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579 Cards in this Set

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Which of the following represents the most reliable criterion for pathogenicity of staphylococci?
- Hemolysis
- Pigment production
- Coagulase production
- Mannitol fermentation
- Liquefaction of gelatin
Hemolysis
Which of the following forms of bacterial gene transfer is the least susceptible to DNase and does not require cell-to-cell contact?
- Transition
- Conjugation
- Transduction
- Transformation
Transduction
Which of the following organisms is acid-fast?
- Mycobacterium avium
- Treponema pallidum
- Borrelia recurrentis
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Strepococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium avium
Which of the following conditions is characterized by a reduction in size and a condensation of nuclear material?
- Pyknosis
- Apoptosis
- Karyolysis
- Hypoplasia
- Karyorrhexis
Pyknosis
An important early event in the chemotactic process is cellular adherence to vascular endothelium. The upregulation of endothelial adhesion molecules (ICAM-1 and VCAM-1) is in part a response to:
- cytokine stimulation
- lysozyme production
- mast cell degradation
- antibody binding to endothelial Fc receptors
- protease inhibition by serum anti proteases
cytokine stimulation
Each of the following is necessary for viral antigen recognition by CD4 T-helper cells except one. Which on is this exception?
- Viral replication in host cells
- Cleavage of viral proteins into small peptides
- Transport of viral peptides to a cell surface by MHC Class II molecules
- Binding of the T cell's TCR to a MHC Class II bound viral peptide
- Internalization of the virus (or viral protein) by an antigen presenting cell
Internalization of the virus (or viral protein) by an antigen presenting cell
Which of the following produces a bacterial toxin that attaches to presynaptic nerves and blocks the release of acetylcholine?
- Helicobacter pylori
- Clostridium difficile
- Clostridium botulinum
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Clostridium botulinum
Which of the following is the primary site of a Ghon complex?
- Trachea and bronchus
- Parenchyma of the lower lobes
- Parenchyma of the upper lobes
- Trachea and hilar lymph nodes
- Subpleural parenchyma and hilar lymph nodes
Parenchyma of the upper lobes
Bacterial lipopolysaccharide contains each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Lipid A
- Teichoic acid
- Core polysaccharide
- O specific side chain
- Keto deoxy octanoate
Keto deoxy octanoate
Which of the following is an example of naturally- acquired passive immunity in humans?
- Tetanus immunization
- Injection of gamma globulin
- Placental transfer of antibody
- Antibody produced during recovery from measles
Placental transfer of antibody
Which of the following is characterized by individual, blister-like lesions affecting specific dermatomes and usually causing intense, burning pain?
- Variola
- Measles
- Herpes zoster
- Infectious mononucleosis
- Hand foor and mouth disease
Herpes zoster
Collagen degradation that is observed in chronic periodontal disease can result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of:
- Porphyromonas species
- Lepthothrix buccalis
- Entamoeba gingivalis
- Enterococcus faecalis
- Veillonella species
Lepthothrix buccalis
Hepatitis C infection is most often transmitted through:
- sexual contact
- oral secretions
- blood transfusions
- the fecal oral route
- respiratory droplets
blood transfusions
The microflora of the healthy gingival sulcus is predominantly:
- spirochetes and yeasts
- gram positive facultative rods and spirochetes
- gram positive facultative cocci and filamentous bacteria
- gram negative anaerobic rods and fusobacteria
- gram negative anaerobic cocci and gram positive facultative cocci
gram negative anaerobic rods and fusobacteria
Immunologic injury that involves the activation of complement as an important event in producing damage to tissue is found in which of the following reactions?
- Delayed type hypersensitivity
- Anaphylactic type hypersensitivity
- Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
- Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity
Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
Which of the following represents the most numerous leukocytes found in gingival crevicular fluid?
- Monocytes
- Neutrophils
- Plasma cells
- B lymphocytes
- T lymphocytes
Monocytes
Which of the following groups of cells are characteristic of a chronic inflammatory process?
- Neutrophils, mast cells, and basophils
- Neutrophils, eosinophils, and histiocytes
- Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages
- Basophils, eosinophils, and Reed Sternberg cells
- Histiocytes, Reed Sternberg cells, and mase cells
Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages
Which unique aspect of cariogenic strains of Streptococcus mutans sets them apart from other oral acidogenic organisms?
- Tendency to form chains
- Secretion of proteolytic enzymes
- Extracellular polysaccharide made from glucose
- Formation of water insoluble glucans from sucrose
- Four equivalents of acid formed per mole of glucose
Secretion of proteolytic enzymes
Which of the following is cheifly an extravascular event?
- Stasis
- Hyperemia
- Chemotaxis
- Margination
- Pavementing
Chemotaxis
Spontaneous gingival bleeding seen in acute leukemia is most likely a result of which of the following?
- Thrombocytopenia
- von Willebrand disease
- Hypoprothrombinemia
- Vascular fragility
- Factor VII deficiency
Thrombocytopenia
A bone lesion with radiopaque structures radiating from the periphery suggests which of the following?
- Osteosarcoma
- Osteoblastoma
- Multiple myeloma
- Giant cell tumor
- Osteitis deformans
Multiple myeloma
A virus associated with the induction of cervical carcinoma is which of the following?
- Adenovirus
- C type virus
- Varicella zoster virus
- Epstein Barr virus
- Human papillomavirus
Human papillomavirus
Which of the following types of necrosis is particularly characteristic of pyogenic infections?
- Caseous
- Gummatous
- Coagulative
- Liquefactive
- Enzymatic fat
Caseous
Which of the following human cancers is associated with Epstein Barr virus?
- T cell lymphoma
- Kaposi's sarcoma
- Hepatocellular carcinoma
- Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma of the uterine cervix
T cell lymphoma
Which of the following conditions might be an initial manifestation of early, acute HIV infection?
- Kaposi's sarcoma
- Wasting syndrome
- Oral hairy leukoplakia
- Mononucleosis like syndrome
- Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Mononucleosis like syndrome
Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of DNA from dead smooth pneumococci develop capsules. This is an example of bacterial:
- mutation
- dominance
- conjugation
- transduction
- transformation
transformation
Each of the following denotes a malignant neoplasm except one. Which one is this exception?
- Adenoma
- Hepatoma
- Lymphoma
- Melanoma
- Seminoma
Adenoma
Secondary syphilis is characterized by each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Cutaneous lesions
- Positive VDRL test
- Development of a gumma
- Mucous membrane lesions
- Presence of spirochetes in lesions
Development of a gumma
Most cases of encephalitis are caused by which of the following?
- Fungi
- Viruses
- Protozoa
- Bacteria
- Rickettsia
Viruses
Primary tissue transplants, such as allogenic skin, kidney or heart, are most commonly rejected because of:
- induction of armed host macrophages
- immediate hypersensitivity reactions
- humoral immune responses to cell surface alloantigens
- cell mediated immune responses to cell surface alloantigens
- humoral and cell mediated responses to intracellular tissue specific antigens
cell mediated immune responses to cell surface alloantigens
An 18-year-old male patient sustains a compound fracture of the femur. Twenty-four hours later the fragments are manipulated in order to better align before splinting. The patient dies suddenly. The most likely reason for his sudden death is:
- hypovolemic shock
- myocardial infarction
- fat embolism
- pulmonary thromboembolism
- air embolism
fat embolism
Prevotella intermedia is first detectable in the oral cavity:
- at birth
- by adolescence
- in the presence of dental caries
- immediately before periodontal disease appears
- long after periodontal disease appears
by adolescence
A patient has oral candidiasis but otherwise is in good health. Which of the following drugs is the best choice for treating this patient?
- Nystatin
- Vancomycin
- Penicillin
- Tetracycline
- Streptomycin
Nystatin
The newly formed, highly vascularized connective tissue associated with inflammation is known as which of the following?
- Scar
- Angioma
- Granuloma
- Purulent exudate
- Granulation tissue
Granulation tissue
Vasodilation and increased vasopermeability lasting for several days in an area of inflammation indicate which of the following?
- Thrombosis
- Release of bradykinin
- Hageman factor activation
- Formation of granulation tissue
- Endothelial cell damage and disruption
Endothelial cell damage and disruption
A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus presents with nasal obstruction, proptosis, and palatal perforation. These clinical findings are most consistent with which of the following?
- Candidiasis
- Mucormycosis
- Blastomycosis
- Histoplasmosis
- Coccidioidomycosis
Mucormycosis
Certain staphylococci, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli, and streptococci share as a property the fact that they:
- are gram positive
- are strict anaerobes
- fail to ferment glucose
- do not grow on nutrient agar
- are common in hospital acquired infections
are common in hospital acquired infections
B-cell immunodeficiency can be treated with injections of:
- activated complement components
- T helper cell adjuvants
- natural killer cells
- gamma globulin
gamma globulin
Which of the following cells are increased in number in the bloodstream in the case of allergy or parasitic infection?
- Basophils
- Eosinophils
- Neutrophils
- Atypical lymphocytes
- Nucleated erythrocytes
Eosinophils
Which of the following is the most appropriate sterilization method for a heat-labile item to be used in a surgical procedure?
- Dry heat
- Autoclaving
- Ethylene oxide
- Saturated chemical vapor
- Immersion in chemical sterilant
Autoclaving
The most effective means of preventing disease transmission in the dental office is based on which of the following concepts?
- Asepsis
- Disinfection
- Sterilization
- Barrier techniques
- Universal precautions
Sterilization
Which of the following conditions is diagnosed by karyotyping?
- Gout
- Cystic fibrosis
- Tay Sach disease
- Neurofibromatosis
- Turner's syndrome
Turner's syndrome
Each of the following is a feature of acute pancreatitis except one. Which one is this exception?
- Fibrosis
- Hemorrhage
- Inflammation
- Fat necrosis
- Parenchymal necrosis
Fibrosis
Each of the following statements concerning malignant hypertension is correct except one. Which one is this exception?
- Patients will live a normal life span if untreated
- Patients have markedly elevated levels of plasma renin
- Patients are generally younger than those with benign hypertension
- The corresponding renal lesion is known as malignant nephrosclerosis
- It may arise de novo or appear suddenly in apatient with previous mold hypertension
Patients will live a normal life span if untreated
A patient who has anemia, poorly localized abdominal pain, and wrist and foot drop probably is manifesting a toxic state induced by which of the following?
- Carbon tetrachloride
- Carbon monoxide
- Bismuth
- Mercury
- Lead
Lead
A patient with shingles (herpes zoster) is most likely to have had a previous episode of which of the following?
- Measles
- Roseola
- Chickenpox
- Viral meningitis
- Infectious mononucleosis
Chickenpox
Normal human cells contain gene sequences homologous to virus genome sequences known to induce cancer in animals. What term applies to these gene sequences when found in human cells?
- Protooncogenes
- Viral oncogenes
- Retroviral genes
- Analogous chromosomes
- Homologous chromosomes
Protooncogenes
Which of the following bacterial vaccines is given routinely to children in the USA?
- BCG
- Cholera
- Polyvalent pneumococcus
- Measles, mumps, rubella
- Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus
Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus
Which of the following organisms is commonly located on the dorsum of the tongue?
- Actinomyces israelii
- Streptococcus salivarius
- Lactobacillus acidophilus
- Prevotella melaninogenica
- Streptococcus mutans
Streptococcus salivarius
Which of the following commonly produces a positive heterophile antibody test?
- Adenovirus
- Cytomegalovirus
- Epstein Barr virus
- Parainfluenza virus
- Herpes simplex virus type 1
Epstein Barr virus
Which of the following inflammatory responses is associated with an infection caused by pyogenic pathogens?
- Catarrhal
- Granulomatous
- Pseudomembranous
- Acute suppurative
Acute suppurative
Which of the following bacterial genera is least likely to be found among normal anaerobic flora of the gingival sulcus?
- Mycobacterium
- Fusobacterium
- Prevotella
- Actinobacillus
- Porphyromonas
Mycobacterium
If Type A blood is accidentally transfused into a Type B recipient, the immediate hemolytic reaction would be the result of which of the following?
- IgM against the A antigen
- IgA against the A antigen
- IgG against the B antigen
- T cytotoxic cell activation
- Sensitization to antigens other than A or B
IgM against the A antigen
Which of the following is the most appropriate alternative for treating a patient allergic to penicillin who has an infection caused by bacteria sensitive to penicillin?
- Rifampin
- Amoxicillin
- Erythromycin
- Tetracycline
- Cephalosporin
Erythromycin
In the past 30 years (1998), the mortality rate of which of the following forms of cancer in women has shown a marked increase?
- Uterine cervix
- Colorectal
- Stomach
- Breast
- Lung
Lung
Normal clotting time and normal platelet count accompanied by prolonged bleeding time suggest which of the following?
- Hemophilia
- Steatorrhea
- Polycythemia vera
- Thrombocytopenic purpura
- Excessive aspirin ingestion
Excessive aspirin ingestion
Dry heat sterilization of dental instruments requires:
- 3 minutes at 270ºF (132ºC)
- 20 minutes at 250ºF (121ºC)
- 30 minutes at 320ºF (160ºC)
- 60 minutes at 340ºF (171ºC)
- 6 hours at 100ºF (38ºC)
60 minutes at 340ºF (171ºC)
Successful immunization with a hepatitis B vaccine results in the development of serum antibodies to which of the following?
- HBsAg
- HBcAg
- HBeAg
- HBV DNA polymerase
HBsAg
Which of the following represents a simple autosomal dominant disorder?
- Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- Gardner syndrome
- Cleft palate
- Gout
Gardner syndrome
A patient with rheumatic heart disease is most likely to develop congestive heart failure due to which of the following?
- Heart murmur
- Valvular insufficiency
- Digitalis toxicity
- Cor pulmonale
- Aschoff bodies in coronary arteries
Valvular insufficiency
Which of the following represents the phenotypic expression of both alleles in a gene pair?
- Penetrance
- Lyonization
- Codominance
- Hybridization
- Heterozygosity
Codominance
Hereditary angioedema is the result of which of the following?
- Lack of a thymus
- Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor
- Developmental arrest of lymphocytes
- Defective VH gene recombination to DJH
- Bare lymphocytes (no Class I/II antigens)
Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor
Legionella pneumophilia is commonly transmitted by:
- sexual contact
- water contaminated with human waste
- aerosolization of organisms in contaminated soil
- direct contact with respiratory droplets from a contaminated person
- aerosolization of organisms in air conditioning cooling towers
aerosolization of organisms in air conditioning cooling towers
Which of the following best represents the pathogenesis of jaundice in patients with hepatitis A?
- Massive hemolysis
- Portal hypertension
- Damage to liver cells
- Massive fibrosis of the liver
- Obstruction of main bile ducts
Damage to liver cells
Which of the following pathologic changes is irreversible?
- Fatty changes in liver cells
- Karyolysis in myocardial cells
- Glycogen deposition in hepatocyte nuclei
- Hydropic vacuolization of renal tubular epithelial cells
Karyolysis in myocardial cells
Which of the following is the major viral cause of birth defects in infants in developed countries?
- Measles
- Cytomegalovirus
- Herpes simplex
- Rubella
- Varicella zoster
Cytomegalovirus
Warts are caused by which of the following?
- Papillomaviruses
- Herpesviruses
- Rhinoviruses
- Adenoviruses
- Rotaviruses
Papillomaviruses
To which of the following molecules does HIV bind?
- CD4
- CD8
- MHC Class I
- MHC Class II
- Immunoglobulin
CD4
Which of the following viral diseases has the longest incubation period?
- Herpetic gingivostomatitis
- Common cold
- Influenza
- Measles
- Rabies
Rabies
Which of the following typically results in sudden death?
- Bronchiectasis
- Pneumoconiosis
- Pulmonary emphysema
- Pulmonary saddle embolus
- Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Pulmonary saddle embolus
Uncomplicated healing of a wound by secondary intention, observed microscopically at three days, is most likely to show evidence of which of the following?
- Mature cicatrix
- Keloid formation
- Granulomatous inflammation
- Lack of acute inflammation
- Ulceration of the epithelial surface
Ulceration of the epithelial surface
Which of the following represents the most common autopsy finding in instances of sudden death as a result of myocardial infarction?
- Valvular prolapse
- Coronary thrombosis
- Fibrinous pericarditis
- Aneurysm of the heart wall
- Rupture of the coronary vessel
Coronary thrombosis
Which of the following represents the characteristic cellular infiltrate in delayed type hypersensitivity?
- T cells and macrophages
- Eosinophils
- Neutrophils
- B cells and plasma cells
- Mast cells and basophils
T cells and macrophages
Which type of oral candidiasis is likely to produce a firmly adherent white plaque on the oral mucosa?
- Acute pseudomembranous
- Chronic hyperplastic
- Chronic atrophic
- Acute atrophic
Chronic hyperplastic
If a foreign antigen enters the body through the skin, which of the following portions of the lymphoid system is the antigen most likely to reach first?
- Liver
- Spleen
- Thymus
- Lymph nodes
- Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue
Lymph nodes
Each of the following is commonly associated with congestive heart failure except one. Which one is this exception?
- Dyspnea
- Cyanosis
- Anasarca
- Ankle edema
- Passive congestion of the liver
Anasarca
The appearance of new strains of human immunodeficiency virus are primarily the result of:
- natural selection
- genomic recombination
- errors in translation
- errors in transcription
errors in transcription
Bleeding esophageal varices are a common complication of which of the following conditions?
- Cirrhosis
- Hiatal hernia
- Pancreatic carcinoma
- Chronic active hepatitis
- Hepatocellular carcinoma
Cirrhosis
Which of the following is the primary site of origin of neuroblastoma?
- Brain
- Kidney
- Stomach
- Mandible
- Adrenal gland
Adrenal gland
In the process of cell death, lysosomal enzymes function mainly to:
- autolyze necrotic cells
- mediate cell degeneration
- act as a major target for cell injury
- activate the complement sequence
autolyze necrotic cells
The antigen-binding site of antibody molecules is localized in the:
- Fab fragment
- Fc receptor
- J chain
- constant region
Fab fragment
Which of the following genera of bacteria is most commonly found on the skin?
- Candida
- Brucella
- Bacillus
- Streptococcus
- Staphylococcus
Staphylococcus
Which of the following is unque to gram negative bacteria?
- Flagella
- Capsules
- Ribosomes
- Endotoxins
- Endospores
Endotoxins
Inadequate immobilization after a bone fracture is most likely to result in which of the following?
- Osteomyelitis
- Osteoarthritis
- Pseudoarthrosis
- Heberden's nodes
- Rheumatoid arthritis
Pseudoarthrosis
Phage conversion is responsible for which of the following?
- Transformation of bacteria
- Production of beta galactose
- Production of pyogenic toxin
- Ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen
Production of pyogenic toxin
Which of the following represents the best way to verify heat sterilization?
- Using a chemical monitor
- Recording sterilizer pressure
- Recording duration of exposure
- Recording sterilizer temperature
- Testing with biological indicator
Testing with biological indicator
Which of the following diseases is most often characterized by hyphae growing in and around vessels?
- Candidiasis
- Mucormycosis
- Blastomycosis
- Histoplasmosis
- Coccidioidomycosis
Mucormycosis
In either an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection, which of the following cells increase in number in the bloodstream?
- Basophils
- Eosinophils
- Plasma cells
- Atypical lymphocytes
- Nucleated erythrocytes
Eosinophils
Which of the following viruses is characterized by latency and by the clinical symptoms that can follow trauma, fever, or nerve damage?
- Variola
- Influenza
- Rubella
- Herpes simplex
- Coxsackievirus A
Herpes simplex
Which of the following is the most important function of bacterial pili in causing human infectious disease?
- Making the bacteria motile
- Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells
- Transfering DNA from one bacterium to another
- Destroying phagocytic macrophages and neutrophils
Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells
Host responses against encapsulated Streptococcus pneumoniae are chiefly mediated by which of the following?
- IgE
- IgD
- Opsonins
- Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
- Delayed hypersensitivity
Opsonins
Most rickettsial disease can produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae:
- produce potent exotoxins
- cause extensive CNS damage
- are destructive for epithelial cells
- are destructive for endothelial cells
are destructuve for endothelial cells
The process of gene transfer between bacterial cells that involve the uptake of naked DNA molecules is classified as which of the following?
- Conjugation
- Transduction
- Translocation
- Transformation
- Gene conversion
Transformation
Obesity, striae, moon face, buffalo hump, and osteoporosis are manifestations of which of the following?
- Myxedema
- Acromegaly
- Addison's disease
- Cushing's syndrome
- Diabetes insipidus
Cushing's syndrome
The capsule of Streptococcus mutans is an important virulence factor that:
- has proteolytic activity
- enhances oral accumulation
- causes circulatory collapse
- prevents phagocytic digestion
- is necessary to cause bacteremia
enhances oral accumulation
Which of the following genera form endospores?
- Proteus and Escherichia
- Clostridium and Bacillus
- Porphyromonas and Streptococcus
- Mycobacterium and Actinomyces
- Staphylococcus and Corynebacterium
Clostridium and Bacillus
Which of the following chemical agents has the broadest antimicrobial spectrum of activity?
- Phenol
- Ethanol
- Isopropanol
- Glutaraldehyde
- Quaternary amine
Glutaraldehyde
Which of the following viruses does not establish a latent infection?
- Poliovirus
- Epstein Barr
- Herpes simplex
- Varicellazoster
- Cytomegalovirus
Poliovirus
Cor pulmonale is usually the direct result of:
- viral pneumonia
- myocardial ischemia
- systemic hypertension
- resistance to blood flow through the lungs
- streptococcal hypersensitization
resistance to blood flow through the lungs
Which of the following represents one function of macrophages in immunity?
- Produce IL 2
- Produce antibody
- Present antigen to antigen specific T cells
- Mediators of antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity
Present antigen to antigen specific T cells
What is the role of lactobacilli in coronal caries?
- Primary pathogen in most cases
- Highly pathogenic in animal models
- Causes progression of existing lesions
- Highly adherent colonizer of smooth surfaces
- Consumes lactic acid produced by streptococci
Causes progression of existing lesions
Which of the following represents the formation of an intravascular blood clot?
- Thrombosis
- Hemorrhage
- Infarction
- Embolization
- Transudation
Thrombosis
Which of the following statements is correct regarding glioblastoma multiforme?
- The tumor is most common before puberty
- It is classified as a type of meningioma
- It is the most common type of astrocytoma
- Its prognosis is generally more favorable than Grade I astrocytoma
- It is derived from the epithelial lining of the ventricles
It is the most common type of astrocytoma
A patient states that he immediately begins wheezing and has difficulty breathing when exposed to penicillin. Which of the following classes of antibodies is responsible for the difficulty in breathing?
- IgA
- IgE
- IgG
- IgM
- IgD
IgE
Multiple drug resistance is related most closely to bacterial:
- plasmids
- chromosomes
- transduction
- transformation
- viruses in the bacterial wall
plasmids
An enterotoxin formed by Staphylococcus aureus causes:
- food poisoning
- a rash on the skin
- neuromuscular paralysis
- spasms of voluntary muscles
food poisoning
The basic chemical structure of endotoxins includes which of the following?
- Capsular polysaccharide
- Acid stable peptidoglycan
- H and L chain glycoproteins
- Lipoteichoic acid, polysaccharide, protein
- Somatic O polysaccharide, core polysaccharide, lipid A
Somatic O polysaccharide, core polysaccharide, lipid A
Which of the following causes whooping cough?
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Bordetella pertussis
- Brucella melitensis
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
Bordetella pertussis
Which of the following disorders is least likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with acute appendicitis?
- Crohn's disease
- Duodenal peptic ulcer
- Meckel's diverticulitis
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
- Gastroenteritis with mesenteric adenitis
Duodenal peptic ulcer
Dimorphism in microorganisms is characterized by the capability to produce:
- both sexual and asexual spores
- both a yeast phase and a mycelial phase
- two distinct types of clinical infections
- both by budding and by production of spores
both a yeast phase and a mycelial phase
During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, leukotrienes and prostaglandin D2 are generated from which of the following?
- Thymus
- Histamine
- Arachidonic acid
- Bradykinin and other kinins
- Granules of mast cells and basophils
Arachidonic acid
Under which of the following circumstances does a graft versus host reaction occur?
- When nonvital tissues are grafted
- When viable lymphoid cells are present in the graft
- When the recipient and the donor are synergic
- When the graft is contaminated with gram negative microorganisms
- When the donor and the recipient are of different races
When viable lymphoid cells are present in the graft
Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer?
- History of bearing multiple children
- Estrogen deficiency
- Silicone implants
- Fibroadenoma
- Obesity
Obesity
Which of the following are directly associated with destruction of glomerular basement membranes in a patient with glomerulonephritis?
- Eosinophils
- Lymphokines
- IgE antibodies
- Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Penicillin is usually non-tocix to human cells because human cells lack which of the following?
- Mitochondria
- Peptidoglycans
- Topoisomerases
- Nuclear membranes
Peptidoglycans
Anaerobic bacteria obtain their energy requirements from which of the following reactions?
- Respiration
- Fermentation
- Atmospheric oxygen
- Oxidative phosphorylation
- Catalase and superoxide dismutase
Fermentation
In order for a virus to infect a host cell, it must first adsorb onto the cell surface. This process necessitates:
- phagocytic activity by the cell
- an inhibition of the cellular secretion of interferon
- an insertion of virally specified glycoproteins into the host cell membrane
- a specific binding of the virus to a cell membrane receptor
a specific binding of the virus to a cell membrane receptor
Neisseria gonorrheae has affinity for which of the following structures?
- Skin
- Nerve cells
- Plasma cells
- Muscle fibers
- Mucous membrane
Mucous membrane
Which of the following is most likely caused by chronic blood loss dur to a long standing peptic ulcer?
- Aplastic anemia
- Hemolytic anemia
- Pernicious anemia
- Myelophthisic anemia
- Iron deficiency anemia
Iron deficiency anemia
An afebrile patient with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia and an absence of urobilinogen most likely has which of the following conditions?
- Cholelithiasis
- Aplastic anemia
- Hemolytic anemia
- Acute hepatitis
- Alcoholic cirrhosis
Cholelithiasis
Which of the following genera of fungi is most frequently recovered from healthy mucous membranes?
- Candida
- Aspergillus
- Histoplasma
- Blastomyces
- Coccidioides
Candida
Which of the following disinfectants is effective against herpes simplex viruses but not rhinoviruses?
- Phenolics
- Iodophores
- Glutaraldehyde
- Sodium hypochlorite
- 70% isopropyl alcohol
70% isopropyl alcohol
The chemotactic accumulation of inflammatory cells that occurs at the sites where immune complexes are deposited is most probably due to the presence of:
- C5a
- Factor B
- IL 2
- IgA
- IgE
C5a
In which of the following organs or tissues are ascending infections common?
- Bone
- Heart
- Kidney
- Peritoneum
- Subcutaneous connective tissue
Kidney
Individuals with severe, uncomplicated pulmonary emphysema might be expected to show which of the following?
- Cough
- Chest pain
- Normal or increased total lung capacity
- Difficulty when breathing in (inspiration)
Normal or increased total lung capacity
Which of the following is an oncogenic RNA virus?
- Rotavirus
- Retrovirus
- Herpesvirus
- Paramyxovirus
- Papillomavirus
Retrovirus
Candidiasis in the adult oral cavity may signify a change in the balance of oral microbiota. This particular change is often seen in persons who are taking which of the following drugs?
- Antiviral
- Antifungal
- Antibacterial
Antibacterial
In addition to Kaposi's sarcoma, which other malignant neoplasm is often observed in AIDS?
- Mycosis fungoides
- Testicular carcinoma
- Neuroblastoma
- Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
- Rhabdomyosarcoma
Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
Which of the following represents a malignant tumor arising from mesenchymal tissue?
- Sarcoma
- Adenoma
- Carcinoma
- Hamartoma
- Choristoma
Sarcoma
Certain enzymes are responsible for supparation. These enzymes derive chiefly from:
- serum
- tissue
- neutrophils
- lymphocytes
- plasma cells
neutrophils
Which of the following represents the classic microscopic lesion of rheumatoid arthritis?
- Tophus
- Pannus
- Aschoff body
- Heberden node
- Wire loop lesion
Pannus
A 43-year-old woman exhibits radiographic evidence of an osteolytic lesion of the humerus. Her serum calcium level is elevated. Microscopically, the bone lesion shows numerous giant cells. Which of the following represents the most probably diagnosis?
- Renal rickets
- Fibrous dysplasia
- Ostetis deformans
- Hyperparathyroidism
Hyperparathyroidism
Adult respiratory distress syndrome might be caused by each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Shock
- Heroin overdose
- Viral pneumonia
- Cigarette smoking
- Breathing 100% O2
Cigarette smoking
Rheumatic fever can be a sequelae to which of the following streptococcal infections?
- Pyoderma
- Diphtheria
- Scarlet fever
- Dental caries
- Streptococcal gangrene
Scarlet fever
Which of the following represents the epithelial change most predictive of cancer?
- Dysplasia
- Metaplasia
- Acanthosis
- Parakeratosis
- Hyperkeratosis
Dysplasia
Acute leukemias are most often seen in which of the following age groups?
- Under 20 years
- 20 to 40 years
- 40 to 60 years
- 60 to 80 years
- Over 80 years
Under 20 years
Which of the following is a major component of nephrotic syndrome?
- Anemia
- Hematuria
- Hypertension
- Proteinuria
- Red cell casts in the urine
Proteinuria
Which of the following is the most common skin cancer in humans?
- Malignant melanoma
- Basal cell carcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Sebaceous adenocarcinoma
- Transitional cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Which of the following represents the most probable cause for prolonged bleeding time in a patient with leukemia?
- Decreased factor VIII
- Increased factor IX
- Increased megakaryocytes
- Decreased level of serum calcium
- Decreased number of blood platelets
Decreased number of blood platelets
An abscess in the oral cavity with central necrosis extruding pus containing sulfur granules would be which of the following?
- Furuncle
- Tuberculosis
- Actinomycosis
- Vincent's infection
Actinomycosis
Patients with which of the following malignancies have the poorest prognosis?
- Lung cancer
- Malignant melanoma
- Pancreatic carcinoma
- Carcinoma of the colon
- Squamous carcinoma of the tongue
Pancreatic carcinoma
Asymptomatic carriers are a mjor hazard of which of the following?
- Plague
- Shigellosis
- Salmonellosis
- Typhoid fever
- Legionnaire's disease
Typhoid fever
Acid phosphatase is elevated in which of the following malignancies?
- Multiple myeloma
- Carcinoma of the breast
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Carcinoma of the thyroid
- Metastatic carcinoma of the prostate
Metastatic carcinoma of the prostate
Which of the following is correct for obligate anaerobic microorganisms in the oral cavity?
- They do not exist in this area
- Only gram positive organisms are found
- They are normal flora and opportunistic
- They are seldom isolated in the laboratory
- They can be completely controlled by using antibiotics
They are normal flora and opportunistic
Malignant epithelial cells have an increased number and wider distribution of which of the following receptors?
- IL 1
- Laminin
- Histamine
- Complement
- Immunoglobulin
Laminin
Each of the following is a risk factor in atherosclerosis except one. Which one is this exception?
- Heredity
- Alcoholism
- Hypertension
- Diabetes mellitus
- Hyperlipoproteinemia
Alcoholism
Which of the following is the single most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity?
- Enterococci
- Staphylococci
- Anaerobic streptococci
- Facultative streptococci
- Beta hemolytic streptococci
Facultative streptococci
Each of the following characterizes a chlamydial infection except one. Which one is this exception?
- Large numbers of asymptomatic carriers
- Frequent coinfection with gonorrhea
- The ability of the organism to survive in the host extracellularly
- The greater likelihood that younger women will acquire salpingitis
The ability of the organism to survive in the host extracellularly
An autosomal dominant trait showing 50% penetrance will be phenotypically expressed in what percent of the offspring?
- 0
- 25
- 33
- 50
- 75
25
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection differs from influenza infections in that:
- RSV can be treated with amantadine
- RSV causes disease primarily in infants
- Influenza virus is difficult to transmit
- RSV can be prevented with effective vaccines
- Secretory IgA is not effective in preventing disease
RSV causes disease primarily in infants
Which of the following represents the most common source of pulmonary embolism?
- Esophageal varices
- Endarteritis
- Lymphangitis
- Buerger's disease
- Thrombophlebitis
Thrombophlebitis
Aflatoxin is produced by:
- Mucor
- Candida
- Tricophyton
- Penicillum
- Aspergillus
Aspergillus
Which of the following conditions predisposes to lung cancer by causing squamous metaplasia of bronchial epithelium?
- Bronchiectasis
- Bronchial asthma
- Chronic bronchitis
- Bronchial carcinoid
- Pulmonary emphysema
Chronic bronchitis
The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced by which of the following?
- An increase in salivary hyaluronidase
- An increased number of bacteria in saliva
- An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva
- A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque
A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque
In addition to Neisseria meningitidis which of the following is a significant cause of meningitis?
- Streptococcus faecalis
- Streptococcus pyogenes
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Staphylococcus auerus
- Staphylococcus epidermidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Which of the following are most antigenic?
- Lipids
- Haptens
- Proteins
- Nucleic acids
- Carbohydrates
Proteins
Which of the following characterizes victims of fatal, acute carbon monoxide poisoning?
- Cherry red blood
- Acute renal failure
- Massive liver necrosis
- A hypercoaguability state
- Anemia and generalized white cell depletion
Cherry red blood
Which of the following represents the chief complication of mumps in the adult male?
- Orchitis
- Prostatis
- Glomerulonephritis
- Chronic nonspecific sialadenitis
Orchitis
A fungus that causes systemic disease, most commonly of the lungs, and is characterized by its production of tuberculate chlamydospores in cluture is:
- Microsporum canis
- Mycoplasma hominis
- Leptospira pomona
- Actinomyces israelii
- Histoplasma capsulatum
Histoplasma hominis
Which of the following genera is most likely involved in bacilliary dysentery?
- Vibrio
- Shigella
- Entamoeba
- Salmonella
- Escherichieae
Shigella
Prostacyclin and thromboxane are products of which pathway?
- Complement cascade
- Cyclooxygenase
- Lipoxygenase
- Fibrinolytic
Cyclooxygenase
The most important viral cause of gastroenteritis in children less than 2 years old is:
- rotavirus
- echovirus
- rhinovirus
- coxsackievirus
- cytomegalovirus
rotavirus
Most bacterial endotoxins are composed of which of the following?
- Pure proteins
- Pure carbohydrates
- Heteropolysaccharides
- Mucoprotein complexes
- Lipoprotein polysaccharide complexes
Lipoprotein polysaccharide complexes
Which of the following is the principle factor underlying localized edema in inflammation?
- Lyphatic obstruction
- Obstruction of venous outflow
- Reduced intravascular osmotic pressure
- Protein leakage into tissue spaces
- Increased capillary permeability
Increased capillary permeability
The most common source of massive hematemesis in alcoholics is (are):
- peptic ulcer
- acute gastritis
- esophageal varices
- Mallory Weiss syndrome
- acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
esophageal varices
A 17-year-old patient has periodontitis involving the anterior teeth with sparse plaque. Which of the following is the probable primary pathogen?
- Actinobacillus actinomycetemocomitans
- Bacteroides forsythus
- Fusobacterium nucleatum
- Porphyromonas gingivalis
- Prevotella intermedia
Actinobacilus actinomycetemcomitans
Which of the following represents the most reliable postmortem indicator of left ventricular cardiac failure?
- Ascites
- Venous congestion
- Enlargement of the spleen
- Peripheral edema of the ankles
- Chronic passive congestion of the lungs
Chronic passive congestion of the lungs
Which of the following represents the most frequent cause of a clinically palpable breast mass in an adult woman?
- Sarcoma
- Fibroadenoma
- Adenosarcoma
- Fibrocystic disease
- Intraductal papilloma
Fibrocystic disease
Which of the following describes the function of adjuvants?
- Enhance secretion of IgA
- Enhance antibody response
- Stimulate complement synthesis
- Desensitize to a given antigen
- Activate mast cell degranulation
Enhance antibody response
A patient lapses into a state of fluctuating levels of consciousness or coma several hours after sustaining blunt trauma to the head. This finding is consistent with which of the following conditions?
- Subdural hematoma
- Cerebral concussion
- Cerebral infarction
- Acute encephalitis
- Alzheimer's disease
Subdural hematoma
Which chemical substance is usually secreted by pheochromocytomas?
- Catecholamine
- Aldosterone
- Cortisone
- Insulin
- Renin
Catecholamine
Rubella and toxoplasmosis are similar in that both:
- are potentially teratogenic
- primarily affect the elderly
- are prevented by vaccinations
- have non human animal reservoirs
- can not be treated with antibiotics
are potentially teratogenic
Which of the following prevent(s) synthesis of peptidoglycans?
- Lysozymes
- Penicillin
- Tetracyclines
- Erythromycin
- Teichoic acids
Penicillin
Which of the following is most likely to cause a sudden arrest of heart function?
- Mitral stenosis
- Angina pectoris
- Constrictive pericarditis
- Cardiac tamponade
Cardiac tamponade
If a bacteria were susceptible to both penicillin and erythromycin, then it would not be appropriate to treat the patients with both antibiotics at the same time because:
- penicillin is inactivated by erythromycin
- erythromycin exerts its effect extracellularly
- erythromycin enhances beta lacatamase activity
- erythromycin is primarily an antifungal agent
- penicillin is only effective against drowning cells
penicillin is only effective against drowning cells
Which of the following represents a DNA gyrase inhibitor with a broad spectrum of activity?
- Polymyxin
- Rifampicin
- Ethambutol
- Cycloserine
- Ciprofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
Which of the following best describes the similarity between Steptococcus pneumoniae and Cryptococcus neoformans?
- Commonly found in soil samples
- Readily prevented by a vaccine
- Readily treated by teteacycline
- Antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsules
Antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsules
The presence of which of the following in a patient's serum affords protection against hepatitis B?
- Anti HBcAg
- Anti HBaAg
- Anti HAV
- Anti HBaAg
Anti HBaAg
Which of the following do striated muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle have in common?
- Hyperplasia of these elements is common
- They have a limited capacity to generate
- Hypertrophy is a common response to injury
- They need a constant high O2 concentration to function
They have a limited capacity to regenerate
A deficiency in which of the following cells can predispose to candidiasis?
- Basophils
- Eosinophils
- Macrophages
- Plasma cells
- T lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
T lymphocytes are most directly involved in which of the following?
- Immediate hypersensitivity
- Immune complex injury
- Complement synthesis
- Contact dermatitis
- Antibody formation
Contact dermititis
Cerebral embolism occuring as a complication of myocardial infarction is most indicative of which of the following?
- Mural thrombosis
- Phlebothrombosis
- Decreased stroke volume
- Lack of collateral circulation
- Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Mural thrombosis
Natural killer cells capable of destroying malignant cells must be first activated with which of the following?
- IL 2
- Kinin
- Tryposin
- Complement
- Histamine
IL 2
The major carcinogenic property of Streptococcus mutans is associated with its ability to produce which of the following enzymes?
- Hyaluronidase
- Chondroitinase
- Aminopeptidase
- Glucosyltransferase
- Fructosyltransferase
Glucosyltransferase
The oral lesions of herpangina can often be distinguished from hand foot and mouth disease by which of the following?
- Their physical appearance
- Their intraoral locations
- Their density and number
- Their gradual confluence
Their intraoral locations
Interleukin 1 and tumor necrosis factor in inflammation are produced by which of the following?
- Platelets
- Mast cells
- Lymphocytes
- Plasma cells
- Activated macrophages
Activated macrophages
A viremia is characterized by which of the following?
- Infected cells are transformed
- Infected cells are no longer releasing virus
- The virus is most easily spread via gastrointestinal secretions
- The virus is most susceptible to circulating antibodies
The virus is most susceptible to circulating antibodies
Int he process of necrosis, a reduction in the size of the nucleus and a condensation of nuclear material is known as:
- pyknosis
- karyolysis
- karyorrhexis
- metachromatism
- hyperchromatism
pyknosis
In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies are directed against which of the following structures?
- Sarcomere
- Myofascia
- Myocyte nucleus
- Sarcolemmal membrane
- Acetylcholine receptor
Acetylcholine receptor
Each of the following represents a common opportunistic infection associated with HIV except one. Which one is this exception?
- Candidiasis
- Hairy leukoplakia
- Adenovirus conjunctivitis
- Cryptosporidium entercolitis
- Pneumocystic cannii pneumonia
Adenovirus conjunctivitis
Acute biliary obstruction produces a rise in:
- urobilinogen in urine
- urobilinogen in stool
- conjugated bilirubin in urine
- conjugated bilirubin in serum
- unconjugated bilirubin in serum
conjugated bilirubin in serum
Which of the following is the usual cause of chronic pyelonephritis?
- Systemic hypertension
- Type IV hypersensitivity
- Chronic glomerulonephritis
- Bacteremic seeding of the kidneys
- Infection resulting from urinary reflux
Infection resulting from urinary influx
If serial dilutions of human saliva are inoculated on blood agar plates, then incubated in air for 24 hours at 37ºC, which of the following groups of microorganisms will grow in the greatest number?
Streptococcus
High levels of Porphyromonas gingivalis-specific antibodies are seen in most of the serum samples from patients with adult periodontitis. These antibodies are which of the following?
- IgM
- IgG
- IgE
- IgA
- IgD
IgG
Excessive deposits of copper in liver cells, degenerative changes in the brain, and a greenish-brown ring at the outer margin of the cornea characterize which of the following?
- Galactosemia
- Phenylketonuria
- Wilson's disease
- Diabetes mellitus
- Tay Sachs disease
Wilson's disease
Most antibiotic resistance in bacteria is caused by which of the following?
- Genes that are carried on plasmids
- Depression of a previously existing gene pool
- An ever increasing mutation rate in bacteria
- Unequal distribution of antibiotics into body spaces
- Induction of specific mutations by specific antibiotics
Genes that are carried on plasmids
Which of the following is the first inflammatory cell to appear in large numbers at the site of injured tissue?
- Macrophage
- Plasma cell
- Neutrophil
- Lymphocyte
- Monocyte
Neutrophil
Which of the following is an antimicrobial agent that primarily inactivates cellular DNA?
- Phenols
- Chlorhexidine
- Ethylene oxide
- 70% isopropyl alcohol
- Alkaline glutaraldehyde
Ethylene oxide
Which of the following is most resistant to sterilizing conditions?
- Oral yeast
- Hepatitis B virus
- Bacterial endospore
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Human immunodeficiency virus
Bacterial endospore
Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are generally:
- motile
- sensitive to H2O2
- able to ferment lactate
- resistant to penicillin
- producers of O2 and H2O from H2O2
sensitive to H2O2
A 6-year-old boy has minute white specks on the oral mucosa adjacent to his first molars. A bluish-red ring surrounds these spots. He appears to have a cold and his eyes are red and runny. There is a blotchy reddish rash behind his ears and on his face. This child has which of the following?
- Eczema
- Measles
- Chickenpox
- Scarlet fever
Measles
In anemia resulting from drug-induced bone marrow suppression, the peripheral blood smear shows erythrocytes to be:
- hypochromic microcytic
- hypochromic normocytic
- normochromic normocytic
- normochromic microcytic
- hyperchromic macrocytic
normochromic normocytic
A hemorrhagic tendency is seldom seen in which of the following conditions?
- Scurvy
- Acute leukemia
- Renal insufficiency
- Hepatic insufficiency
- Secondary thrombocytopenia
Renal insufficiency
In which of the following is the largest amount of genetic information transferred from one cell to another?
- F duction
- Conjugation
- Transduction
- Transformation
- Recombination
Conjugation
In a dry-heat overn, which of the following temperatures is sufficienct for achieving sterilization in 1-2 hours?
- 81ºC
- 100ºC
- 121ºC
- 160ºC
160ºC
Which of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in bacteria?
- Nucleus
- Ribosome
- Cytoplasm
- Cell membrane
- Mitochondrion
Cell membrane
The spores of Bacillus anthracis are destroyed by:
- refrigerating (-7ºC for 48 hours)
- autoclaving (121ºC for 20 minutes)
- pasteurizing (61.7ºC for 30 minutes)
- immersing in boiling water (100ºC for 10 minutes)
- placing in a hot air oven (121ºC for 20 minutes)
autoclaving (121ºC for 20 minutes)
Congestion in the early stages of inflammation is caused by which of the following?
- Ischemia
- Venous dilation
- Active hyperemia
- Venous constriction
- Lymphatic constriction
Active hyperemia
The finding of yeast cells and chlamydospores in the oral mucosa suggests which of the following?
- Candida albicans
- Histoplasma capsulatum
- Blastomyces dermatitidis
- Cryptococcus neoformans
- Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Candida albicans
Which of the following kinds of mutations is caused by base analogues?
- Deletions
- Inversions
- Frameshifts
- Transitions
- Transversions
Transitions
Which of the following acids is the chief product of carbohydrate metabolism of Streptococcus mutans?
- Acetic
- Formic
- Lactic
- Butyric
- Propionic
Lactic
Which of the following organisms represents a significant secondary invader of carious lesions?
- Bacillus subtilis
- Lactobacillus casei
- Streptococcus mutans
- Staphylococcus auerus
Lactobacillus casei
Inflammatory vasodilation can be evoked by each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Renin
- Histamine
- C3 and C5
- Bradykinin
- Prostaglandins
Renin
The histamine that is released by mast cells is responsible for the principal symptoms of which of the following?
- Delayed hypersensitivity
- Tuberculin reaction
- Contact dermatitis
- Arthus reaction
- Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis
Which of the following noeplasms appears the most often in children?
- Neuroblastoma
- Chondrosarcoma
- Adenosarcoma
- Multiple myeloma
- Basal cell carcinoma
Neuroblastoma
When horse serum is injected intravenously into a rabbit and again into the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs at the site of the second injection?
- Atopy
- Anaphylaxis
- Serum sickness
- Arthus phenomenon
- Prausnitz Kustner reaction
Arthus phenomenon
Laboratory studies reveal megaloblasts in bone marrow, and a hyperchromic, macrocytic anemia in peripheral blood. Oral examination reveals atrophic gastritis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
- Iron deficiency
- Chronic external loss of blood
- Frequent episodes of hemolysis
- Inhibition of hematopoiesis by sulfonamides
- Inability of the stomach to form intrinsic factor
Inability of the stomach to form intrinsic factor
Gout results from a metabolic defect in which of the following?
- Fat
- Purine
- Pigment
- Glucose
- Calcium
Purine
Which of the following viral-associated enzymes is unique to RNA tumor viruses?
- Neuramidase
- Capping enzyme
- Reverse transcriptase
- DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Which of the following bowel diseases is characterized by noncaseating granulomatous inflammation in the gut wall?
- Diverticulitis
- Peptic ulcer
- Ulcerative colitis
- Celiac disease
- Crohn's disease
Crohn's disease
Each of the following cells is an antigen-specific cell except one. Which one is this exception?
- B cells
- Macrophages
- T helper cells
- Langerhans cells
- Dendritic cells
T helper cells
Streptococcus pyogenes, group A, is subdivided into specific antigenic types principally on the basis of immunologic differences in its:
- M protein
- streptolysin O
- streptolysin S
- C polysaccharide
- hyaluronic acid capsule
M protein
Which of the following bacterial exotoxins converts plasminogen to plasmin?
- M protein
- Coagulase
- Plasmalysin
- Hyaluronidase
- Streptokinase
Streptokinase
Which of the following is the least likely complication of nodular prostatic hyperplasia?
- Dysuria
- Hydronephrosis
- Pyelonephritis
- Development of carcinoma
- Urinary tract obstruction
Development of carcinoma
A positive tuberculin test always indicates which of the following?
- Active tuberculosis
- Chronic tuberculosis
- No exposure to tuberculosis
- Hypersensitivity to tuberculoproteins
Hypersensitivity to tuberculoproteins
An endocrine disorder affecting the skeleton and kidney, that promotes metastatic calcification, is:
- hyperadrenalism
- hyperthyroidism
- hyperpituitarism
- hyperparathyroidism
- hyperfunction of the thymus
hyperparathyroidism
Which of the following tumors is of connective tissue origin?
- Myxoma
- Adenoma
- Melanoma
- Carcinoma
- Papilloma
Myxoma
A 53-year-old patient has an indurated, chronic ulcer neat the inner canthus. The most likely diagnosis is:
- verruca vulgaris
- malignant melanoma
- basal cell carcinoma
- squamous cell carcinoma
- adenocarcinoma of the lacrimal duct
basal cell carcinoma
Eosinophils are characteristically seen in which of the following conditions?
- Bacterial infections
- Viral infections
- Fungal infections
- Parasitic infections
Parasitic infections
Bone pain, osteolytic lesions, plasma cell infiltration of marrow and synthesis of abnormal immunoglobulins describe:
- systemic lupus erythematosus
- selective IgA deficiency
- polyclonal gammopathy
- Paget's disease of bone
- multiple myeloma
multiple myeloma
Which of the following characterizes edema associated with the nephrotic syndrome?
- Polyuria
- Hematuria
- Hyperlipidemia
- Hypoalbuminemia
- Hypoprothrobinemia
Hypoalbuminemia
Blood in the sputum is characteristic of each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Emphysema
- Tuberculosis
- Lobar pneumonia
- Pulmonary embolism
- Bronchogenic carcinoma
Emphysema
The majority of cases of pharyngitis are caused by:
- alpha hemolytic streptococci
- Staphylococcus aureus
- a variety of viruses
- herpes simplex virus
- hemophilus influenzae
a variety of viruses
Hypersensitivity to M. Tuberculosis is manifested by which of the following?
- Necrosis
- Exudation
- Epithelioid cells
- Langerhans giant cells
- Spreading of the initial focus
Necrosis
Administration of tetanus toxoid provides what type of immunity?
- Innate
- Natural active
- Natural passive
- Artificial active
- Artificial passive
Artificial active
Which of the following represents the most potent carcinogen?
- Estrogen
- Benzpyrene
- Folic acid
- Cholic acid
Benzpyrene
The most important characteristic of malignant neoplasms, which distinguishes them from benign neoplasms, is their:
- nonencapsulation
- rapid growth rate
- ability to metastasize
- lack of differentiation
- excessive mitotic activity
ability to metastasize
Which of the following conditions increase the risk of developing osteosarcoma?
- Osteomalacia
- Osteoporosis
- Osteoblastoma
- Osteitis deformans
- Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteitis deformans
Which of the following components of Staphylococcus is antiphagocytic, elicits hypersensitivity, and causes platelet injury?
- Protein A
- Coagulase
- Beta toxin
- Teichoic acid
- Polysaccharide capsule
Protein A
Each of the following is a histologic feature of malignant growth except one. Which one is this exception?
- Aplasia
- Anaplasia
- Pleomorphism
- Hyperchromatism
- Abnormal mitosis
Aplasia
Immunologic resistance to most intracellular pathogens is manifested as which of the following?
- Lymphoid atrophy
- Humoral immunity
- Cellular immunity
- Wheal and flare reactions
- Non specific serum protection
Cellularity
The primary sources of pathogenic microorganisms in the dental operatory are:
- light handles
- dust particles
- patients' charts
- the mouths of patients
- the hands of clinicians
the mouths of patients
A disease of childhood characterized by mental retardation, delayed growth, and delayed tooth eruption is associated with a deficiency of:
- oxytocin
- growth hormone
- thyroid hormone
- testicular hormone
- mineralocorticoids
thyroid hormone
During delayed hypersensitivity reactions, sensitized small lymphocytes produce:
- antibodies
- histamine
- lymphokines
- leukotrienes
- none of these
lymphokines
The class of antibodies first detected in serum after primary immunization is usually:
- IgA
- IgD
- IgE
- IgG
- IgM
IgM
The rickettsial disease that may have oral manifestations is:
- rickettsialpox
- Brill's disease
- epidemic typhus
- none of these
rickettsialpox
The ability of certain oral microorganisms to function as etiologic agents of dental caries appears to be correlated with the capacity of these organisms to produce:
- proteolytic enzymes capable of hydrolyzing salivary proteins
- capsules that inhibit the activity of phagocytic cells present in saliva
- carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme active in decreasing the CO2 content of saliva
- an extracellular polysaccharide dextranlike substance involved in the formation of dental plaque
an extracellular polysaccharide dextranlike substance involved in the formation of dental plaque
Which of the following is formed in large quantities during the degradation of glucose by homofermentative Streptococcus mutans?
- Mannitol
- Lactic acid
- Acetic acid
- Butyric acid
- Propionic acid
Lactic acid
Adenocarcinomas of the large intestine are most common in which segment?
- Ascending colon
- Transverse colon
- Descending colon
- Rectosigmoid colon
Rectosigmoid colon
Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to be cultured from chronic, bilateral ulcerations at the corners of the mouth?
- Candida
- Brucella
- Treponema
- Aspergillus
- Histoplasma
- Trichophyton
Candida
The most likely source of bacteria found in diseased periodontal tissue is:
- serum
- saliva
- subgingival plaque
- supragingival plaque
subgingival plaque
Keloids are composed predominantly of:
- adipose tissue
- collagen fibers
- granulation tissue
- caseous necrotic debris
collagen fibers
Collagen degradation observed in chronic periodontal disease may result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of:
- Bacteroides species
- Leptothrix buccalis
- Entamoeba gingivalis
- Streptococcus faecalis
- Veillonella alcalescens
Bacteroides species
The alteration of Corynebacterium diphtheriae to a virulent strain by the transfer of DNA temperate bacteriophage is:
- mutation
- sexduction
- conjugation
- recombination
- lysogenic conversion
lysogenic conversion
The best evidence for a causal relationship between a nasal carrier of staphylococci and a staphylococcal infection in a hospital patient is the demonstration that the organisms from both individuals:
- are coagulase positive
- are penicillin resistant
- are of the same phage type
- are aureus type staphylococcis
- produce hemolysis, liquefy gelatin, and ferment mannitol
are of the same phage type
In which of the following is delayed type hypersensitivity demonstrated?
- Anaphylaxis
- Wheal and flare
- Passive transfer of antibody
- Positive tuberculin skin test
Positive tuberculin skin test
Sterilization of surgical instruments that are sensitive to heat can be accomplished by using:
- phenol
- an autoclave
- ethyl alcohol
- ethylene oxide
ethylene oxide
An embolus originating as a thrombus in the femoral vein usually occludes a blood vessel in the:
- lung
- brain
- liver
- kidney
lung
In skin graft rejection, the major host response is:
- an Arthus reaction
- a Shwartzman reaction
- a cell mediated reaction
- passive cutaneous anaphylaxis
a cell mediated reaction
Lecithinases are produced by:
- Bacillus anthracis
- Clostridium perfringens
- Salmonella schottmulleri
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Clostridium perfringens
Which of the following diseases is caused by an agent that produces neither exotoxins nor endotoxins?
- Cholera
- Gonorrhea
- Brucellosis
- Gas gangrene
- Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis
The oral vesicular lesions of herpangina and hand-foot-and-mouth disease are caused by:
- coxsackievirus
- Epstein Barr virus
- herpes simplex virus
- varicella zoster virus
- respiratory synctial virus
coxsackievirus
Disseminated miliary tuberculosis results from spread of the tubercle bacillus by way of:
- the lymphatics
- the bloodstream
- the air passages
- direct extension
- none of these
the bloodstream
Progressive massive fibrosis of the lung is characteristic of:
- silicosis
- anthracosis
- actinomycosis
- hemosiderosis
- bronchiectasis
silicosis
Bacteremias in patients with heart valve abnormalities may result in:
- scarlet fever
- rheumatic fever
- Ludwig's angina
- infective endocarditis
- streptococcal pharyngitis
infective endocarditis
Shock during infection with gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused by:
- an exotoxin
- an endotoxin
- ribonuclease
- a capsular antigen
- a flagellar antigen
an endotoxin
The most common type of epithelial metaplasia involves:
- regeneration of epithelium in an area of cutaneous ulceration
- replacement of squamous cells by cuboidal cells
- replacement of columnar cells by stratified squamous epithelium
replacment of columnar cells by stratified squamous epithelium
Which of the following is typically elevated in the serum of patients with prostate cancer?
- Acid phosphatase
- Alpha fetoprotein
- Alkaline phosphatase
- Carcinoembryonic antigen
Acid phosphatase
Which of the following are most characteristic of cervicofacial actinomycosis?
- Multiple ulcers
- Enlarged cervical lymph nodes
- Multiple cutaneous abscesses with sinuses
- Indurated nodules in the skin of the neck
Multiple cutaneous abscesses with sinuses
Which of the following viruses is strongly associated with Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
- Adenovirus
- Cytomegalovirus
- Epstein Barr virus
- Herpes simplex virus type I
- Herpes simplex virus type II
Epstein Barr virus
If a susceptible person were given tetanus antitoxin, what kind of immunity would result?
- Innate
- Natural active
- Natural passive
- Artificial active
- Artificial passive
Artificial passive
Aspiration of materia from carious teeth may cause:
- lung abscess
- tuberculosis
- lobar pneumonia
- bronchopneumonia
- interstitial pneumonia
lung abscess
Sterilization refers to which of the following?
- Absence of all living forms
- Inhibition of bacterial growth
- Removal of pathogenic bacteria only
- Removal of pathogenic bacteria, viruses, and fungi
Absence of all living forms
For the majority of individuals, the initial infection with herpes simplex virus results in:
- genital herpes
- a subclinical disease
- herpes labialis in puberty
- a dermal rash in childhood
- encephalitis as a young adult
a subclinical disease
Which of the following disease exhibits a normal prothrombin time with a prolonged partial thromboplastin time?
- Leukemia
- Afibrinoginemia
- Chronic liver disease
- Athrombocytopenic purpura
- Factor VIII deficiency (hemophilia)
Factor VIII deficiency (hemophilia)
Cytopathogenic effect in tissue culture cells is used specifically for identification of certain:
- fungi
- viruses
- anaerobes
- spirochetes
- spore formers
viruses
The complement system may be activated:
- at C1 and C3
- only by way of C1
- by interferon during viral infection
- by activation of any of the nine components
- only when body temperature exceeds 101.6ñF
at C1 and C3
Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to which of the following nerves?
- Optic
- Facial
- Auditory
- Trigeminal
Auditory
Which of the following is a demyelinating disease of the central nervous system?
- Multiple sclerosis
- Alzheimer's disease
- Parkinson's disease
- Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
Multiple sclerosis
Bacterial capsules usually consist of:
- chitins
- celluloses
- polypeptides
- polysaccharides
polysaccharides
The observations that typify hemolytic anemias are elevated:
- conjugated bilirubin, kernicterus, and choluria
- conjugate bilirubin, kernicterus, and elevated urine urobilinogen
- unconjugated bilirubin, kernicterus, and elevated urine urobilinogen
- unconjugated bilirubin, decreased blood hemoglobin, and absent urine urobilinogen
unconjugated bilirubin, kernicterus, and elevated urine urobilinogen
The process of gene transfer between bacterial cells that involve the uptake of naked DNA molecules is:
- conversion
- transversion
- transduction
- transfection
- transformation
transformation
The type of infection most commonly transmitted by transfusion of properly screen blood is:
- cytomegalovirus
- type A hepatitis
- type B hepatitis
- non A non B hepatitis
non A non B hepatitis
Which type of chromosome is usually missing from the cells of persons with Turner's syndrome?
- An autosome
- Chromosome 21
- A sex chromosome
- A "ring" chromosome
- A Group A chromosome
A sex chromosome
Increased functional demand on the heart produces increased size of the myocardium by:
- hyperplasia
- hypertrophy
- calcification
- fatty infiltration
- increased amounts of fibrous connective tissue
hypertrophy
Esophageal varices are a common complication of:
- portal hypertension
- primary hypertension
- mesenteric thrombosis
- carcinoma of the esophagus
portal hypertension
On the basis of histogenesis and transitions observed in clinical cases, there appears to be a relationship between lymphocytic lymphoma and:
- lymphadenitis
- lymphoepithelioma
- lymphocytic leukemia
- lymphocytic leukocytosis
lymphadenitis
The bacterial population in the gingival sulcus or the pocket that influences the course of periodontal disease involves:
- mostly aerobic bacteria
- essentially a pure culture
- bacteria not indigenous to the oral cavity
- essentially the same organisms found in the healthy sulcus
essentially the same organisms found in the healthy sulcus
Classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal Factor VIII which in turn is due to a genetic deficiency that is:
- parially dominant
- autosomal dominant
- autosomal recessive
- sex linked dominant
- sex linked recessive
sex linked recessive
A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant neoplasm derived from:
- the nerve tissue
- the blood vessels
- smooth muscle tissue
- striated muscle tissue
- fat and fibrous tissue
striated muscle tissue
Which of the following drugs is likely to aid in treating or preventing influenza in high risk subjects during epidemics?
- Acyclovir
- Amantadine
- Griseofulvin
- Stilbamidine
- Amphotericin B
Amantadine
A reduction in acid secretion by the stomach, an increased tendency toward gastric carcinoma, atrophic glossitis, and myelin degeneration in the spinal cord are characteristic of:
- thalassemia
- agranulocytosis
- sickle cell anemia
- pernicious anemia
- polycythemia vera
pernicious anemia
Histamine release from mast cell requires:
- antibodies (IgE) attached to mast cells and reacting with antigen
- antigen attached to mast cells and reacting with antibody
- antibodies (IgE) attached to mast cells, but no reaction with antigen
- antigen attached to mast cells, but no reaction with antibody
antibodies (IgE) attached to mast cells, but no reaction with antigen
Squamous epithelium exhibiting acanthosis, disorganization of pattern and atypical cells without invasion is diagnostic of:
- dysplasia
- neoplasia
- metaplasia
- hypoplasia
- prosoplasia
dysplasia
Antiseptics differ from disinfetants in that antiseptics:
- sterilize
- kill pathogens
- are bactericidal only
- are bacteriostatic only
- are applied to living tissues
are applied to living tissues
As opposed to lobar pneumonia, bronchopneumonia is characterized grossly and microscopically by:
- inflammation of a bronchus
- organization of alveolar exudate
- a patchy, inflammatory distribution
- a diffuse, inflammatory distribution
a patchy, inflammatory distribution
In children, the bones become bowed in rickets because of failure of:
- osteoblasts to develop
- osteoid tissue to calcify
- osteoid tissue to form
- cartilage matrix to form
osteoid tissue to calcify
Which of the following is the best description of the characteristic lesion of chronic granulomatous inflammation?
- A localized collection of liquefied cellular debris and dead or dying neutrophils
- A diffuse collection of liquefied cellular debris and dead or dying neutrophils
- A localized area of inflamed connective tissue exposed to the environment as a result of denuding of the overlying epithelium
- A circumscribed collection of lymphocytes, macrophages, and epithelioid cells with a background of fibroblasts, capillaries, and delicate collagen fibers
A circumscribed collection of lymphocytes, macrophages, and epithelioid cells, with a background of fibroblasts, capillaries, and delicate collagen fibers
Which of the following is the single most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity?
- Enterococci
- Anaerobic streptococci
- Facultative streptococci
- Beta hemolytic streptococci
Facultative streptococci
In which of the following mycotic infections are the organisms characteristically found within reticuloendothelial cells?
- Candidiasis
- Aspergillosis
- Blastomycosis
- Histoplasmosis
Histoplasmosis
Which of the following genera most frequently develops resistance to penicillin?
- Neisseria
- Treponema
- Actinomyces
- Streptococcus
- Staphylococcus
Staphylococcus
The earliest changes in rheumatoidarthritis occur in the:
- synovia
- epiphysis
- attached ligaments
- articular cartilage
synovia
The disease characterized by radiolucent bone lesions, anemia, hypergammaglobulinemia, and one or more bone marrow tumors containing predominantly plasma cells is:
- leukemia
- thalassemia
- multiple myeloma
- Hodgkin's disease
- pernicious anemia
- sickle cell disease
multiple myeloma
Multinucleated giant cells of the foreign-body type originate from:
- nuclear division of granulocytes
- atypical regeneration of epithelium
- bone marrow with migration into the area
- multiplication of nuclei in surrounding fibrocytes
- fusion or nuclear division of mononuclear cells
fusion or nuclear division of mononuclear cells
Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?
- Decreased albumin
- Decreased serum amylase
- Elevated serum lipase
- Elevated serum amylase
- Elevated alkaline phosphatase
Elevated serum lipase
Infection of the kidney is usually caused by:
- septic emboli
- bacteria in the bloodstream
- traumatic introduction of bacteria
- bacteria ascending from the lower urinary tract
- bacteria from the large boewl migrating to the kidney through retropeitoneal lymphatics
bacteria ascending from the lower urinary tract
Which of the following forms of oral ulcerations involves oral, ocular, and genital lesions?
- Behcet's
- Herpetiform
- Recurrent aphthous
- None of these
Behcet's
Which of the following cardiac disorders is subject to infective endocarditis secondary to a bacteremia from oral microorganisms?
(a) Tetralogy of Fallot
(b) Congenital aortic stenosis
(c) Patent ductus arteriosus
(d) Ventricular septal defect
- a, b, c
- a, b, d
- a, c, d
- b, c, d
- a, b, c, d
a, b, c, d
Which of the following oral bacteria are aciduric?
(a) Lactobacillus casei
(b) Actinomyces viscosus
(c) Streptococcus mutans
(d) Streptococcus salivarius
- a and b
- a and c
- a and d
- b and c
- b and d
- c and d
a and c
Which of the following malignant bone tumors are likely to be encountered in children or young adults?
(a) Myeloma
(b) Liposarcoma
(c) Ewing's sarcoma
(d) Osteogenic sarcoma
(e) Metastatic carcinoma
- a, c
- a, c, e
- b, c, d
- c, d
- c, d, e
- d, e
c, d
Seeding of transplantation metastasis is likely in carcinomas of the:
(a) skin
(b) ovary
(c) tongue
(d) stomach
(e) large bowel
- a, b, d
- a, c, e
- a, d, e
- b, c, d
- b, d, e
b, d, e
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine does not play a major role is:
- asthma
- urticaria
- anaphylaxis
- Arthus reaction
Arthus reaction
Which of the following enteric microorganisms is not typically found in normal human intestinal flora?
- Escherichia coli
- Salmonella typhi
- Proteus vulgaris
- Bacteroides fragilis
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Salmonella typhi
A persistent infection may be caused by any of the following viruses except:
- rhinovirus
- papilloma virus
- cytomegalovirus
- herpes simplex virus
- varicella zoster virus
rhinovirus
Each of the following diseases has painless hematuria as a common early clinical sign except:
- acute diffuse glomerulonephritis
- carcinoma of the bladder
- focal glomerulonephritis
- renal cell carcinoma
- nephrolithiasis
nephrolithiasis
Each of the following is useful in identifying viruses except the:
- nature of the viral nucleic acid
- morphology of the viral protein capsid
- ability of the virus to grow on complex media
- neutralization of the virus with specific antisera
- ability of the virus to be inactivated by certain solvents, such as ether or chloroform
ability of the virus to grow on complex media
Common airborne fungi that cause opportunistic infections in debilitated individuals include all of the following except:
- Candida
- Rhizopus
- Aspergillus
- Cryptococcus
Candida
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can directly infect all of the following cells except:
- neurons
- macrophages
- CD4 (helper) lymphocytes
- CD8 (suppressor) lymphocytes
CD8 (suppressor) lymphocytes
Which of the following is not a component of the body's non-specific defense mechanism?
- Lysozyme
- Properdin
- Interferon
- Complement
- Fibrinolysin
Fibrinolysin
Which of the following has the least capacity for regeneration?
- Bone
- Cardiac muscle
- Liver parenchyma
- Squamous epithelium
- Fibrous connective tissue
Cardiac muscle
Which of the following is not characteristic of plasmids?
- Confer conjugal fertility
- Carry genetic information
- Exist as circular RNA molecules
- Exist as extrachromosomal elements in bacteria
Exist as circular RNA molecules
Supparation is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors. Which of the following is not one of these factors?
- Necrosis
- Presence of lymphocytes
- Collection of neutrophils
- Accumulation of tissue fluid
- Autolysis by proteolytic enzymes
Presence of lymphocytes
Which of the following is not characteristic of carcinoma in situ?
- Pleomorphism
- Disorderly maturation
- Hyperchromatic nucleus
- Disruption of the basement membrane
Disruption of the basement membrane
Jaundice is characteristic of all of the following conditions except:
- aplastic anemia
- liver cell damage
- excessive hemolysis
- bile duct obstruction
- carcinoma of the head of the pancreas
aplastic anemia
Which of the following factors has the greatest impact on prognosis of a skin melanoma?
- Site of origin
- Depth of invasion
- Degree of pigmentation
- Existence of ulceration
- Size of surface area involved
Depth of invasion
The most common cause of a massive hematemesis in alcoholics is:
- peptic ulcer
- acute gastritis
- esophageal varices
- Mallory Weiss syndrome
- acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
esophageal varices
The chemotactic accumulation of inflammatory cells that occurs at the sites where immune complexes are deposited is most probably the result of:
- C5a
- IgA
- IgD
- IgE
- sensitized lymphocytes
C5a
Removal of the capsule from an encapsulated bacterium is likely to result in:
- loss if viability
- decreased generation time
- failure of the cell to gram stain
- increased susceptibility to mutation
- increased susceptibility to phagocytosis
increased susceptibility to phagocytosis
The major factor in the production of inflammatory edema is:
- venous obstruction
- arterial dilatation
- generalized kidney damage
- increased capillary permeability
increased capillary permeability
Left-sided heart failure or shock may be associated with:
- pneumoconiosis
- bronchoiectasis
- pulmonary edema
- pulmonary emboli
pulmonary edema
Which of the following disease is characterized by painful vesicles that occur on the skin or a mucosal surface along the distribution of a sensory nerve?
- Smallpox
- Psoriasis
- Cat scratch disease
- Recurrent varicella
- Infectious mononucleosis
Recurrent varicella
Lysozyme can attack bacteria cells by:
- degrading their flagella
- inactivating their ribosomes
- preventing the transpeptidation reaction
- breaking the bond between N acetyl glucosamine and N acetyl muramic acid
breaking the bond between N acetyl glucosamine and N acetyl muramic acid
Although the exact mechanism of formation of calculus is not understood, it is known that the organic matrix of calculus in humans includes:
- no living microorganisms
- a fusospirochetal complex
- an abundance of microorganisms
- only by products of bacterial metabolism
an abundance of microorganisms
Generally, resistance of a bacterium to killing by heat in influences by time and by temperature employed in growth of the culture. Another factor is the ability of the organism to:
- form spores
- withstand acid pH
- produce protoplasts
- undergo transformation
- grow at elevated temperatures
form spores
The renal lesion most commonly associated with benign hypertension is:
- renal atresia
- acute pyelonephritis
- chronic pyelonephritis
- arteriolonephrosclerosis
arteriolonephrosclerosis
The most likely diagnosis for a patient with dysphonia, dysphagia, weight loss and a history of heavy cigarette smoking is:
- laryngitis
- tonsilitis
- laryngeal polyps
- carcinoma of the lungs
- carcinoma of the larynx
carcinoma of the larynx
Two important factors for initation of caries by oral streptococci are:
- production of protease and production of acid
- production of dextranase and production of soluble dextran
- production of collagenase and production of hyaluronidase
- fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol and production of protease
- synthesis of insoluble dextran and production of glucosyltransferase
synthesis of insoluble dextran and production of glucosyltransferase
In order for a virus to infect a host cell, it mist first absorb to the cell surface. This involves:
- phagocytic activity by the cell
- energy output on the part of the cell
- insertion of virally specified glycoproteins into the host cell membrane
- a specific interaction between a viral surface receptor and a specific receptor on the cell membrane
- all of the above
a specific interaction between a viral surface component and a specific receptor on the cell membrane
Laboratory results of a patient's serum show presence of HBs and anti-HBs. Which of the following can be concluded?
- The patient is a carrier
- The patient has acute disease
- The patient is in the convalescent stage
- The patient has recovered completely
- None of the above
The patient is a carrier
An increased serum acid phosphatase level is clinically significant and aids in the diagnosis of which of the following conditions?
- Paget's disease of bone
- Primary hyperparathyroidism
- Secondary hyperparathyroidism
- Breast carcinoma with bone metastasis
- Prostatic carcinoma with bone metastasis
Prostatic carcinoma with bone metastasis
A benign neoplasm of the myometrium of the uterus is a:
- myeloma
- fibroma
- leiomyoma
- myoblastoma
- rhabdomyoma
leiomyoma
A patient with dentinogenesis imperfecta has a history of multiple fractures. Examination reveals blue sclera. The most probably diagnosis is:
- achondroplasia
- Marfan's syndrome
- osteogenesis imperfecta
- Albers Schonberg disease
osteogenesis imperfecta
The primary function of SIgA is to:
- promote phagocytosis by monocytes
- prevent ingress of antigen through mucosa
- activate complement in secretory fluids
- activate K/NK cells in the gingival crevice
prevent ingress of antigen through mucosa
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to penicillin is caused by:
- pleomorphism
- an enzyme that attacks penicillin
- production of a penicillin analogue
- a lack of mycolic acid in the cell wall
- the presence of a tough lipopolysaccharide capsule
an enzyme that attacks penicillin
Which of the following serum values is likely to be elevated in a patient with hyperparathyroidism?
- Calcium
- Chloride
- Potassium
- Phosphorus
- Acid phosphatase
Calcium
The principle antibacterial action of the tetracyclines is inhibition of:
- DNA synthesis
- protein synthesis
- histone formation
- cell wall synthesis
- cell membrane function
protein synthesis
The most acceptable conditions for complete sterilization by autoclaving are:
- 5 minutes at 275ºF (135ºC) and 15 lbs. of pressure
- 15 minutes at 275ºF (135ºC) and 10 lbs. of pressure
- 20 minutes at 250ºF (121ºC) and 10 lbs. of pressure
- 20 minutes at 250ºF (121ºC) and 15 lbs. of pressure
20 minutes at 250ºF (121ºC) and 15 lbs. of pressure
The class of anitbodies first detected in serum after primary immunization is usually:
- IgA
- IgD
- IgE
- IgG
- IgM
IgM
The principle chemical mediator located in the granules of mast cells is:
- plasmin
- histamine
- complement
- bradykinin
- norepinephrine
histamine
Production of bone in scar tissue occurs by:
- dysplasia
- anaplasia
- neoplasia
- metaplasia
- fibroplasia
metaplasia
Which of the following disease is characterized by an extremely high level of alkaline phosphatase, normal levels of calcium and phosphorus, enlargement of the skull, and an increased incidence of osteogenic sarcoma?
- Osteoporosis
- Multiple myeloma
- Fibrous dysplasia
- Osteogenesis imperfecta
- Paget's disease of bone
Paget's disease of bone
A very high percentage of cases of hepatitis A are found in:
- young people
- recent recipients of gamma globulin
- recent recipients of whole blood transfusions
- persons with histories of recurrent respiratory infections
young people
The etiologic basis of Hashimoto's thyroiditis is:
- autoimmune
- bacterial infection
- hereditary enzyme deficiency
- premalignant diffuse hyperplasia
- secondary to hyperpituitarism
autoimmune
Long-standing gradual ischemia of an organ or a tissue most likely results in:
- atrophy
- dysplasia
- metaplasia
- hypertrophy
- hyperplasia
atrophy
A disease caused by the interaction of antigen and IgE on the surface of mast cells with release of histamine is:
- serum sickness
- bronchial asthma
- pulmonary emphysema
- lupus erythematosus
- rheumatoid arthritis
bronchial asthma
Which of the following identifies the cell that produces interleukin-1 and the cell affected by interleukin-1, respectively?
- T cell, B cell
- Macrophage, T cell
- Macrophage, monocyte
- Dendritic cell, B lymphocyte
Macrophage, T cell
Patients with Bruton's agammaglobulinemia principally suffer from infections caused by:
- fungi
- viruses
- parasites
- pyogenic bacteria
- tubercle bacilli
pyogenic bacteria
Which of the following is diagnosed by karyotyping?
- Phenylketonuria
- Neurofibromatosis
- Tay Sachs disease
- Turner's syndrome
- Sickle cell anemia
Turner's syndrome
Neoplasms of which of the following organs have been shown to be hormonally dependent?
- Liver
- Parotid
- Prostate
- Pancreas
Prostate
Chronic passive congestion of the lung is characterized by:
- hyaline membranes
- chronic bronchitis
- giant cell arteritis
- interstitial infiltration of PMNs
- edema of alveolar walls and "heart failure" cells
chronic bronchitis
Use of vaccines for preventing clinical symptoms after introduction of the virus is most likely to be effective against:
- rabies
- influenza
- poliomyelitis
- herpes zoster
rabies
Which of the following is characterized by a collapse of alveoli?
- Empyema
- Pneumonia
- Emphysema
- Atelectasis
- Bronchiectasis
Atelectasis
A virus causing recurrent herpetic lesions is never completely eliminated but assumes a state of:
- latency
- symbiosis
- mutualism
- commensalism
- none of the above
latency
Patients receiving chemotherapy for leukemia are particularly prone to develop oral:
- candidiasis
- actinomycosis
- blastomycosis
- histoplasmosis
- coccidiodomycosis
candidiasis
The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced by:
- an increase in salivary hyaluronidase
- an increased number of bacteria in saliva
- an increase in bacterial antibodies in saliva
- appearance of new phagocytic strains in the affected area
- a reduction in inflammation by removal of bacteria
a reduction in inflammation by removal of bacteria
The effectiveness of autoclaving is best determined by:
- culturing bacterial spores
- culturing the water reservoir
- themocouples (temperature recording devices)
- indicators that change color at elevated temperatures
culturing bacterial spores
An oral lesion that may appear as an ulcer, a nodule or a vegetative process and is often mistaken for squamous cell carcinoma is a manifestation of:
- candidiasis
- trichinosis
- sporotrichosis
- histoplasmosis
histoplasmosis
The nuclear material of a bacterial cell is typically characterized as a:
- single, double-stranded DNA molecule enclosed within a nuclear membrane
- single, double-stranded DNA molecule not confined within a nuclear membrane
- rigid, DNA protein complex enclosed within a nuclear membrane
- rigid, DNA lipopolysaccharide complex not confined within a nuclear membrane
single, double-stranded DNA molecule not confined within a nuclear membrane
Which of the following is the most common initial sign or symptom in patients with malignant lymphoma?
- Pallor
- Weight loss
- Lymphadenopathy
- Chronic infection
- Unexplained fever
Lymphadenopathy
Most rickettsial disease produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae:
- produce potent exotoxins
- are destructive for endothelial cells
- are particularly destructive to cutaneous tissues
- are primarily neurotropic and cause extensive damage in certain CNS centers
are destructive for endothelial cells
Which of the following bacteria has the highest lipid content in the cell wall?
- Escherichia coli
- Lactobacilus casei
- Leptotrichia buccalis
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A complication of peptic ulcer disease that accounts for the majority of deaths is:
- bleeding
- perforation
- surgical complication
- malignant transformation
- obstruction form edema or scarring
perforation
Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valve abnormaility who is allergic to penicillin is:
- ampicillin
- linomycin
- tetracycline
- streptomycin
- erythromycin
erythromycin
Which of the following organs is the most uncommon site for infarcts?
- Brain
- Heart
- Liver
- Kidney
- Adrenals
Liver
Cervicofacial actinomycosis is usually due to:
- poor aseptic technique during oral surgery
- contamination of a trauma or surgical site with spores
- contamination of a trauma or surgical site with endogenous organisms
- spread of the organisms from a dermal or thoracic infection
contamination of a trauma or surgical site with endogenous organisms
Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?
- Decreased albumin
- Elevated serum lipase
- Decreased serum amylase
- Elevated alkaline phosphatase
Elevated serum lipase
Classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal Factor VIII which in turn is due to a genetic deficiency that is:
- partially dominant
- autosomal dominant
- autosomal recessive
- sex linked dominant
- sex linked recessive
sex linked recessive
Ten days after hospitalization for a large, incapacitating myocardial infarct, a 50-year-old man suddenly develops paralysis of the right side of his body. The best explanation for his brain damage is:
- rupture of a congenital aneurysm of the circle of Willis
- brain abscess from necrosis of the myocardium
- detachment of a bacterial embolus from the pulmonic valve
- detachment of a mural thrombus from the right ventricle
- detachment of a mural thrombus from the left ventricle
detachment of a mural thrombus from the left ventricle
Features of the herpes simplex virus type 1 virion surface include:
- no envelope
- an envelope synthesized de novo
- an envelope acquired by budding through the cytoplasmic membrane
- an envelope acquired by budding through the nuclear membrane
- none of the above
an envelope acquired by budding through the nuclear membrane
Hemorrhagic infarction and necrosis are characteristic of which of the following fungal diseases?
- Candidiasis
- Actinomycosis
- Cryptococcosis
- Histoplasmosis
- Coccidioidomycosis
- Mucormycosis (Phycomycosis)
Mucormycosis (Phycomycosis)
The chemical nature of bacterial endotoxins is a:
- lipid
- protein
- complex carbohydrate
- lipopolysaccharide complex
- low molecular weight polypeptide
lipopolysaccharide complex
Detergents kill bacteria by interfering with the function of the cell:
- wall
- capsule
- membrane
- ribosome
- chromosome
membrane
Phage conversion is responsible for:
- transduction of bacteria
- antigenic phase variation
- production of B galactosidase
- ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen
- production of erythrogenic toxin by Streptococcus pyogenes
production of erythrogenic toxin by Streptococcus pyogenes
An Rh negative mother delivered a normal first child. Her second child developed symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis. Which of the following can be concluded?
- The father is Rh negative
- The first baby is Rh negative
- The first baby is a girl, the second is a boy
- The mother has very high levels of serum component and anti Rh IgE
- None of the above
None of the above
A summer illness that produces vesicular lesions of the uvula, anterior pillars and the posterior pharynx is:
- influenza
- herpesvirus
- ECHO virus
- coxsackievirus
coxsackievirus
Bacterial endotoxin exerts its pathologic effect, in part, by:
- stimulating production of IgA
- activating the complement cascase
- inactivating nonspecific lymphokines
- releasing transfer factor from B lymphocytes
- releasing vasoactive lipopolysaccharides from mast cells
activating the complement cascade
The host response to a malignancy is best reflected by:
- marked cellularity of the tumor
- many mitotic figures in the tumor
- lymphocytic infiltration at the edge of the neoplasm
- a large number of blood vessels in the neoplastic mass
- large areas of necrosis in the center of the neoplastic mass
lymphocytic infiltration at the edge of the neoplasm
Which of the following is most commonly associated with development of gastrointestinal cancer?
- Amebiasis
- Villous adenoma
- Meckel's diverticulum
- Duodenal peptic ulcer
- Peutz Jeghers syndrome
Villous adenoma
Which of the following is the most common skin cancer in man?
- Malignant melanoma
- Basal cell carcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Sebaceous adenocarcinoma
- Transitional cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Multiple drug resistance is related most closely to:
- viruses
- plasmids
- transformation
- cell chromosomes
plasmids
Which of the following organisms is most frequently isolated from the oral cavity?
- Streptococcus sanguis
- Streptococcus pyogenes
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Neisseria meningitidis
- Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus sanguis
Which of the following characteristics of enterobacteria is most important in hospital infections?
- High degree of invasiveness
- Ability to become resistant to antibiotics
- Production of enzymes destructive to tissue
- Ability to survive drying due to spore formation
Ability to become resistant to antibiotics
The most common clinical consequence of benign prostatic hyperplasia is:
- pain
- jaundice
- urinary tract obstruction
- red blood cell casts in urine
- progression to prostatic carcinoma
urinary tract obstruction
In organisms sensitive to penicillin, this antibiotic shows the greatest bactericidal activity against:
- growing gram negative bacteria
- growing gram positive bacteria
- nongrowing gram negative bacteria
- nongrowing gram positive bacteria
- sporulating gram negative bacteria
growing gram positive bacteria
Myasthenia gravis is caused by dysfunction of the:
- motor nerves
- smooth muscle
- sensory nerves
- skeletal muscle
- myoneural junction
myoneural junction
Which antibody type is resistant to hydrolysis by microbial proteolytic enzymes?
- IgA
- SIgA
- IgE
- IgG
SIgA
Which of the following are rarely, if ever, acquired from another individual?
(a) Blastomycosis
(b) Sporotrichosis
(c) Histoplasmosis
(d) Neonatal candidiasis
- a, b
- a, b, c
- a, b, d
- a, c
- b, c
- b, d
- All of the above
a, b, c
Granulation tissue typically contains:
(a) fibroblasts
(b) nerve fibers
(c) endothelial cells
(d) epithelioid cells
(e) giant cells
- a, b
- a, c
- b, d
- c, d
- c, e
- d, e
a and c
Significant functions of polymorphonuclear leukocytes in inflammation are:
(a) replication of new cells
(b) phagocytosis of bacteria
(c) elaboration of proteolytic enzymes
(d) elaboration of antibodies
- a, b
- a, c
- b, c
- b, d
- c, d
b, c
IgE is involved in which of the following conditions?
(a) Hives
(b) Hay fever
(c) Pemphigus vulgaris
(d) Lupus erythematosus
- a, b
- a, c
- a, d
- b, c
- c, d
a, b
Invasive staphylococcal infections of orofacial structures are likely to result in:
(a) brain abscess
(b) osteomyelitis
(c) cavernous sinus thrombosis
(d) localized tissue abscesses
- a, b, c
- a, b, d
- a, c, d
- b, c, d
- Any of the above
Any of the above
Which of the following diseases are commonly associated with pathogenic staphylococci?
(a) Impetigo
(b) Dysentery
(c) Food poisoning
(d) Rheumatic fever
- a, b
- a, c
- a, d
- b, c
- b, d
- c, d
a, c
Which of the following are associated with a patient who has AIDS?
(a) Recent Heptavax vaccination
(b) Loss of cellular immunity defenses
(c) Alteration of T-helper/T-suppressor cell ratio in blood
(d) Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections
(e) Decreased immunoglobulin concentration in peripheral circulation
- a, b, d
- a, b, e
- a, c, e
- b, c, d
- c, d, e
c, d, e
Infants are routinely immunized against diseases caused by:
(a) Brucella abortus
(b) Bordetella pertussis
(c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(d) Clostridium tetani
(e) Hemophilis influenzae
- a, b, c
- a, c, e
- b, c, d
- b, d, e
- c, d, e
b, c, d
Which of the following blood diseases are red cell disorders?
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Polycythemia vera
(c) Erythroblastosis fetalis
(d) Hereditary spherocytosis
- a, b, c
- a, b, d
- a, c, d
- b, c, d
- All of the above
All of the above
Basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma are similar in that both:
(a) are invasive
(b) readily metastasize
(c) exhibit mitotic figures
(d) are cured by early excision
(e) commonly occur in the oral cavity
- a, c, d
- a, d, e
- b, c
- b, d, e
- d, e
a, c, d
The secondary stage of syphilis may be manifested in which of the following forms?
(a) Hard chancre
(b) Soft chancre
(c) Maculopapular rash
(d) Extensive CNS involvement
(e) Mucous pathes in the oral cavity
- a, b
- a, d
- b, c
- c
- c, e
- d
c, e
Ascites, which is often a complication of alcoholic liver disease, develops as a result of:
(a) cirrhosis
(b) esophageal varices
(c) portal hypertension
(d) decreased protein production by the liver
- a
- a, c
- a, c, d
- b, c
- b, d
- All of the above
a, c, d
Cells of which of the followin retain a latent capacity for mitotic division?
(a) Liver
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Cardiac muscle
(d) Salivary glands
(e) Neurons
- a, b, c
- a, b, d
- a, c, d
- b, c, e
- b, d, e
a, b, d
In healing of a fracture, which of the following will prevent favorable reconstruction and alignment of bones?
(a) Formation of pseudoarthrosis
(b) Functional remodeling of the procallus by osteoblasts and osteoclasts
(c) Formation of new bone at the site of fracture
(d) Presence of sequestrum
(e) Organization of a hematoma at the site of fracture
- a
- a, d
- b, c
- b, c, d
- d, e
a, d
Abnormalities in cell growth that cause cells, tissues or organs to be smaller than normal include:
(a) metaplasia
(b) atrophy
(c) anaplasia
(d) hypoplasia
- a, b
- a, b, d
- a, c
- a, c, d
- b, c, d
- b, d
b, d
Right-sided heart failure affects the kidneys by causing:
(a) renal hypoxia
(b) venous congestion
(c) retention of H2O and NaCl
(d) decreased glomerular filtration rate
- a, b, c
- a, b, d
- a, c, d
- b, c, d
- All of the above
All of the above
A soft tissue infection rather diffusely spread along the mandible and into the floor of the mouth would likely involve which of the following organisms?
(a) Eikenella corrodens
(b) Staphylococcis auerus
(c) Streptococcus pyogenes
(d) Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
- a, c, d
- b, c
- b, c, d
- b, d
- All of the above
All of the above
Bacteria of which of the following genera have a limited range of habitats in the oral cavity?
(a) Treponema
(b) Bacteroides
(c) Actinomyces
(d) Streptococcus
- a, b
- a, c
- a, d
- b, c
- b, d
- c, d
a, b
Which of the following will not promote fluid retention in the interstitial compartment?
- Lymphatic obstruction
- Increased capillary permeability
- Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood
- Increased hydrostatic pressure of the blood
- Decreased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid
Decreased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid
Each of the following may be seen in multiple myeloma except:
- hypoproteinemia
- plasma cell neoplasia
- hypergammaglobulinemia
- light chain proteinuria
- punched out areas of bone
hypoproteinemia
Which of the following is not a feature of infectious mononucleosis?
- Splenomegaly
- Necrotizing pharyngitis
- Depressed heterophile titer
- Abnormal lymphocytes in peripheral blood
- Marked increase in the number of circulating lymphocytes
Depressed heterophile titer
A primary tumor of which the following organs is least likely to give rise to skeletal metastasis?
- Breast
- Tongue
- Kidney
- Thyroid
- Prostate
Tongue
Which of the following is not mediated by immunoglobulins?
- Anaphylaxis
- Atopic allergy
- Serum sickness
- Arthus' reaction
- Contact dermatitis
Contact dermatitis
Which of the following is not a direct cause of left-sided heart failure?
- Emphysema
- Hypertension
- Aortic stenosis
- Myocardial infarction
- Rheumatic heart disease
Emphysema
Which of the following viruses is least likely to be spread in the dental office?
- HTLV III
- Adenovirus
- Rhinovirus
- Hepatitis B
- Herpes simplex virus
HTLV III
Which of the following is not a function of T lymphocytes in defense of the host?
- Production of MIF
- Production of histamine
- Activation of macrophages
- Production of chemotactic factors
- Protection against intracellular parasites
Production of histamine
A patient with which of the following disease is least likely to show "clubbing" of finers and cyanotic nail beds?
- Polycythemia
- Congenital heart disease
- Chronic pulmonary disease
- Congestive heart failure
- Systemic lupus erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Which of the following species of streptococci is usually not found in human dental plaque?
- S. mutans
- S. sanguis
- S. pyogenes
- S. salivarius
- S. mitior (S. mitis)
S. pyogenes
Which of the following viral-associated enzymes is unique to RNA tumor viruses?
- Neuramidase
- Capping enzyme
- Reverse transcriptase
- DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are generally:
- motile
- sensitive to H2O2
- insensitive to H2O2
- able to ferment lactate
- producers of O2 and H2O from H2O2
sensitive to H2O2
Which of the following is characterisitc of a prokaryotic cell?
- Mitochondrion
- Nuclear membrane
- Single chromosome
- Endoplasmic reticulum
Single chromosome
Which of the following is charaterized by a cumulative antimicrobial effect?
- Iodine
- Alcohol
- Cationic detergent
- Acid glutaraldehyde
- Chlorhexidine gluconate
Chlorhexidine gluconate
The different types fo Streptococcus pneumoniae are distinguished by:
- fermentation reactions
- distinct H and O antigens
- distinct somatic proteins
- distinct capsular polysaccharides
- varying susceptibility to specific bacteriophages
distinct capsular polysaccharides
Which of the following most accurately describes the antibacterial mechanism of penicillin?
- Inhibits DNA synthesis
- Inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis
- Inhibits protein synthesis in growing bacterial cells
- Disrupts the integrity of the cell membrane
Inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis
A common oral manifestation of Addison's disease is:
- melanosis
- xerostomia
- glossodynia
- "cotton wool" bone
- loss of lamina dura
melanosis
The first human cancer that has been strongly linked to a virus is:
- Hodgkin's disease
- multiple myeloma
- Burkitt's lymphoma
- acute lymphocytic leukemia
- chronic myelogenous leukemia
Burkitt's lymphoma
Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by:
- Actinomyces bovis
- Borrelia vincentii
- Nocardia asteroides
- Staphylococcus auerus
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Staphylococcus aureus
Immunosuppressed patients are particularly prone to develop severe oral disease caused by:
- Candida albicans
- Actinomyces isrealii
- Pneumocystis carinii
- Streptococcus mutans
- Streptococcus salivarius
Candida albicans
Tetany may result from hyperfunction of which of the following glands?
- thyroid
- Hypophysis
- Parathyroid
- Adrenal cortex
- Adrenal medulla
Parathyroid
Which of the following is a significant effect of pheochromocytoma?
- Myxedema
- Acromegaly
- Glycosuria
- Hypertension
Hypertension
The indiscriminate use of broad spectrum antibiotics is contraindicated because they frequently:
- are extremely nephrotoxic
- cause psychogenic symptoms
- produce dependency reactions
- induce anaphylactoid reactions
- interfere with indigenous biota
interfere with indigenous biota
A positive skin test in an individual who has tuberculosis is an example of:
- atopy
- autoimmunity
- hypersensitivity
- passive immunity
hypersensitivity
Which of the following pneumoconioses is most often associated with bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma in man?
- Silicosis
- Asbestosis
- Anthracosis
- Berylliosis
Asbestosis
Microcytic hypochromic anemia is most often due to:
- infection
- malabsorption
- folate deficiency
- chronic blood loss
- a genetic abnormality
chronic blood loss
As a result of dental prophylaxis, microorganisms around teeth enter the bloodstream. This condition is an example of:
- pyemia
- toxemia
- bacteremia
- septicemia
- focal infection
bacteremia
Nephrolithiasis is most likely to result from which of the following diseases?
- Hyperpituitarism
- Cushing's disease
- Hyperparathyroidism
- Paget's disease of bone
Hyperparathyroidism
The ability of mammalian organs to regenerate after injury if best demonstrated by the:
- lung
- liver
- heart
- brain
- kidney
liver
A patient is homozygous for a defective gene that substitutes valine for glutamic acid on the beta chain of globin. The most probably diagnosis is:
- thalassemia major
- thalassemia minor
- sickle cell trait
- sickle cell disease
sickle cell disease
A 65-year-old man who experiences urinary retention or difficulty in voiding his bladder most likely has:
- carcinoma of the prostate
- benign prostatic hyperplasia
- malignant neoplasm involving the urethra
- bladder metastasis of bronchogenic carcinoma
benign prostatic hyperplasia
The absence of cellular differentiation is characteristic of:
- anaplasia
- metaplasia
- hyperplasia
- hypertrophy
- inflammation
anaplasia
The most characterisitc finding in intestinal malabsorption syndrome is:
- pain
- melena
- anorexia
- diarrhea
- steatorrhea
steatorrhea
Chronic passive congestion of the lung is characterized by:
- hyaline membranes
- chronic bronchitis
- giant cell arteritis
- interstitial infiltration of PMNs
- thickening of alveolar walls and hemosiderosis
thickening of alveolar walls and hemosiderosis
A person with anti A and anti B isoagglutinins in the serum belongs to blood group:
- A
- B
- AB
- O
O
A cigarette-smoking patient notices a gradual onset of progressive, labored breathing characterized by prolonged expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis is:
- bronchopneumonia
- chronic bronchitis
- pulmonary emphysema
- carcinoma of the lung
- left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and edema
pulmonary emphysema
Organisms that exhibit dimorphism and grow on Sabouraud's medium are:
- fungi
- bacteria
- mycoplasms
- rickettsiae
- spirochetes
fungi
Hypertensive heart disease is consistently associated with which of the following anatomic findings?
- Aortic stenosis
- Tricuspid stenosis
- Pericardial effusion
- Left ventricular hypertrophy
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
Left ventricular hypertrophy
In transduction, DNA is transferred from donor cell to recipient cell by:
- a plasmid
- an episome
- a bacteriphage
- purified nucleic acid
a bacteriophage
The components in the cell wall of Mycobacterium responsible for acid-fastness are:
- mucoproteins
- teichoic acids
- polysaccharides
- lipids and waxes
- magnesium ribonucleates
lipids and waxes
Fat embolism is most often a sequela of:
- fracture
- infection
- contusion
- infarction
- deep laceration
fracture
Which of the following viruses causes two distinct diseases in different age groups?
- Influenza
- Measles
- Smallpox
- Varicella
- Newcastle disease
Varicella
The requirement for an insect vector in the transmission of human disease is a common characterisitic of all infectious agents included in the genus:
- Brucella
- Bedsonia
- Treponema
- Mycoplasma
- Rickettsia
Rickettsia
Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of DNA from smoth pneumococci develop capsules. This is an example of:
- mutation
- conjugation
- translation
- transduction
- transformation
transformation
Which of the following skin lesions is generally considered precancerous?
- Verruca vulgaris
- Actinic keratosis
- Intradermal nevus
- Seborrheic keratosis
Actinic keratosis
Which of the following is produced by a gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobic bacillus?
- Thrush
- Gas gangrene
- Blastomycosis
- Actinomycosis
- Undulant fever
Gas gangrene
The usualy incubation period for hepatitis B virus infection is:
- 1 to 2 days
- 1 to 2 weeks
- 1 to 6 months
- 1 year
- 5 years
1 to 6 months
Which of the following is the most common type of lung cancer?
- Adenocarcinoma
- Bronchiolar carcinoma
- Alveolar cell carcinoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Anaplastic (oat cell) carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Carcinoma of which of the following organs has been shown to be hormonally dependent?
- Colon
- Larynx
- Prostate
- Pancreas
Prostate
Which of the following are most characterisitc of cerviofacial actinomycosis?
- Multiple ulcers
- Enlarged cervical lymph nodes
- Multiple cutaneous abscessed with sinuses
- Indurated nodules in the skin of the neck
Multiple cutaneous abscesses with sinuses
A summer illness that produces nodular lesions of the uvula, anterior pillars and the posterior pharynx is:
- influenza
- herpesvirus
- ECHO virus
- coxsackievirus
coxsackievirus
Which of the following distinguishes a viral infection from other microbial assaults?
- Necrosis
- Chronicity
- Interferon production
- Intracellular infection
- Need for an external vector
Interferon production
Herpes simplex virus type 1 is clinically most often associated with:
- neural lesions
- genital lesions
- cervical carcinoma
- oral and ocular lesions
- none of the above
oral and ocular lesions
A patient with facial erythema, fever, Raynaud phenomenon, joint pain and photophobia probably has:
- scleroderma
- Paget's disease
- Sjogren's syndrome
- erythema multiforme
- systemic lupus erythematosus
systemic lupus erythematosus
In which of the following is hyaluronidase involved?
- Arthus reaction
- Shwartzman phenomenon
- Spread of streptococcal infections
- Localization of staphylococcal infections
Spread of streptococcal infections
Allergens that are usually responsible for contact hypersensitivity are:
- lipids
- haptens
- proteins
- carbohydrates
haptens
The most frequent complication following a single transfusion of blood that was inadequately cross matched is:
- leukopenia
- infectious hepatitis
- altered clotting time
- agglutination of the recipient's erthrocytes
- agglutination of the donor's erythrocytes
agglutination of the donor's erythrocytes
Rheumatic fever may leave the heart seriously damaged because of:
- primary infection of the heart valves with Group A streptococci
- secondary infection of the heart valves with Group A streptococci
- damage to the heart valves throught to be a result of hypersensitivity to hemolytic staphylococci
- damage to the heart valves thought to be a result of hypersensitivity to Group A streptococci
damage to the heart valves thought to be a result of hypersensitivity to Group A streptococci
Opsonization may occur as a component of the humoral immune response to:
- virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae
- intracellular microorganisms
- infections by viruses
- nucleic acids
- none of the above
virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae
Antibodies of which class are likely to be associated with atopic allergy?
- IgA
- IgD
- IgE
- IgG
- IgM
IgE
Which of the following is an example of naturally-acquired passive immunity in humans?
- Tetanus immunization
- Injection of gamma globulin
- Transfusion of immune blood
- Placental transfer of antibody
- Antibody produced during recovery from measles
Placental transfer of antibody
The alum adjuvant employed in many vaccines acts biologically in tissue to:
- serve as a local inflammatory stimulus
- prolong antigen release to immunocompetent cells in the region
- both of the above
- none of the above
both of the above
Recurrent herpes labialis occurs in people who:
- are hypersensitive to herpesvirus
- have been infected with herpesvirus and who have antibodies against the virus
- have been infected with herpesvirus but who fail to produce antibodies against the virus
- None of the above
have been infected with herpesvirus and who have antibodies against the virus
Neutralization and inactivation of bacterial toxins are accomplished by:
- humoral immunity
- cellular immunity
- serotonin release
- lymphokine sythesis
- delayed hypersensitivity
humoral immunity
Development of pseudomembranous colitis is a major adverse effect of prolonged therapy with:
- vancomycin
- clindamycin
- tetracycline
- streptomycin
- cephalosporin
clindamycin
The aerosol produced during operative dental procedures is likely to contain a predominance of:
- yeasts and spirochetes
- spirochetes and rod forms
- spirochetes and rickettsiae
- gram positive microorganisms
- gram negative rod forms and spirochetes
gram positive microorganisms
Large wound defects heal by:
- resolution
- regeneration
- wound contraction
- primary intention
- secondary intention
secondary intention
A lesion that is characterized microscopically in the tissues by central necrosis surrounded by macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells and occasional giant cells is generally classified as:
- a cyst
- a phlegmon
- a granuloma
- an acute abscess
- an autoimmune disease
a granuloma
Leukocytosis is to acute apendicitis as:
- a sign is to disease
- a lesion is to disease
- a symptom is to disease
- pathogenesis is to disease
- an etiologic agent is to disease
a sign is to disease
Which of the following histopathologic findings during necropsy suggests that the person died of, or at least has, rheumatic fever?
- Russell bodies
- Periarteritis nodosa
- Aschoff bodies in the heart muscle
- Monckeberg's sclerosis of the aorta
Aschoff bodies in the heart muscle
Inadequate immobilization after a bone fracture is likely to result in:
- lipping
- a pannus
- pseudoarthrosis
- Heberden's nodes
pseudoarthrosis
Anorexia most seriously and immediately affects the brain and the:
- lung
- heart
- liver
- spleen
- kidney
heart
Which of the following is the lymphoid cell type probably responsible for initial immune recognition of an antigen?
- Neutrophil
- Plasma cell
- Immunoblast
- B lymphocyte
- T lymphocyte
T lymphocyte
Immersion of instruments in cold disinfectants for 30 minutes is expected to destroy:
(a) streptococci
(b) hepatitis B virus
(c) bacterial spores
(d) staphylococci
- a, b, c
- a, c
- a, c, d
- a, d
- b, c
a, d
Clotting of blood is delayed in which of the following conditions?
(a) Hyperparathyroidism
(b) Granulocytic leukemia with thrombocytopenia
(c) During treatment with dicumarol or heparin
(d) Tetany
(e) Alcoholic cirrhosis
(f) Rickets
(g) Microcytic anemia
- a, b, e
- b, c, e
- b, c, f
- b, c, g
- d, e, g
b, c, e
Which of the following are examples of endogenous pigments?
(a) Lead
(b) Melanin
(c) Hemosiderin
(d) Bismuth
(e) Bilirubin
- a, b, c
- a, d, e
- b, c, d
- b, c, e
- c, d, e
- All of the above
b, c, e
Edema may result from:
(a) increased sodium retention
(b) increased lymphatic drainage
(c) increased venule blood pressure
(d) decreased capillary permeability
(e) decreased plasma osmotic pressure
- a, b, d
- a, c, d
- a, c, e
- b, c, e
- b, d, e
a, c, e
Benign neoplasms may cause a serious threat to a patient's well-being or, in some cases, death by:
(a) overproduction of a hormone
(b) direct invasion into a blood vessel
(c) compression of an adjacent vital organ
(d) secondary spread to vital organs, such as the liver
(e) hemorrhage following ulcerations of an overlying mucosal surface
- a, b, c
- a, b, e
- a, c, d
- a, c, e
- a, d, e
- b, c, d
- b, d, e
- c, d, e
a, c, e
Responses by T-lymphochytes to viral infections include:
(a) production of lymphokine
(b) direct cell-mediated cytotoxicity
(c) helper activity to trigger B-lymphocytes to divide and secrete antibodies
- a, b
- a, c
- b, c
- All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following are important etiologic factors in arteriosclerosis?
(a) Smoking
(b) Hypertension
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(d) High serum cholesterol levels
- a, b, c
- a, b, d
- a, c, d
- b, c, d
- All of the above
All of the above
Major complications of a duodenal peptic ulcer include:
(a) stenosis
(b) pernicious anemia
(c) malignant transformations
(d) perforation with peritonitis
- a, b
- a, b, d
- a, c
- a, c, d
- a, d
- b, c
a, d
Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by a well-defined hematologic picture that consists of:
(a) atypical lymphocytes
(b) lymphocytic leukocytosis
(c) a positive heterophile test
- a
- a, b
- a, c
- b
- b, c
- c
- All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is not associated with anaphylaxis?
- Delayed reaction
- Immediate reaction
- Passive transfer by serum
- Participartion of antibodies
- Smooth muscle spasm with capillary damage
Delayed reaction
Microorganisms of which of the following species do not exhibit dimorphism?
- Candida albicans
- Actinomyces isrealii
- Histoplasma capsulatum
- Blastomyces dermatitidis
Actinomyces isrealii
Jaundice does not result from which of the following?
- Gallstones
- Hepatitis A
- Hemolytic anemia
- Vitamin K deficiency
- Carcinoma of the common bile duct
Vitamin K deficiency
Which of the following is least likely to produce acute abdominal symptoms?
- Cholelithiasis
- Acute pancreatitis
- Carcinoma of the ampulla of the duodenum
- Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas
Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas
Which of the following cannot be diagnosed by karyotyping?
- Trisomy 18
- Down's syndrome
- Neurofibromatosis
- Klinefelter's syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Which of the following is least likely to metastasize?
- Neurofibromatosis
- Chondrosarcoma
- Epidermoid carcinoma
- Basal cell carcinoma
- Mucinous adenocarcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Hemoptysis is characteristic of each of the following except:
- emphysema
- tuberculosis
- lobar pneumonia
- pulmonary embolism
- bronchogenic carcinoma
emphysema
Calcium dipicolinate is present in large amounts in:
- spores
- flagella
- mesosomes
- ribosomes
- mitochondria
spores
Which of the following cancers typically arises in teenagers and young adults?
- Wilms' tumor
- Angiosarcoma
- Ewing's sarcoma
- Multiple myeloma
- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Ewing's sarcoma
Three days ago, a patient received her third immunization with tetanus toxoid. What class of antibodies specific for tetanus toxoid would one expect to find in her serum?
- Similar concentrations of IgM and IgG
- High concentrations of both IgM and IgD
- Low concentrations of IgM, high concentration of IgE
- Low concentration of IgM, high concentration of IgG
- High concentration of IgM, low concentration of IgG
Low concentration of IgM, high concentration of IgG
Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is most characteristic of:
- viral pneumonia
- bacterial pneumonia
- lung abscess
- bronchial asthma
- bronchopneumonia
viral pneumonia
Human papillomaviruses 16 and 18 are strongly correlated with the appearance of:
- genital warts
- plantar warts
- cutaneous warts
- uterine cancer
- cervical cancer
cervical cancer
Staphylococcus aureus most commonly causes:
- skin infections
- septicemia
- sore throat
- chronic infections
- exogenous infections
skin infections
Each of the following is characteristic of herpes zoster except one. Which one is this exception?
- Unilateral
- Usually involves 1 to 3 dermatomes
- Occurs repeatedly in immunocompetent patients
- Only occurs in an individual having a latent VZV infection
- More common in individuals who are immunocompromised
Occurs repeatedly in immunocompotent patients
The rapid emergence of new strains of human immunodeficiency virus is primarily the result of:
- the frequent genomic recombination between human immunodeficiency virus and other retroviruses
- frequent errors in the translation of viral proteins
- the lack of immune response to the viral envelope glycoprotein
- frequent errors introduced by viral reverse transcriptase
- the imprecision of protein cleavage by viral protease
frequent errors introduced by viral reverse transcriptase
The antigenic component of which of the following vaccines is a capsular antigen?
- Influenza
- Poliovirus
- Hepatitis B
- Haemophilus influenzae
Haemophilus influenzae
As the severity of periodontal disease progresses, there is an increase in plasma cells that produce which of the following?
- sIgA
- IgD
- IgE
- IgG
- IgM
IgG
Which of the following is a complication of cirrhosis?
- Splenic atrophy
- Hepatic angioma formation
- Obstruction of portal circulation
- Increased plasma protein formation
- Decreased central venous pressure
Obstruction of portal circulation
Which of the following is caused by vitamin D deficiency in adults?
- Rickets
- Myxedema
- Acromegaly
- Ostermalacia
- Osteitis fibrosa cystica
Osteomalacia
Which of the following streptococcal virulence factors acts as a superantigen, mediating a variety of cytokine-induced effects that can result in life-threatening disease?
- Pyogenic exotoxin
- Hyaluronidase
- Streptokinase
- Streptolysin O
Pyogenic exotoxin
Each of the following viruses is potentially capable of causing cell transformation except one. Which one is this exception?
- Retrovirus
- Herpesvirus
- Picornavirus
- Hepatitis B virus
- Human papillomavirus
Picornavirus
Which of the following chemical agents is approved as an immersion sterilant?
- Iodophors
- Ethyl alcohol
- Glutaraldehydes
- Synthetic phenolics
- Sodium hypochlorite
Glutaraldehyde
Which of the following chemical agents is approved as an immersion sterilant?
- Iodophors
- Ethyl alcohol
- Glutaraldehydes
- Synthetic phenolics
- Sodium hypochlorite
Glutaraldehyde
Granulation tissue is comprised of each of the following components except one. Which one is this exception?
- Fibroblasts
- Plasma cells
- Capillary beds
- Endothelial cells
- Newly formed collagen
Plasma cells
Oral streptococci are usually:
- gamma hemolytic
- alpha hemolytic
- beta hemolytic
- non hemolytic
alpha hemolytic
According to the Spaulding Classification System for contaminated items and curfaces, semi-critical items should be reprocessed by:
- exposure to ethylene oxide
- a spray wipe technique
- immersion in a tuberculocidal disinfectant
- washing with a chlorhexidine gluconate disinfectant
- heat stabilization if the material is heat stable
heat stabilization if the material is heat stable
Which of the following promotes edema?
- Increased blood proteins
- Increased sodium excretion
- Decreased lymphatic drainage
- Decreased venule blood pressure
- Increased plasma osmotic pressure
decreased lympahtic drainage
Which of the following is the characteristic immunoglobulin present in human external secretions (i.e. saliva, tears, intestinal juice)?
- Monomeric IgE
- Monomeric IgA
- Polymeric IgG4
- Polymeric IgA
- Secretory IgD
Polymeric IgA
Virulence of the pneumococcus is associated with its:
- pyogenic exotoxin
- C reactive protein
- content of nucleoprotein
- production of streptolysin
- capsular polysaccharide
capsular polysaccharide
Which of the following is branching, filamentous microorganism that is a normal inhabitant of the gingival crevice and tonsilar crypts?
- Aspergillus niger
- Actinomyces naeslundii
- Penicillium notatum
- Trichophyton mentagrophytes
- Lactobacillus casei
Actinomyces naeslundii
Which of the following represents the primary function of sIgA?
- Aggregates microorganisms and prevents colonization
- Activates complement in secretory fluids
- Prmotes phagocytosis by monocytes
- Activates mast cells
- Activates NK cells
Aggregates microorganisms and prevents colonization
Cellular tropism by viruses is dependent on which of the following?
- Host cell DNA homology to viral DNA
- Temperature of host cell incubation
- Gamma interferon production
- Cell surface receptors
- Viral enzyme synthesis
Cell surface receptors
Collagen degradation that is observed in chronic periodontal disease can result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of:
- Porphyromonas species
- Lepthothrix buccalis
- Entamoeba gingivalis
- Enterococcus faecalis
- Veillonella species
Porphyromonas species
Neurofibromatosis type I is characterized by which of the following conditions?
- Multiple mucosal neuromas
- Perioral melanotic freckles
- Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
- Development of visceral carcinoma
- Multiple pigmented macules of the skin
Multiple pigmented macules of the skin
Which of the following is an endogenous fungus that is capable of producing an opportunistic infection?
- Candida
- Rhizopus
- Blastomyces
- Aspergillus
- Cryptococcus
Candida
Which of the following pathogens is the single most common cause of sexually transmitted disease in the U.S.?
- Treponema pallidum
- Haemophilus ducrey
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Herpes simplex virus
- Human immunodeficiency virus
Chlamydia trachomatis
A 9-year-old boy has tinea capitis. If he is receiving appropriate therapy then he is most likely being treated with an:
- anti viral agent
- anti mycotic agent
- anti bacterial agent
- anti parasitic agent
anti mycotic agent
Most cases of choriocarcinoma are discovered by the appearance of a rising titer in blood or urine of which of the following?
- Acid phosphatase
- Alpha fetoprotein
- Alkaline phosphatase
- Carcinoembryotic antigen
- Human chorionic gonadotropin
Human chorionic gonadotropin
Pernicious anemia is characterized by each of the following symptoms except one. Which one is this exception?
- Easy fatigability
- Atrophic glossitis
- Peripheral neuropathy
- Atrophy of the gastric mucosa
- Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells
Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells
Each of the following conditions involves changes in numbers of cells in an organ or tissue except one. Which one is this excption?
- Aplasia
- Hyperplasia
- Hypoplasia
- Metaplasia
Metaplasia
Which of the following conditions is a significant risk factor for the development of hepatocellular carcinoma?
- Cholestasis
- Portal hypertension
- Cholelithiasis
- Reye's syndrome
- Hepatitis C
Hepatitis C
Cigarette smoking has been etiologically linked to each of the following cancers except one. Which one is this exception?
- Lung
- Colon
- Oral cavity
- Esophagus
- Urinary bladder
Colon
Which of the following histopathologic findings will characterize lymph node involvement with Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lateral neck?
- Fibrosis and scarring of the lymph node cortex
- Hyperplasia of the cortex and presence of Reed Sternberg cells
- Granulomas with multinucleate giant cells and caseation necrosis
- Hyperplasia of the cortex and a focally dense infiltrate of neutrophils
Granulomas with multinucleate giant cells and caseation necrosis
Each of the following is a likely long-term complication of poorly controlled type I diabetes mellitus except one. Which one is this exception?
- Pancreatic carcinoma
- Hyaline arteriosclerosis
- Proliferative retinopathy
- Nodular glomerulosclerosis
- Peripheral symmetric neuropathy
Pancreatic carcinoma
In the presence of sucrose, Streptococcus mutans produces:
- L forms
- very long chains of cocci
- regular diploid pairs rather than chains
- deposits of a gummy polysaccharide called glucan
- a very thick wall of muramic acid and mucopeptide substances
deposits of a gummy polysaccharide called glucan
Each of the following is attributable to hepatic failure except one. Which one is this exception?
- Tremor
- Gynecomastia
- Mallory bodies
- Hypoalbuminemia
- Spider telangiectasia
Mallory bodies
Gram-positive cell walls differ from gram-negative cell walls in that gram-positive cell walls uniquely contain:
- teichoic acids
- lipopolysaccharides
- acid fast lipids
- endotoxins
teichoic acids
Which of the following pathogens is most often associated with infective endocarditis?
- Pneumococci
- Group A streptococci
- Group B streptococci
- a hemolytic streptococci
- B hemolytic streptococci
a hemolytic streptococci
Pain in inflamed tissues is associated with the release of which of the following mediators?
- Histamine
- Serotonin
- Bradykinin
- Leukotrienes
- Complement components
Bradykinin
Which of the following represents genes that often encode proteins necessary for antibiotic resistance, and that can change positions on a chromosome or "jump" from a plasmid to a chromosome?
- Tryptophan operon
- Lysogens
- Prophage
- Transposons
Transposons
Each of the following disease is transmitted from person to person by droplets or droplet spray except one. Which one is this exception?
- Condyloma acuminatum
- Whooping cough
- Menigitis
- Diphtheria
- Pneumonia
Condyloma acuminatum
The development of which of the following types of hepatitis depends on the host having been previously infected with hepatitis B virus?
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis D
- Hepatitis E
- Hepatitis G
Hepatitis C
Recovery from an infection with mumps virus confers lifelong immunity. This describes which of the following types of immunity?
- Innate
- Natural active
- Natural passive
- Artificial active
- Artificial passive
Natural active
Which of the following represents the type of maxillofacial bone graft having the best chance of success?
- Isograft
- Homograft
- Allograft
- Autograft
- Xenograft
Autograft
Which of the following represents a risk factor for the development of endometrial carcinoma?
- Herpes simplex virus infection
- Endometriosis
- Multiple leiomyomas
- Multiple pregnancies
- Hyperestrogenism
Hyperestrogenism
Each of the following fluids is considered one that can transmit HIV except one. Which one is this exception?
- Semen
- Serum
- Saliva
- Amniotic fluid
- Breast milk
Saliva
In order for RNA oncogenic viruses to be integrated into the host genome, they must possess:
- translation enzymes
- restriction endonuclease
- DNA dependent RNA polymerase
- RNA dependent DNA polymerase
RNA dependent DNA polymerase
Oxygen-dependent killing of bacteria by neutrophils involves each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Superoxide
- Collagenase
- Myeloperoxidase
- Hydrogen peroxide
- NADP dehydrogenase
Collagenase
A patient has a periapical abscess and a history of hypersensitivity to penicillin. Which of the following antimicrobial agents might be the preferred alternative for this patient?
- Amoxicillin
- Azithromycin
- Tetracycline
- Cephalosporin
- Nystatin
Azithromycin
Edema as a result of a hemodynamic disorder commonly occurs in each of the following locations except one. Which one is this exception?
- Lungs
- Brain
- Subcutaneous tissues
- Peritoneal cavity
- Pancreas
Pancreas
Human infection with Histoplasma capsulatum is usually a result of:
- inhaling contaminated air
- drinking contaminated water
- ingesting contaminated food
- direct human to human contact
- direct animal to human contact
inhaling contaminated air
Which of the following types of bronchogenis carcinoma is most commonly associated with paranerplastic syndrome?
- Small cell carcinoma
- Large cell carcinoma
- Mesothelioma
- Adenocarcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
Which of the following statements describes an example of innate immunity?
- An allergic reaction to insect venom
- The classical pathway of complement
- The destruction of virus infected cells by T killer cells
- The production of IgG in response to insect venom
- Phagocytosis of microbes by neutrophils and macrophages
Phagocytosis of microbes by neutrophils and macrophages
Which of the following has the least ability to regenerate?
- Bone
- Liver
- Striated muscle
- Collagen
- Smooth muscle
Striated muscle
Polmonary edema and filling of the pleural cavity by a transudate is most suggestive of which of the following underlying disease?
- Cor pulmonale
- Polmonary embolism
- Pulmonic valve stenosis
- Tricuspid valve prolapse
- Left sided heart failure
Left sided heart failure
Which of the following disorders is X-linked recessive?
- Neurofibromatosis
- Turner syndrome
- Cystic fibrosis
- Marfan syndrome
- Hemophilia A
Hemophilia A
The biologic effect oexotoxin A produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is to:
- increase membrane permeability
- inactivate IgG
- inhibit protein synthesis
- increase levels of cAMP
- inhibit DNA synthesis
inhibit protein synthesis
Urolithiasis is associated with each of the following conditions except one. Which one is this exception?
- Gout
- Hypertension
- Hypercalcemia
- Renal infection
- Hyperparathyroidism
Hypertension
Which of the following cells are responsible for delayed-type hypersensitivity (Type IV hypersensitivity)?
- B cells, Th2 cells
- B cells, neutrophils
- Th1 cells, macrophages
- Mast cells, eosinophils
- IgE, mast cells, histamine
Th1 cells, macrophages
Which of the following characterizes a benign tumor arising from skeletal muscle?
- Leiomyoma
- Papilloma
- Rhabdomyoma
- Leiomyosarcoma
- Rhabdomyosarcoma
Rhabdomyoma
Following prophylactic administration of amoxicillin, a patient becomes hypotensive and itchy and is having difficulty breathing. Which of the following is most probably occuring?
- CD4 lymphocytes are secreting lymphokines resulting in edema
- Amoxicillin reacts with IgE and activates cytotoxic T cells to release lymphokines
- IgG and complement are inducing the chemotaxis of neutrophils out of vessels
- IgE bound to antigen results in histamine releasing from mast cells
Amoxicillin reacts with IgE and activates cytotoxic T cells to release lymphokines
Which of the following is most likely to precede an impending atherosclerotic cerebral infarction?
- Angina pectoris
- Pulmonary embolus
- Myocardial infarction
- Ruptured berry aneurysm
- Transient ischemic attacks
Transient ischemic attacks
The glomerular lesions in immune complex disease result from deposition of which of the following?
- IgE
- IgG
- TCR
- Histamine
- Interleukin
IgG
In osteomalacia, bones are weak because of the failure of:
- remodeling of bone
- bone matrix formation
- osteoblast proliferation
- bone matrix calcification
- interstitial growth of cartilage
bone matrix calcification
Which of the following represents the term characteristic of a single disease?
- Pathogenic
- Pathologic
- Idiopathic
- Iatrogenic
- Pathognomonic
Pathognomonic
Each of the following conditions predisposes a patient to develop cancer except one. Which one is this exception?
- Asbestosis
- Anthracosis
- Hepatitis C
- Gardner's syndrome
- Ulcerative colitis
Anthracosis
The first clinical findings in prostatic cancer are often the result of metastasis to which of the following?
- Liver
- Brain
- Testes
- Adrenal gland
- Bone
Bone
Each of the following statements correctly describes a clinical feature of acute lymphoblastic leukemia except one. Which one is this exception?
- Multiple, acutely tender lymph nodes due to central node ischemic necrosis
- CNS infiltration related to headache, vomiting, and palsies
- Bone pain secondary to leukemia infiltration of the marrow and periosteum
- Symptoms related to bone marrow suppression, including anemia and thrombocytopenia
Multiple, acutely tender lymph nodes due to central node ischemic necrosis
A patient with hyperparathyroidism is likely to show each of the following signs or symptoms except one. Which one is this exception?
- Urolithiasis
- Elevated serum calcium
- Tetanic muscular convulsions
- Central giant cell bone lesions
- Loss of lamina dura surrounding multiple teeth
Tetanic muscular convulsions
Which of the following best characterizes the anemia showing normocytic, normochromic erythrocytes?
Myelophthisic
Each of the following statements correctly describes myocardial infarction (MI) except one. Which one is this exception?
- Most acute MIs are caused by coronary artery thrombosis
- Acute MI is the most common cause of death in industrialized nations
- Pain from MI can usually be relieved by vasodilators such as nitroglycerin
- Thrombocytic agents such as streptokinase often limit the size of infarction
- Myocardial necrosis usually begins 20-30 minutes after coronary artery occlusion
Pain from MI can usually be relieved by vasodilators such as nitroglycerin
Each of the following statements describes a characteristic feature of ischemic heart disease except one. Which one is this exception?
- Usually results from complete occlusion of one or more coronary arteries
- Represents an imbalance between myocardial oxygen demand and available blood supply
- Has a peak incidence in men over 60 years of age and women over 70 years of age
- Contributing factors include chronic hypertension and high levels of low density lipoproteins
Usually results from complete occlusion of one or more coronary arteries
If a patient transmits hepatitis C virus to his dentist, then it will most likely be via which of the following routes?
- Oral fecal
- Saliva contamination
- Inhalation of aerosols
- Contaminated needle stick
Contaminated needle stick