveler's diarrhea |
E coli (ETEC) |
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Most common cause of gastroenteritis associated with hamburgers in fast food restaurants |
E coli (EHEC) |
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Most common cause of gastroenteritis associated with antibiotic use |
C difficile |
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Most common causes of viral gastroenteritis |
Rotavirus Norwalk virus enteric adenovirus |
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Most common causes of gastroenteritis resulting in bloody diarrhea |
Salmonella enteriditis Shigella species Campylobacter jejuni EHEC EIEC Klebsiella oxytoca Entamoeba histolytica Balantidium coli CMV |
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Most common cause of gastroenteritis associated with systemic disease |
Salmonella typhi, other Salmonella species Yersinia enterocolitica Campylobacter species |
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Most common cause of osteomyelitis |
S aureus |
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Most common cause of Necrotizing fasciitis |
Polymicrobial - S pyogenes and anaerobes such as Bacteroides fragilis |
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Most common cause of Pig associated undulant fever |
Brucella suis |
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Most common cause of Goat associated undulant fever |
Brucella melitensis |
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Most common cause of Dog associated undulant fever |
Brucella canis |
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Most common cause of Rabbit fever or deerfly fever (tularemia) |
Francisella tularensis |
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Most common cause of Plague |
Yersinia pestis |
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Most common cause of Carrion disease or verruga peruana (bartonellosis) |
Bartonella bacilliformis |
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Most common cause of uterine infection following septic abortion |
Clostridium perfringens |
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Most common cause of Leprosy (Hansen disease) |
Mycobacterium leprae |
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Most common cause of Rat bite fever |
Streptobacillus moniliformis |
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Most common cause of San Joaquin Vallery fever |
Coccidioides immitis |
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Most common cause of dermatophyte superficial mycosis (tinea capitis, tinea cruris) |
Epidermophyton Microsporon Trichophyton species |
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Most common cause of Black piedra superficial mycosis |
Piedraia hortae |
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Most common cause of White piedra superficial mycosis |
Trichosporon beigelii and other Trichosporon species |
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Most common cause of Tinea versicolor superficial mycosis |
Malassezia furfur |
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Most common cause of Tinea nigra palmaris/plantaris superficial mycosis |
Hortaea (formerly Phaeoannelomyces) werneckii |
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Most common cause of Chromoblastomycosis cutaneous/subcutaneous mycosis |
Phialophora verrucosa, Fonsecaea pedrosoi |
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Most common cause of Lobomycosis cutaneous/subcutaneous mycosis |
Lacazia (formerly Loboa) loboi |
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Most common cause of Phaeohyphomycosis cutaneous/subcutaneous mycosis |
Exophiala jeanselmei Phialophora verrucosa Wangiella dermatitidis Alternaria species many other |
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Most common cause of Sporotrichosis cutaneous/subcutaneous mycosis |
Sporothrix schenckii |
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Most common cause of Eumycotic mycetoma cutaneous/subcutaneous mycosis |
Exophiala jeanselmei, Madurella species, Pseudallescheria boydii (Scedosporium) |
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Most common cause of Rhinosporidiosis cutaneous/subcutaneous mycosis |
Rhinosporidium seeberi |
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Most common cause of Rhinoscleroma |
Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis |
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Most common cause of actinomyotic mycetoma (Madura foot) |
Actinomyces, Nocardia, Streptomyces |
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Most common cause of Measles |
Rubeola virus |
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Most common cause of Erysipelas |
S pyogenes (group A strep) |
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Most common cause of German measles |
Rubella virus |
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Most common cause of Chicken pox |
VZV |
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Most common cause of labial herpes |
HSV1 |
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Most common cause of genital herpes |
HSV2 |
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Most common cause of Roseola (exanthem subitum) |
HHV6 |
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Most common cause of Fifth disease (erythema infectiosum, slapped cheek disease) |
Parvovirus B19 |
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Most common cause of Chagas disease |
Trypanosoma cruzi |
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Most common cause of African Sleep Sickness |
Trypansoma brucei |
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Most common cause of Adiaspiromycosis |
Emmonsia (formerly Chrysosporium) parvum |
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Most common cause of fungal external otitis |
Aspergillus niger |
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Most common cause of Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) |
Measles virus (Rubeola) - reactivation |
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Most common cause of Hand foot mouth disease |
Coxsackie A |
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Most common cause of viral myocarditis |
Coxsackie B |
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Most common cause of Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) |
JC virus |
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Most common cause of Scarlet fever |
S pyogenes (group A strep) |
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Most common cause of acute mastitis |
S aureus |
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Most common cause of Q fever |
Coxiella burnetti |
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Most common cause of Primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) |
Naegleria floweri |
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Most common cause of granulomatous amebic encephalitis (GAE) |
Acanthamoeba species, Balamuthia mandrillaris |
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Most common cause of Postsplenectomy sepsis |
S pneumonia |
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Vector (mosquito): Anopheles species Diseases? Organisms? |
Diseases Organism Dog heartworm Dirofilaria immitis Malaria Plasmodium species Lymphatic filariasis Brugia malayi Lymphatic filariasis Wuchereria bancrofti |
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Vector (mosquito): Aedes species (particularly A aegypti and A albopictus Disease ? Organism ? |
Disease - Arboviral diseases Organism - dengue virus, yellow fever virus, Chikungunya virus |
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Vector (mosquito): Culex species Diseases ? Organisms ? |
Disease Organism Arboviral disease WNV, SLE, Japanese enceph Lymphatic filariasis Brugia malayi Lymphatic filariasis Wuchereria bancrofti |
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Vector (tick): Ixodes species (Eastern US: I scapularis; Western US: I pacificus; Europe: I ricinus) Diseases ? Organisms ? |
Disease Organism Lyme disease Borrelia burgdorferi Babesiosis Babesia species Anaplasmosis Anaplasma phagocytophilium Tickborne enceph Tickborne enceph virus |
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Vector (tick): Lone star tick (Amblyomma americanum) Diseases ? Organisms ? |
Disease Organism Ehrlichiosis Ehrlichia species Tularemia Fracisella tularensis Southern tick Unknown etiology associated illness (STARI) |
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Vector (tick): Dermacentor species (Southern and Western US: D andersoni; Southern and Eastern US: D variabilis) Diseases ? Organisms ? |
Disease Oragnsim Rocky Mt spotted fever Rickettsia rickettsii Tularemia Francisella tularensis Colorado tick fever Colorado tick fever virus |
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Vector (tick): Omithodoros species (soft ticks) Disease ? Organism ? |
Disease - Relapsing fever Organism - Borrelia species |
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Vector (flies): Deer fly (Chrysops species) Diseases ? Organisms ? |
Disease Organism Tularemia - "deerfly fever" Fracisella tularensis Loiasis Loa loa |
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Vector (flies): Dung fly (Musca sorbens) Disease ? Organism ? |
Disease - Trachoma Organism - Chlamydia trachomatis |
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Vector (flies): Sandfly (Phlebotomus and Lutzomyia species) Disease ? Organism ? |
Disease Organism Leishmaniasis Leishmania species Bartonellosis Bartonella baciliformis (carrion disease) Arboviral disease Vesicular stomatitis virus toscana & sicilian virus |
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Vector (flies): Black fly (Simulium species) Disease ? Organism ? |
Disease: Onchocerciasis (river blindness) Organism: Onchocerca volvulus
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Vector (flies): Tsetse fly (Glossina species) Disease ? Organism ? |
Disease: African trypanosomiasis Organism: Trypanosoma brucei |
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Vector (fleas): Rat fleas Diseases ? Organisms ? |
Disease Organism Plague Yersinia pestis Murine typhus Rickettsia typhus |
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Vector (fleas): Dog and cat fleas Disease ? Organism ? |
Disease - Double pored dog tapeworm Organism - Diphlidium caninum |
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Vector (lice): Body lice (Pediculus humanus) Diseases ? Organisms ? |
Disease Organism Epidemic typhus Rickettsia prowazekii Licebourne Borrelia recurrentis replasing fever Trench fever Bartonella quintana |
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Vector (mites): Mite (Liponyssoides sanguineus) Disease ? Organism ? |
Disease - Rickettsial pox Organism - Rickettsia akari |
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Vector (mites): Chigger (Trombiculid mite) Disease ? Organism ? |
Disease - Scrub typhus Organism - Orientia tsutsugamushi |
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Vector: Midges - Culicoides species Disease ? Organism ? |
Disease - fliariasis Organism - Mansonella species |
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Vector: Reduviid Bug - Triatominae |
Disease - American trypanosomiasis (Chagas disease) Organism - Trypanosoma cruzi |
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Theses two viruses do not always express CPE, but do express hemagglutinins that absorb guinea pig RBCs |
Influenza and parainfluenza |
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CPE: Angular, tear shaped cells, focal swollen or glassy cells Time to CPE: 1-7 days |
Enteroviruses (coxsakie A and B, echovirus, pilovirus) |
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CPE: Focal granular and swollen cells Best cell culture: HDF |
Rhinovirus |
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CPE: None or focally enlarged and granular cells; maybe focal multinucleated giant cells Best cell culture: PMK |
Influenza Mumps Parainfluenza (giant cells) |
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CPE: Grapelike clusters Best cell culture: Hep2, HeLa Time to CPE: 2-7 days |
Adenovirus |
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CPE: Syncytia in Hep2 cells Time to CPE: 14 days |
RSV
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CPE: Focal shrunken or enlarged cells, advancing in slow contiguous manner; grows poorly in culture Time to CPE: 14 days No growth on Hep2/HeLa |
VZV |
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CPE: Slow, focal cluster (plaques) Cell culture: only grows on HDF Time to CPE: 14 days |
CMV |
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CPE: Rapid, shrunken or enlarged cells starting at the edge of the cell sheet, sweeping CPE, occasional giant cells Time to CPE: 1-3 days |
HSV1 and 2 |
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Paired sera, taken ____(#) days apart (acute and convalescent), showing ____(#) fold or greater increase in IgG titer is generally considered diagnostic of infection |
7-10; 4 |
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Histologically this virus has nuclear Cowdry type A bodies ("owl eye"), multinucleation, molding and chromatin marginalization (3 Ms) |
HSV |
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Histologically this virus produces "smudge cells" with nuclear inclusions |
Adenovirus |
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Histologically this virus has "owl eye" inclusion, but is not multinucleated; produces both nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions |
CMV |
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Histologically this virus produces nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusion and Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells |
Measles |
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Histologically this virus produces cytoplasmic inclusions known as Negri bodies |
Rabies |
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Name the two Nonenveloped, single stranded DNA family of viruses |
Parvoviridae Cocavirus |
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Name the enveloped, single stranded DNA famly of viruses |
Trick question, there is no enveloped single stranded virus |
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Name the three Nonenveloped, double stranded DNA family of viruses |
Adenoviridae Papillomaviridae Polyomaviridae |
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Name the three enveloped, double stranded DNA family of viruses |
Herpesviridae Hepadnaviridae (HBV) Poxviridae |
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Name for Nonenveloped, single stranded RNA family of viruses |
Picornaviridae (polio, entero, rhino) Calciviridae (norovirus) Heperviridae (Hep E) Hepatitis A |
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Name Nonenveloped, double stranded RNA family of viruses |
Reoviridae (Rotovirus) |
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Name ten enveloped, single stranded RNA family of viruses |
1.Flaviviridae (HCV, yellow fever, dengue, WNV, St Louis and Japanese encephalitis) 2.Togaviridae (rubella, EEE, WEE) 3.Retroviridae (HIV, HTLV) 4. Orthomyxoviridae (influenza) 5. Paramyxoviridae (RSV, hMPV, parainflluenza, mumps, measles) 6. Rhabdoviridae (rabies) 7. Coronaviridae 8. Arenaviridae 9. Bunyaviridae (hantavirus, California encephalitis) 10. Deltavirus (Hep D) |
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Location in which HSV1 achieves dormancy |
trigeminal ganglia nuclei |
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Location in which HSV2 achieves dormancy |
sacral ganglia |
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Location in which CMV achieves dormancy |
Histiocytes, endothelial cells, T lymphocytes |
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Location in which VZV achieves dormancy |
Dorsal root ganglia |
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Location in which EBV achieves dormancy |
B cells |
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Location in which HHV6 achieves dormancy |
T cells |
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Location in which HHV7 achieves dormancy |
lymphocytes |
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Location in which HHV8 achieves dormancy |
B lymphocytes, endothelial cells |
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Disease that occurs mainly in males (usually boys); patients mount an overactive immune response to EBV --> fulminant infectious mononucleosis, B cell lymphoma, aplastic anemia, dysgammaglobulinemia. AND Which gene is defective? |
X linked lymphoproliferative disease (Duncan disease) AND SH2D1A (SAP) gene |
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5 hematologic disorders caused by latent EBV infection |
1. Burkitt lymphoma, especially endemic 2. Hodgkin lymphoma 3. Primary effusion lymphoma 4. Lymphomatoid granulomatosis 5. Posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) |
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Benign lesion of the tongue associated with latent EBV infection |
Oral hairy leukoplakia |
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Carcinoma associated with latent EBV infection |
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma |
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Incidence and severity of congenital varicella is greatest when maternal infection is during _____ trimesterth |
third
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VZV reactivation in the _________ ganglion of the ______ nerve that causes otalgia, unilateral facial paresis, vertigo, hearing loss, an tinnitis |
Ramsey Hunt Syndrome; geniculate; facial |
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pp65 antigenemia (DFA on peripheral blood leukocytes) can be used to diagnosis which viral infection |
CMV |
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low birth weight, microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, chorioretinitis, thrombocytopenia, petechial rash, and purpura. Long term sensorineural hearing loss |
Congenital CMV |
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EBV infects B lymphocytes via which receptor? |
CD21 (C3d receptor) |
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______ lymphocytes proliferate and are responsible for atypical lymphocytes seen on peripheral blood in EBV infections |
CD8 T lymphocytes |
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Virus responsible for Roseola infantum (sixth disease, exanthem subitum) in infants |
HHV6 |
