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579 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following represents the most reliable criterion for pathogenicity of staphylococci?
- Hemolysis - Pigment production - Coagulase production - Mannitol fermentation - Liquefaction of gelatin |
Hemolysis
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Which of the following forms of bacterial gene transfer is the least susceptible to DNase and does not require cell-to-cell contact?
- Transition - Conjugation - Transduction - Transformation |
Transduction
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Which of the following organisms is acid-fast?
- Mycobacterium avium - Treponema pallidum - Borrelia recurrentis - Staphylococcus aureus - Strepococcus pneumoniae |
Mycobacterium avium
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Which of the following conditions is characterized by a reduction in size and a condensation of nuclear material?
- Pyknosis - Apoptosis - Karyolysis - Hypoplasia - Karyorrhexis |
Pyknosis
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An important early event in the chemotactic process is cellular adherence to vascular endothelium. The upregulation of endothelial adhesion molecules (ICAM-1 and VCAM-1) is in part a response to:
- cytokine stimulation - lysozyme production - mast cell degradation - antibody binding to endothelial Fc receptors - protease inhibition by serum anti proteases |
cytokine stimulation
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Each of the following is necessary for viral antigen recognition by CD4 T-helper cells except one. Which on is this exception?
- Viral replication in host cells - Cleavage of viral proteins into small peptides - Transport of viral peptides to a cell surface by MHC Class II molecules - Binding of the T cell's TCR to a MHC Class II bound viral peptide - Internalization of the virus (or viral protein) by an antigen presenting cell |
Internalization of the virus (or viral protein) by an antigen presenting cell
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Which of the following produces a bacterial toxin that attaches to presynaptic nerves and blocks the release of acetylcholine?
- Helicobacter pylori - Clostridium difficile - Clostridium botulinum - Staphylococcus aureus - Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
Clostridium botulinum
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Which of the following is the primary site of a Ghon complex?
- Trachea and bronchus - Parenchyma of the lower lobes - Parenchyma of the upper lobes - Trachea and hilar lymph nodes - Subpleural parenchyma and hilar lymph nodes |
Parenchyma of the upper lobes
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Bacterial lipopolysaccharide contains each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Lipid A - Teichoic acid - Core polysaccharide - O specific side chain - Keto deoxy octanoate |
Keto deoxy octanoate
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Which of the following is an example of naturally- acquired passive immunity in humans?
- Tetanus immunization - Injection of gamma globulin - Placental transfer of antibody - Antibody produced during recovery from measles |
Placental transfer of antibody
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Which of the following is characterized by individual, blister-like lesions affecting specific dermatomes and usually causing intense, burning pain?
- Variola - Measles - Herpes zoster - Infectious mononucleosis - Hand foor and mouth disease |
Herpes zoster
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Collagen degradation that is observed in chronic periodontal disease can result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of:
- Porphyromonas species - Lepthothrix buccalis - Entamoeba gingivalis - Enterococcus faecalis - Veillonella species |
Lepthothrix buccalis
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Hepatitis C infection is most often transmitted through:
- sexual contact - oral secretions - blood transfusions - the fecal oral route - respiratory droplets |
blood transfusions
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The microflora of the healthy gingival sulcus is predominantly:
- spirochetes and yeasts - gram positive facultative rods and spirochetes - gram positive facultative cocci and filamentous bacteria - gram negative anaerobic rods and fusobacteria - gram negative anaerobic cocci and gram positive facultative cocci |
gram negative anaerobic rods and fusobacteria
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Immunologic injury that involves the activation of complement as an important event in producing damage to tissue is found in which of the following reactions?
- Delayed type hypersensitivity - Anaphylactic type hypersensitivity - Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity - Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity |
Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
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Which of the following represents the most numerous leukocytes found in gingival crevicular fluid?
- Monocytes - Neutrophils - Plasma cells - B lymphocytes - T lymphocytes |
Monocytes
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Which of the following groups of cells are characteristic of a chronic inflammatory process?
- Neutrophils, mast cells, and basophils - Neutrophils, eosinophils, and histiocytes - Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages - Basophils, eosinophils, and Reed Sternberg cells - Histiocytes, Reed Sternberg cells, and mase cells |
Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages
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Which unique aspect of cariogenic strains of Streptococcus mutans sets them apart from other oral acidogenic organisms?
- Tendency to form chains - Secretion of proteolytic enzymes - Extracellular polysaccharide made from glucose - Formation of water insoluble glucans from sucrose - Four equivalents of acid formed per mole of glucose |
Secretion of proteolytic enzymes
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Which of the following is cheifly an extravascular event?
- Stasis - Hyperemia - Chemotaxis - Margination - Pavementing |
Chemotaxis
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Spontaneous gingival bleeding seen in acute leukemia is most likely a result of which of the following?
- Thrombocytopenia - von Willebrand disease - Hypoprothrombinemia - Vascular fragility - Factor VII deficiency |
Thrombocytopenia
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A bone lesion with radiopaque structures radiating from the periphery suggests which of the following?
- Osteosarcoma - Osteoblastoma - Multiple myeloma - Giant cell tumor - Osteitis deformans |
Multiple myeloma
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A virus associated with the induction of cervical carcinoma is which of the following?
- Adenovirus - C type virus - Varicella zoster virus - Epstein Barr virus - Human papillomavirus |
Human papillomavirus
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Which of the following types of necrosis is particularly characteristic of pyogenic infections?
- Caseous - Gummatous - Coagulative - Liquefactive - Enzymatic fat |
Caseous
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Which of the following human cancers is associated with Epstein Barr virus?
- T cell lymphoma - Kaposi's sarcoma - Hepatocellular carcinoma - Nasopharyngeal carcinoma - Squamous cell carcinoma of the uterine cervix |
T cell lymphoma
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Which of the following conditions might be an initial manifestation of early, acute HIV infection?
- Kaposi's sarcoma - Wasting syndrome - Oral hairy leukoplakia - Mononucleosis like syndrome - Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia |
Mononucleosis like syndrome
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Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of DNA from dead smooth pneumococci develop capsules. This is an example of bacterial:
- mutation - dominance - conjugation - transduction - transformation |
transformation
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Each of the following denotes a malignant neoplasm except one. Which one is this exception?
- Adenoma - Hepatoma - Lymphoma - Melanoma - Seminoma |
Adenoma
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Secondary syphilis is characterized by each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Cutaneous lesions - Positive VDRL test - Development of a gumma - Mucous membrane lesions - Presence of spirochetes in lesions |
Development of a gumma
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Most cases of encephalitis are caused by which of the following?
- Fungi - Viruses - Protozoa - Bacteria - Rickettsia |
Viruses
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Primary tissue transplants, such as allogenic skin, kidney or heart, are most commonly rejected because of:
- induction of armed host macrophages - immediate hypersensitivity reactions - humoral immune responses to cell surface alloantigens - cell mediated immune responses to cell surface alloantigens - humoral and cell mediated responses to intracellular tissue specific antigens |
cell mediated immune responses to cell surface alloantigens
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An 18-year-old male patient sustains a compound fracture of the femur. Twenty-four hours later the fragments are manipulated in order to better align before splinting. The patient dies suddenly. The most likely reason for his sudden death is:
- hypovolemic shock - myocardial infarction - fat embolism - pulmonary thromboembolism - air embolism |
fat embolism
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Prevotella intermedia is first detectable in the oral cavity:
- at birth - by adolescence - in the presence of dental caries - immediately before periodontal disease appears - long after periodontal disease appears |
by adolescence
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A patient has oral candidiasis but otherwise is in good health. Which of the following drugs is the best choice for treating this patient?
- Nystatin - Vancomycin - Penicillin - Tetracycline - Streptomycin |
Nystatin
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The newly formed, highly vascularized connective tissue associated with inflammation is known as which of the following?
- Scar - Angioma - Granuloma - Purulent exudate - Granulation tissue |
Granulation tissue
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Vasodilation and increased vasopermeability lasting for several days in an area of inflammation indicate which of the following?
- Thrombosis - Release of bradykinin - Hageman factor activation - Formation of granulation tissue - Endothelial cell damage and disruption |
Endothelial cell damage and disruption
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A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus presents with nasal obstruction, proptosis, and palatal perforation. These clinical findings are most consistent with which of the following?
- Candidiasis - Mucormycosis - Blastomycosis - Histoplasmosis - Coccidioidomycosis |
Mucormycosis
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Certain staphylococci, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli, and streptococci share as a property the fact that they:
- are gram positive - are strict anaerobes - fail to ferment glucose - do not grow on nutrient agar - are common in hospital acquired infections |
are common in hospital acquired infections
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B-cell immunodeficiency can be treated with injections of:
- activated complement components - T helper cell adjuvants - natural killer cells - gamma globulin |
gamma globulin
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Which of the following cells are increased in number in the bloodstream in the case of allergy or parasitic infection?
- Basophils - Eosinophils - Neutrophils - Atypical lymphocytes - Nucleated erythrocytes |
Eosinophils
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Which of the following is the most appropriate sterilization method for a heat-labile item to be used in a surgical procedure?
- Dry heat - Autoclaving - Ethylene oxide - Saturated chemical vapor - Immersion in chemical sterilant |
Autoclaving
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The most effective means of preventing disease transmission in the dental office is based on which of the following concepts?
- Asepsis - Disinfection - Sterilization - Barrier techniques - Universal precautions |
Sterilization
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Which of the following conditions is diagnosed by karyotyping?
- Gout - Cystic fibrosis - Tay Sach disease - Neurofibromatosis - Turner's syndrome |
Turner's syndrome
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Each of the following is a feature of acute pancreatitis except one. Which one is this exception?
- Fibrosis - Hemorrhage - Inflammation - Fat necrosis - Parenchymal necrosis |
Fibrosis
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Each of the following statements concerning malignant hypertension is correct except one. Which one is this exception?
- Patients will live a normal life span if untreated - Patients have markedly elevated levels of plasma renin - Patients are generally younger than those with benign hypertension - The corresponding renal lesion is known as malignant nephrosclerosis - It may arise de novo or appear suddenly in apatient with previous mold hypertension |
Patients will live a normal life span if untreated
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A patient who has anemia, poorly localized abdominal pain, and wrist and foot drop probably is manifesting a toxic state induced by which of the following?
- Carbon tetrachloride - Carbon monoxide - Bismuth - Mercury - Lead |
Lead
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A patient with shingles (herpes zoster) is most likely to have had a previous episode of which of the following?
- Measles - Roseola - Chickenpox - Viral meningitis - Infectious mononucleosis |
Chickenpox
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Normal human cells contain gene sequences homologous to virus genome sequences known to induce cancer in animals. What term applies to these gene sequences when found in human cells?
- Protooncogenes - Viral oncogenes - Retroviral genes - Analogous chromosomes - Homologous chromosomes |
Protooncogenes
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Which of the following bacterial vaccines is given routinely to children in the USA?
- BCG - Cholera - Polyvalent pneumococcus - Measles, mumps, rubella - Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus |
Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus
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Which of the following organisms is commonly located on the dorsum of the tongue?
- Actinomyces israelii - Streptococcus salivarius - Lactobacillus acidophilus - Prevotella melaninogenica - Streptococcus mutans |
Streptococcus salivarius
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Which of the following commonly produces a positive heterophile antibody test?
- Adenovirus - Cytomegalovirus - Epstein Barr virus - Parainfluenza virus - Herpes simplex virus type 1 |
Epstein Barr virus
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Which of the following inflammatory responses is associated with an infection caused by pyogenic pathogens?
- Catarrhal - Granulomatous - Pseudomembranous - Acute suppurative |
Acute suppurative
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Which of the following bacterial genera is least likely to be found among normal anaerobic flora of the gingival sulcus?
- Mycobacterium - Fusobacterium - Prevotella - Actinobacillus - Porphyromonas |
Mycobacterium
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If Type A blood is accidentally transfused into a Type B recipient, the immediate hemolytic reaction would be the result of which of the following?
- IgM against the A antigen - IgA against the A antigen - IgG against the B antigen - T cytotoxic cell activation - Sensitization to antigens other than A or B |
IgM against the A antigen
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Which of the following is the most appropriate alternative for treating a patient allergic to penicillin who has an infection caused by bacteria sensitive to penicillin?
- Rifampin - Amoxicillin - Erythromycin - Tetracycline - Cephalosporin |
Erythromycin
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In the past 30 years (1998), the mortality rate of which of the following forms of cancer in women has shown a marked increase?
- Uterine cervix - Colorectal - Stomach - Breast - Lung |
Lung
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Normal clotting time and normal platelet count accompanied by prolonged bleeding time suggest which of the following?
- Hemophilia - Steatorrhea - Polycythemia vera - Thrombocytopenic purpura - Excessive aspirin ingestion |
Excessive aspirin ingestion
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Dry heat sterilization of dental instruments requires:
- 3 minutes at 270ºF (132ºC) - 20 minutes at 250ºF (121ºC) - 30 minutes at 320ºF (160ºC) - 60 minutes at 340ºF (171ºC) - 6 hours at 100ºF (38ºC) |
60 minutes at 340ºF (171ºC)
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Successful immunization with a hepatitis B vaccine results in the development of serum antibodies to which of the following?
- HBsAg - HBcAg - HBeAg - HBV DNA polymerase |
HBsAg
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Which of the following represents a simple autosomal dominant disorder?
- Type 1 diabetes mellitus - Type 2 diabetes mellitus - Gardner syndrome - Cleft palate - Gout |
Gardner syndrome
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A patient with rheumatic heart disease is most likely to develop congestive heart failure due to which of the following?
- Heart murmur - Valvular insufficiency - Digitalis toxicity - Cor pulmonale - Aschoff bodies in coronary arteries |
Valvular insufficiency
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Which of the following represents the phenotypic expression of both alleles in a gene pair?
- Penetrance - Lyonization - Codominance - Hybridization - Heterozygosity |
Codominance
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Hereditary angioedema is the result of which of the following?
- Lack of a thymus - Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor - Developmental arrest of lymphocytes - Defective VH gene recombination to DJH - Bare lymphocytes (no Class I/II antigens) |
Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor
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Legionella pneumophilia is commonly transmitted by:
- sexual contact - water contaminated with human waste - aerosolization of organisms in contaminated soil - direct contact with respiratory droplets from a contaminated person - aerosolization of organisms in air conditioning cooling towers |
aerosolization of organisms in air conditioning cooling towers
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Which of the following best represents the pathogenesis of jaundice in patients with hepatitis A?
- Massive hemolysis - Portal hypertension - Damage to liver cells - Massive fibrosis of the liver - Obstruction of main bile ducts |
Damage to liver cells
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Which of the following pathologic changes is irreversible?
- Fatty changes in liver cells - Karyolysis in myocardial cells - Glycogen deposition in hepatocyte nuclei - Hydropic vacuolization of renal tubular epithelial cells |
Karyolysis in myocardial cells
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Which of the following is the major viral cause of birth defects in infants in developed countries?
- Measles - Cytomegalovirus - Herpes simplex - Rubella - Varicella zoster |
Cytomegalovirus
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Warts are caused by which of the following?
- Papillomaviruses - Herpesviruses - Rhinoviruses - Adenoviruses - Rotaviruses |
Papillomaviruses
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To which of the following molecules does HIV bind?
- CD4 - CD8 - MHC Class I - MHC Class II - Immunoglobulin |
CD4
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Which of the following viral diseases has the longest incubation period?
- Herpetic gingivostomatitis - Common cold - Influenza - Measles - Rabies |
Rabies
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Which of the following typically results in sudden death?
- Bronchiectasis - Pneumoconiosis - Pulmonary emphysema - Pulmonary saddle embolus - Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis |
Pulmonary saddle embolus
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Uncomplicated healing of a wound by secondary intention, observed microscopically at three days, is most likely to show evidence of which of the following?
- Mature cicatrix - Keloid formation - Granulomatous inflammation - Lack of acute inflammation - Ulceration of the epithelial surface |
Ulceration of the epithelial surface
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Which of the following represents the most common autopsy finding in instances of sudden death as a result of myocardial infarction?
- Valvular prolapse - Coronary thrombosis - Fibrinous pericarditis - Aneurysm of the heart wall - Rupture of the coronary vessel |
Coronary thrombosis
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Which of the following represents the characteristic cellular infiltrate in delayed type hypersensitivity?
- T cells and macrophages - Eosinophils - Neutrophils - B cells and plasma cells - Mast cells and basophils |
T cells and macrophages
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Which type of oral candidiasis is likely to produce a firmly adherent white plaque on the oral mucosa?
- Acute pseudomembranous - Chronic hyperplastic - Chronic atrophic - Acute atrophic |
Chronic hyperplastic
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If a foreign antigen enters the body through the skin, which of the following portions of the lymphoid system is the antigen most likely to reach first?
- Liver - Spleen - Thymus - Lymph nodes - Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue |
Lymph nodes
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Each of the following is commonly associated with congestive heart failure except one. Which one is this exception?
- Dyspnea - Cyanosis - Anasarca - Ankle edema - Passive congestion of the liver |
Anasarca
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The appearance of new strains of human immunodeficiency virus are primarily the result of:
- natural selection - genomic recombination - errors in translation - errors in transcription |
errors in transcription
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Bleeding esophageal varices are a common complication of which of the following conditions?
- Cirrhosis - Hiatal hernia - Pancreatic carcinoma - Chronic active hepatitis - Hepatocellular carcinoma |
Cirrhosis
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Which of the following is the primary site of origin of neuroblastoma?
- Brain - Kidney - Stomach - Mandible - Adrenal gland |
Adrenal gland
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In the process of cell death, lysosomal enzymes function mainly to:
- autolyze necrotic cells - mediate cell degeneration - act as a major target for cell injury - activate the complement sequence |
autolyze necrotic cells
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The antigen-binding site of antibody molecules is localized in the:
- Fab fragment - Fc receptor - J chain - constant region |
Fab fragment
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Which of the following genera of bacteria is most commonly found on the skin?
- Candida - Brucella - Bacillus - Streptococcus - Staphylococcus |
Staphylococcus
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Which of the following is unque to gram negative bacteria?
- Flagella - Capsules - Ribosomes - Endotoxins - Endospores |
Endotoxins
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Inadequate immobilization after a bone fracture is most likely to result in which of the following?
- Osteomyelitis - Osteoarthritis - Pseudoarthrosis - Heberden's nodes - Rheumatoid arthritis |
Pseudoarthrosis
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Phage conversion is responsible for which of the following?
- Transformation of bacteria - Production of beta galactose - Production of pyogenic toxin - Ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen |
Production of pyogenic toxin
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Which of the following represents the best way to verify heat sterilization?
- Using a chemical monitor - Recording sterilizer pressure - Recording duration of exposure - Recording sterilizer temperature - Testing with biological indicator |
Testing with biological indicator
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Which of the following diseases is most often characterized by hyphae growing in and around vessels?
- Candidiasis - Mucormycosis - Blastomycosis - Histoplasmosis - Coccidioidomycosis |
Mucormycosis
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In either an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection, which of the following cells increase in number in the bloodstream?
- Basophils - Eosinophils - Plasma cells - Atypical lymphocytes - Nucleated erythrocytes |
Eosinophils
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Which of the following viruses is characterized by latency and by the clinical symptoms that can follow trauma, fever, or nerve damage?
- Variola - Influenza - Rubella - Herpes simplex - Coxsackievirus A |
Herpes simplex
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Which of the following is the most important function of bacterial pili in causing human infectious disease?
- Making the bacteria motile - Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells - Transfering DNA from one bacterium to another - Destroying phagocytic macrophages and neutrophils |
Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells
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Host responses against encapsulated Streptococcus pneumoniae are chiefly mediated by which of the following?
- IgE - IgD - Opsonins - Cytotoxic T lymphocytes - Delayed hypersensitivity |
Opsonins
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Most rickettsial disease can produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae:
- produce potent exotoxins - cause extensive CNS damage - are destructive for epithelial cells - are destructive for endothelial cells |
are destructuve for endothelial cells
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The process of gene transfer between bacterial cells that involve the uptake of naked DNA molecules is classified as which of the following?
- Conjugation - Transduction - Translocation - Transformation - Gene conversion |
Transformation
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Obesity, striae, moon face, buffalo hump, and osteoporosis are manifestations of which of the following?
- Myxedema - Acromegaly - Addison's disease - Cushing's syndrome - Diabetes insipidus |
Cushing's syndrome
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The capsule of Streptococcus mutans is an important virulence factor that:
- has proteolytic activity - enhances oral accumulation - causes circulatory collapse - prevents phagocytic digestion - is necessary to cause bacteremia |
enhances oral accumulation
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Which of the following genera form endospores?
- Proteus and Escherichia - Clostridium and Bacillus - Porphyromonas and Streptococcus - Mycobacterium and Actinomyces - Staphylococcus and Corynebacterium |
Clostridium and Bacillus
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Which of the following chemical agents has the broadest antimicrobial spectrum of activity?
- Phenol - Ethanol - Isopropanol - Glutaraldehyde - Quaternary amine |
Glutaraldehyde
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Which of the following viruses does not establish a latent infection?
- Poliovirus - Epstein Barr - Herpes simplex - Varicellazoster - Cytomegalovirus |
Poliovirus
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Cor pulmonale is usually the direct result of:
- viral pneumonia - myocardial ischemia - systemic hypertension - resistance to blood flow through the lungs - streptococcal hypersensitization |
resistance to blood flow through the lungs
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Which of the following represents one function of macrophages in immunity?
- Produce IL 2 - Produce antibody - Present antigen to antigen specific T cells - Mediators of antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity |
Present antigen to antigen specific T cells
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What is the role of lactobacilli in coronal caries?
- Primary pathogen in most cases - Highly pathogenic in animal models - Causes progression of existing lesions - Highly adherent colonizer of smooth surfaces - Consumes lactic acid produced by streptococci |
Causes progression of existing lesions
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Which of the following represents the formation of an intravascular blood clot?
- Thrombosis - Hemorrhage - Infarction - Embolization - Transudation |
Thrombosis
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding glioblastoma multiforme?
- The tumor is most common before puberty - It is classified as a type of meningioma - It is the most common type of astrocytoma - Its prognosis is generally more favorable than Grade I astrocytoma - It is derived from the epithelial lining of the ventricles |
It is the most common type of astrocytoma
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A patient states that he immediately begins wheezing and has difficulty breathing when exposed to penicillin. Which of the following classes of antibodies is responsible for the difficulty in breathing?
- IgA - IgE - IgG - IgM - IgD |
IgE
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Multiple drug resistance is related most closely to bacterial:
- plasmids - chromosomes - transduction - transformation - viruses in the bacterial wall |
plasmids
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An enterotoxin formed by Staphylococcus aureus causes:
- food poisoning - a rash on the skin - neuromuscular paralysis - spasms of voluntary muscles |
food poisoning
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The basic chemical structure of endotoxins includes which of the following?
- Capsular polysaccharide - Acid stable peptidoglycan - H and L chain glycoproteins - Lipoteichoic acid, polysaccharide, protein - Somatic O polysaccharide, core polysaccharide, lipid A |
Somatic O polysaccharide, core polysaccharide, lipid A
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Which of the following causes whooping cough?
- Haemophilus influenzae - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Bordetella pertussis - Brucella melitensis - Klebsiella pneumoniae |
Bordetella pertussis
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Which of the following disorders is least likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with acute appendicitis?
- Crohn's disease - Duodenal peptic ulcer - Meckel's diverticulitis - Pelvic inflammatory disease - Gastroenteritis with mesenteric adenitis |
Duodenal peptic ulcer
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Dimorphism in microorganisms is characterized by the capability to produce:
- both sexual and asexual spores - both a yeast phase and a mycelial phase - two distinct types of clinical infections - both by budding and by production of spores |
both a yeast phase and a mycelial phase
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During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, leukotrienes and prostaglandin D2 are generated from which of the following?
- Thymus - Histamine - Arachidonic acid - Bradykinin and other kinins - Granules of mast cells and basophils |
Arachidonic acid
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Under which of the following circumstances does a graft versus host reaction occur?
- When nonvital tissues are grafted - When viable lymphoid cells are present in the graft - When the recipient and the donor are synergic - When the graft is contaminated with gram negative microorganisms - When the donor and the recipient are of different races |
When viable lymphoid cells are present in the graft
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Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer?
- History of bearing multiple children - Estrogen deficiency - Silicone implants - Fibroadenoma - Obesity |
Obesity
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Which of the following are directly associated with destruction of glomerular basement membranes in a patient with glomerulonephritis?
- Eosinophils - Lymphokines - IgE antibodies - Polymorphonuclear leukocytes |
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
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Penicillin is usually non-tocix to human cells because human cells lack which of the following?
- Mitochondria - Peptidoglycans - Topoisomerases - Nuclear membranes |
Peptidoglycans
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Anaerobic bacteria obtain their energy requirements from which of the following reactions?
- Respiration - Fermentation - Atmospheric oxygen - Oxidative phosphorylation - Catalase and superoxide dismutase |
Fermentation
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In order for a virus to infect a host cell, it must first adsorb onto the cell surface. This process necessitates:
- phagocytic activity by the cell - an inhibition of the cellular secretion of interferon - an insertion of virally specified glycoproteins into the host cell membrane - a specific binding of the virus to a cell membrane receptor |
a specific binding of the virus to a cell membrane receptor
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Neisseria gonorrheae has affinity for which of the following structures?
- Skin - Nerve cells - Plasma cells - Muscle fibers - Mucous membrane |
Mucous membrane
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Which of the following is most likely caused by chronic blood loss dur to a long standing peptic ulcer?
- Aplastic anemia - Hemolytic anemia - Pernicious anemia - Myelophthisic anemia - Iron deficiency anemia |
Iron deficiency anemia
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An afebrile patient with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia and an absence of urobilinogen most likely has which of the following conditions?
- Cholelithiasis - Aplastic anemia - Hemolytic anemia - Acute hepatitis - Alcoholic cirrhosis |
Cholelithiasis
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Which of the following genera of fungi is most frequently recovered from healthy mucous membranes?
- Candida - Aspergillus - Histoplasma - Blastomyces - Coccidioides |
Candida
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Which of the following disinfectants is effective against herpes simplex viruses but not rhinoviruses?
- Phenolics - Iodophores - Glutaraldehyde - Sodium hypochlorite - 70% isopropyl alcohol |
70% isopropyl alcohol
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The chemotactic accumulation of inflammatory cells that occurs at the sites where immune complexes are deposited is most probably due to the presence of:
- C5a - Factor B - IL 2 - IgA - IgE |
C5a
|
|
|
In which of the following organs or tissues are ascending infections common?
- Bone - Heart - Kidney - Peritoneum - Subcutaneous connective tissue |
Kidney
|
|
|
Individuals with severe, uncomplicated pulmonary emphysema might be expected to show which of the following?
- Cough - Chest pain - Normal or increased total lung capacity - Difficulty when breathing in (inspiration) |
Normal or increased total lung capacity
|
|
|
Which of the following is an oncogenic RNA virus?
- Rotavirus - Retrovirus - Herpesvirus - Paramyxovirus - Papillomavirus |
Retrovirus
|
|
|
Candidiasis in the adult oral cavity may signify a change in the balance of oral microbiota. This particular change is often seen in persons who are taking which of the following drugs?
- Antiviral - Antifungal - Antibacterial |
Antibacterial
|
|
|
In addition to Kaposi's sarcoma, which other malignant neoplasm is often observed in AIDS?
- Mycosis fungoides - Testicular carcinoma - Neuroblastoma - Non Hodgkin's lymphoma - Rhabdomyosarcoma |
Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
|
|
|
Which of the following represents a malignant tumor arising from mesenchymal tissue?
- Sarcoma - Adenoma - Carcinoma - Hamartoma - Choristoma |
Sarcoma
|
|
|
Certain enzymes are responsible for supparation. These enzymes derive chiefly from:
- serum - tissue - neutrophils - lymphocytes - plasma cells |
neutrophils
|
|
|
Which of the following represents the classic microscopic lesion of rheumatoid arthritis?
- Tophus - Pannus - Aschoff body - Heberden node - Wire loop lesion |
Pannus
|
|
|
A 43-year-old woman exhibits radiographic evidence of an osteolytic lesion of the humerus. Her serum calcium level is elevated. Microscopically, the bone lesion shows numerous giant cells. Which of the following represents the most probably diagnosis?
- Renal rickets - Fibrous dysplasia - Ostetis deformans - Hyperparathyroidism |
Hyperparathyroidism
|
|
|
Adult respiratory distress syndrome might be caused by each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Shock - Heroin overdose - Viral pneumonia - Cigarette smoking - Breathing 100% O2 |
Cigarette smoking
|
|
|
Rheumatic fever can be a sequelae to which of the following streptococcal infections?
- Pyoderma - Diphtheria - Scarlet fever - Dental caries - Streptococcal gangrene |
Scarlet fever
|
|
|
Which of the following represents the epithelial change most predictive of cancer?
- Dysplasia - Metaplasia - Acanthosis - Parakeratosis - Hyperkeratosis |
Dysplasia
|
|
|
Acute leukemias are most often seen in which of the following age groups?
- Under 20 years - 20 to 40 years - 40 to 60 years - 60 to 80 years - Over 80 years |
Under 20 years
|
|
|
Which of the following is a major component of nephrotic syndrome?
- Anemia - Hematuria - Hypertension - Proteinuria - Red cell casts in the urine |
Proteinuria
|
|
|
Which of the following is the most common skin cancer in humans?
- Malignant melanoma - Basal cell carcinoma - Squamous cell carcinoma - Sebaceous adenocarcinoma - Transitional cell carcinoma |
Basal cell carcinoma
|
|
|
Which of the following represents the most probable cause for prolonged bleeding time in a patient with leukemia?
- Decreased factor VIII - Increased factor IX - Increased megakaryocytes - Decreased level of serum calcium - Decreased number of blood platelets |
Decreased number of blood platelets
|
|
|
An abscess in the oral cavity with central necrosis extruding pus containing sulfur granules would be which of the following?
- Furuncle - Tuberculosis - Actinomycosis - Vincent's infection |
Actinomycosis
|
|
|
Patients with which of the following malignancies have the poorest prognosis?
- Lung cancer - Malignant melanoma - Pancreatic carcinoma - Carcinoma of the colon - Squamous carcinoma of the tongue |
Pancreatic carcinoma
|
|
|
Asymptomatic carriers are a mjor hazard of which of the following?
- Plague - Shigellosis - Salmonellosis - Typhoid fever - Legionnaire's disease |
Typhoid fever
|
|
|
Acid phosphatase is elevated in which of the following malignancies?
- Multiple myeloma - Carcinoma of the breast - Squamous cell carcinoma - Carcinoma of the thyroid - Metastatic carcinoma of the prostate |
Metastatic carcinoma of the prostate
|
|
|
Which of the following is correct for obligate anaerobic microorganisms in the oral cavity?
- They do not exist in this area - Only gram positive organisms are found - They are normal flora and opportunistic - They are seldom isolated in the laboratory - They can be completely controlled by using antibiotics |
They are normal flora and opportunistic
|
|
|
Malignant epithelial cells have an increased number and wider distribution of which of the following receptors?
- IL 1 - Laminin - Histamine - Complement - Immunoglobulin |
Laminin
|
|
|
Each of the following is a risk factor in atherosclerosis except one. Which one is this exception?
- Heredity - Alcoholism - Hypertension - Diabetes mellitus - Hyperlipoproteinemia |
Alcoholism
|
|
|
Which of the following is the single most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity?
- Enterococci - Staphylococci - Anaerobic streptococci - Facultative streptococci - Beta hemolytic streptococci |
Facultative streptococci
|
|
|
Each of the following characterizes a chlamydial infection except one. Which one is this exception?
- Large numbers of asymptomatic carriers - Frequent coinfection with gonorrhea - The ability of the organism to survive in the host extracellularly - The greater likelihood that younger women will acquire salpingitis |
The ability of the organism to survive in the host extracellularly
|
|
|
An autosomal dominant trait showing 50% penetrance will be phenotypically expressed in what percent of the offspring?
- 0 - 25 - 33 - 50 - 75 |
25
|
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Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection differs from influenza infections in that:
- RSV can be treated with amantadine - RSV causes disease primarily in infants - Influenza virus is difficult to transmit - RSV can be prevented with effective vaccines - Secretory IgA is not effective in preventing disease |
RSV causes disease primarily in infants
|
|
|
Which of the following represents the most common source of pulmonary embolism?
- Esophageal varices - Endarteritis - Lymphangitis - Buerger's disease - Thrombophlebitis |
Thrombophlebitis
|
|
|
Aflatoxin is produced by:
- Mucor - Candida - Tricophyton - Penicillum - Aspergillus |
Aspergillus
|
|
|
Which of the following conditions predisposes to lung cancer by causing squamous metaplasia of bronchial epithelium?
- Bronchiectasis - Bronchial asthma - Chronic bronchitis - Bronchial carcinoid - Pulmonary emphysema |
Chronic bronchitis
|
|
|
The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced by which of the following?
- An increase in salivary hyaluronidase - An increased number of bacteria in saliva - An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva - A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque |
A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque
|
|
|
In addition to Neisseria meningitidis which of the following is a significant cause of meningitis?
- Streptococcus faecalis - Streptococcus pyogenes - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Staphylococcus auerus - Staphylococcus epidermidis |
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
|
Which of the following are most antigenic?
- Lipids - Haptens - Proteins - Nucleic acids - Carbohydrates |
Proteins
|
|
|
Which of the following characterizes victims of fatal, acute carbon monoxide poisoning?
- Cherry red blood - Acute renal failure - Massive liver necrosis - A hypercoaguability state - Anemia and generalized white cell depletion |
Cherry red blood
|
|
|
Which of the following represents the chief complication of mumps in the adult male?
- Orchitis - Prostatis - Glomerulonephritis - Chronic nonspecific sialadenitis |
Orchitis
|
|
|
A fungus that causes systemic disease, most commonly of the lungs, and is characterized by its production of tuberculate chlamydospores in cluture is:
- Microsporum canis - Mycoplasma hominis - Leptospira pomona - Actinomyces israelii - Histoplasma capsulatum |
Histoplasma hominis
|
|
|
Which of the following genera is most likely involved in bacilliary dysentery?
- Vibrio - Shigella - Entamoeba - Salmonella - Escherichieae |
Shigella
|
|
|
Prostacyclin and thromboxane are products of which pathway?
- Complement cascade - Cyclooxygenase - Lipoxygenase - Fibrinolytic |
Cyclooxygenase
|
|
|
The most important viral cause of gastroenteritis in children less than 2 years old is:
- rotavirus - echovirus - rhinovirus - coxsackievirus - cytomegalovirus |
rotavirus
|
|
|
Most bacterial endotoxins are composed of which of the following?
- Pure proteins - Pure carbohydrates - Heteropolysaccharides - Mucoprotein complexes - Lipoprotein polysaccharide complexes |
Lipoprotein polysaccharide complexes
|
|
|
Which of the following is the principle factor underlying localized edema in inflammation?
- Lyphatic obstruction - Obstruction of venous outflow - Reduced intravascular osmotic pressure - Protein leakage into tissue spaces - Increased capillary permeability |
Increased capillary permeability
|
|
|
The most common source of massive hematemesis in alcoholics is (are):
- peptic ulcer - acute gastritis - esophageal varices - Mallory Weiss syndrome - acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis |
esophageal varices
|
|
|
A 17-year-old patient has periodontitis involving the anterior teeth with sparse plaque. Which of the following is the probable primary pathogen?
- Actinobacillus actinomycetemocomitans - Bacteroides forsythus - Fusobacterium nucleatum - Porphyromonas gingivalis - Prevotella intermedia |
Actinobacilus actinomycetemcomitans
|
|
|
Which of the following represents the most reliable postmortem indicator of left ventricular cardiac failure?
- Ascites - Venous congestion - Enlargement of the spleen - Peripheral edema of the ankles - Chronic passive congestion of the lungs |
Chronic passive congestion of the lungs
|
|
|
Which of the following represents the most frequent cause of a clinically palpable breast mass in an adult woman?
- Sarcoma - Fibroadenoma - Adenosarcoma - Fibrocystic disease - Intraductal papilloma |
Fibrocystic disease
|
|
|
Which of the following describes the function of adjuvants?
- Enhance secretion of IgA - Enhance antibody response - Stimulate complement synthesis - Desensitize to a given antigen - Activate mast cell degranulation |
Enhance antibody response
|
|
|
A patient lapses into a state of fluctuating levels of consciousness or coma several hours after sustaining blunt trauma to the head. This finding is consistent with which of the following conditions?
- Subdural hematoma - Cerebral concussion - Cerebral infarction - Acute encephalitis - Alzheimer's disease |
Subdural hematoma
|
|
|
Which chemical substance is usually secreted by pheochromocytomas?
- Catecholamine - Aldosterone - Cortisone - Insulin - Renin |
Catecholamine
|
|
|
Rubella and toxoplasmosis are similar in that both:
- are potentially teratogenic - primarily affect the elderly - are prevented by vaccinations - have non human animal reservoirs - can not be treated with antibiotics |
are potentially teratogenic
|
|
|
Which of the following prevent(s) synthesis of peptidoglycans?
- Lysozymes - Penicillin - Tetracyclines - Erythromycin - Teichoic acids |
Penicillin
|
|
|
Which of the following is most likely to cause a sudden arrest of heart function?
- Mitral stenosis - Angina pectoris - Constrictive pericarditis - Cardiac tamponade |
Cardiac tamponade
|
|
|
If a bacteria were susceptible to both penicillin and erythromycin, then it would not be appropriate to treat the patients with both antibiotics at the same time because:
- penicillin is inactivated by erythromycin - erythromycin exerts its effect extracellularly - erythromycin enhances beta lacatamase activity - erythromycin is primarily an antifungal agent - penicillin is only effective against drowning cells |
penicillin is only effective against drowning cells
|
|
|
Which of the following represents a DNA gyrase inhibitor with a broad spectrum of activity?
- Polymyxin - Rifampicin - Ethambutol - Cycloserine - Ciprofloxacin |
Ciprofloxacin
|
|
|
Which of the following best describes the similarity between Steptococcus pneumoniae and Cryptococcus neoformans?
- Commonly found in soil samples - Readily prevented by a vaccine - Readily treated by teteacycline - Antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsules |
Antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsules
|
|
|
The presence of which of the following in a patient's serum affords protection against hepatitis B?
- Anti HBcAg - Anti HBaAg - Anti HAV - Anti HBaAg |
Anti HBaAg
|
|
|
Which of the following do striated muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle have in common?
- Hyperplasia of these elements is common - They have a limited capacity to generate - Hypertrophy is a common response to injury - They need a constant high O2 concentration to function |
They have a limited capacity to regenerate
|
|
|
A deficiency in which of the following cells can predispose to candidiasis?
- Basophils - Eosinophils - Macrophages - Plasma cells - T lymphocytes |
T lymphocytes
|
|
|
T lymphocytes are most directly involved in which of the following?
- Immediate hypersensitivity - Immune complex injury - Complement synthesis - Contact dermatitis - Antibody formation |
Contact dermititis
|
|
|
Cerebral embolism occuring as a complication of myocardial infarction is most indicative of which of the following?
- Mural thrombosis - Phlebothrombosis - Decreased stroke volume - Lack of collateral circulation - Disseminated intravascular coagulation |
Mural thrombosis
|
|
|
Natural killer cells capable of destroying malignant cells must be first activated with which of the following?
- IL 2 - Kinin - Tryposin - Complement - Histamine |
IL 2
|
|
|
The major carcinogenic property of Streptococcus mutans is associated with its ability to produce which of the following enzymes?
- Hyaluronidase - Chondroitinase - Aminopeptidase - Glucosyltransferase - Fructosyltransferase |
Glucosyltransferase
|
|
|
The oral lesions of herpangina can often be distinguished from hand foot and mouth disease by which of the following?
- Their physical appearance - Their intraoral locations - Their density and number - Their gradual confluence |
Their intraoral locations
|
|
|
Interleukin 1 and tumor necrosis factor in inflammation are produced by which of the following?
- Platelets - Mast cells - Lymphocytes - Plasma cells - Activated macrophages |
Activated macrophages
|
|
|
A viremia is characterized by which of the following?
- Infected cells are transformed - Infected cells are no longer releasing virus - The virus is most easily spread via gastrointestinal secretions - The virus is most susceptible to circulating antibodies |
The virus is most susceptible to circulating antibodies
|
|
|
Int he process of necrosis, a reduction in the size of the nucleus and a condensation of nuclear material is known as:
- pyknosis - karyolysis - karyorrhexis - metachromatism - hyperchromatism |
pyknosis
|
|
|
In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies are directed against which of the following structures?
- Sarcomere - Myofascia - Myocyte nucleus - Sarcolemmal membrane - Acetylcholine receptor |
Acetylcholine receptor
|
|
|
Each of the following represents a common opportunistic infection associated with HIV except one. Which one is this exception?
- Candidiasis - Hairy leukoplakia - Adenovirus conjunctivitis - Cryptosporidium entercolitis - Pneumocystic cannii pneumonia |
Adenovirus conjunctivitis
|
|
|
Acute biliary obstruction produces a rise in:
- urobilinogen in urine - urobilinogen in stool - conjugated bilirubin in urine - conjugated bilirubin in serum - unconjugated bilirubin in serum |
conjugated bilirubin in serum
|
|
|
Which of the following is the usual cause of chronic pyelonephritis?
- Systemic hypertension - Type IV hypersensitivity - Chronic glomerulonephritis - Bacteremic seeding of the kidneys - Infection resulting from urinary reflux |
Infection resulting from urinary influx
|
|
|
If serial dilutions of human saliva are inoculated on blood agar plates, then incubated in air for 24 hours at 37ºC, which of the following groups of microorganisms will grow in the greatest number?
|
Streptococcus
|
|
|
High levels of Porphyromonas gingivalis-specific antibodies are seen in most of the serum samples from patients with adult periodontitis. These antibodies are which of the following?
- IgM - IgG - IgE - IgA - IgD |
IgG
|
|
|
Excessive deposits of copper in liver cells, degenerative changes in the brain, and a greenish-brown ring at the outer margin of the cornea characterize which of the following?
- Galactosemia - Phenylketonuria - Wilson's disease - Diabetes mellitus - Tay Sachs disease |
Wilson's disease
|
|
|
Most antibiotic resistance in bacteria is caused by which of the following?
- Genes that are carried on plasmids - Depression of a previously existing gene pool - An ever increasing mutation rate in bacteria - Unequal distribution of antibiotics into body spaces - Induction of specific mutations by specific antibiotics |
Genes that are carried on plasmids
|
|
|
Which of the following is the first inflammatory cell to appear in large numbers at the site of injured tissue?
- Macrophage - Plasma cell - Neutrophil - Lymphocyte - Monocyte |
Neutrophil
|
|
|
Which of the following is an antimicrobial agent that primarily inactivates cellular DNA?
- Phenols - Chlorhexidine - Ethylene oxide - 70% isopropyl alcohol - Alkaline glutaraldehyde |
Ethylene oxide
|
|
|
Which of the following is most resistant to sterilizing conditions?
- Oral yeast - Hepatitis B virus - Bacterial endospore - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Human immunodeficiency virus |
Bacterial endospore
|
|
|
Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are generally:
- motile - sensitive to H2O2 - able to ferment lactate - resistant to penicillin - producers of O2 and H2O from H2O2 |
sensitive to H2O2
|
|
|
A 6-year-old boy has minute white specks on the oral mucosa adjacent to his first molars. A bluish-red ring surrounds these spots. He appears to have a cold and his eyes are red and runny. There is a blotchy reddish rash behind his ears and on his face. This child has which of the following?
- Eczema - Measles - Chickenpox - Scarlet fever |
Measles
|
|
|
In anemia resulting from drug-induced bone marrow suppression, the peripheral blood smear shows erythrocytes to be:
- hypochromic microcytic - hypochromic normocytic - normochromic normocytic - normochromic microcytic - hyperchromic macrocytic |
normochromic normocytic
|
|
|
A hemorrhagic tendency is seldom seen in which of the following conditions?
- Scurvy - Acute leukemia - Renal insufficiency - Hepatic insufficiency - Secondary thrombocytopenia |
Renal insufficiency
|
|
|
In which of the following is the largest amount of genetic information transferred from one cell to another?
- F duction - Conjugation - Transduction - Transformation - Recombination |
Conjugation
|
|
|
In a dry-heat overn, which of the following temperatures is sufficienct for achieving sterilization in 1-2 hours?
- 81ºC - 100ºC - 121ºC - 160ºC |
160ºC
|
|
|
Which of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in bacteria?
- Nucleus - Ribosome - Cytoplasm - Cell membrane - Mitochondrion |
Cell membrane
|
|
|
The spores of Bacillus anthracis are destroyed by:
- refrigerating (-7ºC for 48 hours) - autoclaving (121ºC for 20 minutes) - pasteurizing (61.7ºC for 30 minutes) - immersing in boiling water (100ºC for 10 minutes) - placing in a hot air oven (121ºC for 20 minutes) |
autoclaving (121ºC for 20 minutes)
|
|
|
Congestion in the early stages of inflammation is caused by which of the following?
- Ischemia - Venous dilation - Active hyperemia - Venous constriction - Lymphatic constriction |
Active hyperemia
|
|
|
The finding of yeast cells and chlamydospores in the oral mucosa suggests which of the following?
- Candida albicans - Histoplasma capsulatum - Blastomyces dermatitidis - Cryptococcus neoformans - Trichophyton mentagrophytes |
Candida albicans
|
|
|
Which of the following kinds of mutations is caused by base analogues?
- Deletions - Inversions - Frameshifts - Transitions - Transversions |
Transitions
|
|
|
Which of the following acids is the chief product of carbohydrate metabolism of Streptococcus mutans?
- Acetic - Formic - Lactic - Butyric - Propionic |
Lactic
|
|
|
Which of the following organisms represents a significant secondary invader of carious lesions?
- Bacillus subtilis - Lactobacillus casei - Streptococcus mutans - Staphylococcus auerus |
Lactobacillus casei
|
|
|
Inflammatory vasodilation can be evoked by each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Renin - Histamine - C3 and C5 - Bradykinin - Prostaglandins |
Renin
|
|
|
The histamine that is released by mast cells is responsible for the principal symptoms of which of the following?
- Delayed hypersensitivity - Tuberculin reaction - Contact dermatitis - Arthus reaction - Anaphylaxis |
Anaphylaxis
|
|
|
Which of the following noeplasms appears the most often in children?
- Neuroblastoma - Chondrosarcoma - Adenosarcoma - Multiple myeloma - Basal cell carcinoma |
Neuroblastoma
|
|
|
When horse serum is injected intravenously into a rabbit and again into the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs at the site of the second injection?
- Atopy - Anaphylaxis - Serum sickness - Arthus phenomenon - Prausnitz Kustner reaction |
Arthus phenomenon
|
|
|
Laboratory studies reveal megaloblasts in bone marrow, and a hyperchromic, macrocytic anemia in peripheral blood. Oral examination reveals atrophic gastritis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
- Iron deficiency - Chronic external loss of blood - Frequent episodes of hemolysis - Inhibition of hematopoiesis by sulfonamides - Inability of the stomach to form intrinsic factor |
Inability of the stomach to form intrinsic factor
|
|
|
Gout results from a metabolic defect in which of the following?
- Fat - Purine - Pigment - Glucose - Calcium |
Purine
|
|
|
Which of the following viral-associated enzymes is unique to RNA tumor viruses?
- Neuramidase - Capping enzyme - Reverse transcriptase - DNA dependent RNA polymerase |
Reverse transcriptase
|
|
|
Which of the following bowel diseases is characterized by noncaseating granulomatous inflammation in the gut wall?
- Diverticulitis - Peptic ulcer - Ulcerative colitis - Celiac disease - Crohn's disease |
Crohn's disease
|
|
|
Each of the following cells is an antigen-specific cell except one. Which one is this exception?
- B cells - Macrophages - T helper cells - Langerhans cells - Dendritic cells |
T helper cells
|
|
|
Streptococcus pyogenes, group A, is subdivided into specific antigenic types principally on the basis of immunologic differences in its:
- M protein - streptolysin O - streptolysin S - C polysaccharide - hyaluronic acid capsule |
M protein
|
|
|
Which of the following bacterial exotoxins converts plasminogen to plasmin?
- M protein - Coagulase - Plasmalysin - Hyaluronidase - Streptokinase |
Streptokinase
|
|
|
Which of the following is the least likely complication of nodular prostatic hyperplasia?
- Dysuria - Hydronephrosis - Pyelonephritis - Development of carcinoma - Urinary tract obstruction |
Development of carcinoma
|
|
|
A positive tuberculin test always indicates which of the following?
- Active tuberculosis - Chronic tuberculosis - No exposure to tuberculosis - Hypersensitivity to tuberculoproteins |
Hypersensitivity to tuberculoproteins
|
|
|
An endocrine disorder affecting the skeleton and kidney, that promotes metastatic calcification, is:
- hyperadrenalism - hyperthyroidism - hyperpituitarism - hyperparathyroidism - hyperfunction of the thymus |
hyperparathyroidism
|
|
|
Which of the following tumors is of connective tissue origin?
- Myxoma - Adenoma - Melanoma - Carcinoma - Papilloma |
Myxoma
|
|
|
A 53-year-old patient has an indurated, chronic ulcer neat the inner canthus. The most likely diagnosis is:
- verruca vulgaris - malignant melanoma - basal cell carcinoma - squamous cell carcinoma - adenocarcinoma of the lacrimal duct |
basal cell carcinoma
|
|
|
Eosinophils are characteristically seen in which of the following conditions?
- Bacterial infections - Viral infections - Fungal infections - Parasitic infections |
Parasitic infections
|
|
|
Bone pain, osteolytic lesions, plasma cell infiltration of marrow and synthesis of abnormal immunoglobulins describe:
- systemic lupus erythematosus - selective IgA deficiency - polyclonal gammopathy - Paget's disease of bone - multiple myeloma |
multiple myeloma
|
|
|
Which of the following characterizes edema associated with the nephrotic syndrome?
- Polyuria - Hematuria - Hyperlipidemia - Hypoalbuminemia - Hypoprothrobinemia |
Hypoalbuminemia
|
|
|
Blood in the sputum is characteristic of each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Emphysema - Tuberculosis - Lobar pneumonia - Pulmonary embolism - Bronchogenic carcinoma |
Emphysema
|
|
|
The majority of cases of pharyngitis are caused by:
- alpha hemolytic streptococci - Staphylococcus aureus - a variety of viruses - herpes simplex virus - hemophilus influenzae |
a variety of viruses
|
|
|
Hypersensitivity to M. Tuberculosis is manifested by which of the following?
- Necrosis - Exudation - Epithelioid cells - Langerhans giant cells - Spreading of the initial focus |
Necrosis
|
|
|
Administration of tetanus toxoid provides what type of immunity?
- Innate - Natural active - Natural passive - Artificial active - Artificial passive |
Artificial active
|
|
|
Which of the following represents the most potent carcinogen?
- Estrogen - Benzpyrene - Folic acid - Cholic acid |
Benzpyrene
|
|
|
The most important characteristic of malignant neoplasms, which distinguishes them from benign neoplasms, is their:
- nonencapsulation - rapid growth rate - ability to metastasize - lack of differentiation - excessive mitotic activity |
ability to metastasize
|
|
|
Which of the following conditions increase the risk of developing osteosarcoma?
- Osteomalacia - Osteoporosis - Osteoblastoma - Osteitis deformans - Osteogenesis imperfecta |
Osteitis deformans
|
|
|
Which of the following components of Staphylococcus is antiphagocytic, elicits hypersensitivity, and causes platelet injury?
- Protein A - Coagulase - Beta toxin - Teichoic acid - Polysaccharide capsule |
Protein A
|
|
|
Each of the following is a histologic feature of malignant growth except one. Which one is this exception?
- Aplasia - Anaplasia - Pleomorphism - Hyperchromatism - Abnormal mitosis |
Aplasia
|
|
|
Immunologic resistance to most intracellular pathogens is manifested as which of the following?
- Lymphoid atrophy - Humoral immunity - Cellular immunity - Wheal and flare reactions - Non specific serum protection |
Cellularity
|
|
|
The primary sources of pathogenic microorganisms in the dental operatory are:
- light handles - dust particles - patients' charts - the mouths of patients - the hands of clinicians |
the mouths of patients
|
|
|
A disease of childhood characterized by mental retardation, delayed growth, and delayed tooth eruption is associated with a deficiency of:
- oxytocin - growth hormone - thyroid hormone - testicular hormone - mineralocorticoids |
thyroid hormone
|
|
|
During delayed hypersensitivity reactions, sensitized small lymphocytes produce:
- antibodies - histamine - lymphokines - leukotrienes - none of these |
lymphokines
|
|
|
The class of antibodies first detected in serum after primary immunization is usually:
- IgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - IgM |
IgM
|
|
|
The rickettsial disease that may have oral manifestations is:
- rickettsialpox - Brill's disease - epidemic typhus - none of these |
rickettsialpox
|
|
|
The ability of certain oral microorganisms to function as etiologic agents of dental caries appears to be correlated with the capacity of these organisms to produce:
- proteolytic enzymes capable of hydrolyzing salivary proteins - capsules that inhibit the activity of phagocytic cells present in saliva - carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme active in decreasing the CO2 content of saliva - an extracellular polysaccharide dextranlike substance involved in the formation of dental plaque |
an extracellular polysaccharide dextranlike substance involved in the formation of dental plaque
|
|
|
Which of the following is formed in large quantities during the degradation of glucose by homofermentative Streptococcus mutans?
- Mannitol - Lactic acid - Acetic acid - Butyric acid - Propionic acid |
Lactic acid
|
|
|
Adenocarcinomas of the large intestine are most common in which segment?
- Ascending colon - Transverse colon - Descending colon - Rectosigmoid colon |
Rectosigmoid colon
|
|
|
Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to be cultured from chronic, bilateral ulcerations at the corners of the mouth?
- Candida - Brucella - Treponema - Aspergillus - Histoplasma - Trichophyton |
Candida
|
|
|
The most likely source of bacteria found in diseased periodontal tissue is:
- serum - saliva - subgingival plaque - supragingival plaque |
subgingival plaque
|
|
|
Keloids are composed predominantly of:
- adipose tissue - collagen fibers - granulation tissue - caseous necrotic debris |
collagen fibers
|
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Collagen degradation observed in chronic periodontal disease may result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of:
- Bacteroides species - Leptothrix buccalis - Entamoeba gingivalis - Streptococcus faecalis - Veillonella alcalescens |
Bacteroides species
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The alteration of Corynebacterium diphtheriae to a virulent strain by the transfer of DNA temperate bacteriophage is:
- mutation - sexduction - conjugation - recombination - lysogenic conversion |
lysogenic conversion
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The best evidence for a causal relationship between a nasal carrier of staphylococci and a staphylococcal infection in a hospital patient is the demonstration that the organisms from both individuals:
- are coagulase positive - are penicillin resistant - are of the same phage type - are aureus type staphylococcis - produce hemolysis, liquefy gelatin, and ferment mannitol |
are of the same phage type
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In which of the following is delayed type hypersensitivity demonstrated?
- Anaphylaxis - Wheal and flare - Passive transfer of antibody - Positive tuberculin skin test |
Positive tuberculin skin test
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Sterilization of surgical instruments that are sensitive to heat can be accomplished by using:
- phenol - an autoclave - ethyl alcohol - ethylene oxide |
ethylene oxide
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An embolus originating as a thrombus in the femoral vein usually occludes a blood vessel in the:
- lung - brain - liver - kidney |
lung
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In skin graft rejection, the major host response is:
- an Arthus reaction - a Shwartzman reaction - a cell mediated reaction - passive cutaneous anaphylaxis |
a cell mediated reaction
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Lecithinases are produced by:
- Bacillus anthracis - Clostridium perfringens - Salmonella schottmulleri - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Corynebacterium diphtheriae |
Clostridium perfringens
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Which of the following diseases is caused by an agent that produces neither exotoxins nor endotoxins?
- Cholera - Gonorrhea - Brucellosis - Gas gangrene - Tuberculosis |
Tuberculosis
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The oral vesicular lesions of herpangina and hand-foot-and-mouth disease are caused by:
- coxsackievirus - Epstein Barr virus - herpes simplex virus - varicella zoster virus - respiratory synctial virus |
coxsackievirus
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Disseminated miliary tuberculosis results from spread of the tubercle bacillus by way of:
- the lymphatics - the bloodstream - the air passages - direct extension - none of these |
the bloodstream
|
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Progressive massive fibrosis of the lung is characteristic of:
- silicosis - anthracosis - actinomycosis - hemosiderosis - bronchiectasis |
silicosis
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Bacteremias in patients with heart valve abnormalities may result in:
- scarlet fever - rheumatic fever - Ludwig's angina - infective endocarditis - streptococcal pharyngitis |
infective endocarditis
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Shock during infection with gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused by:
- an exotoxin - an endotoxin - ribonuclease - a capsular antigen - a flagellar antigen |
an endotoxin
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The most common type of epithelial metaplasia involves:
- regeneration of epithelium in an area of cutaneous ulceration - replacement of squamous cells by cuboidal cells - replacement of columnar cells by stratified squamous epithelium |
replacment of columnar cells by stratified squamous epithelium
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Which of the following is typically elevated in the serum of patients with prostate cancer?
- Acid phosphatase - Alpha fetoprotein - Alkaline phosphatase - Carcinoembryonic antigen |
Acid phosphatase
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Which of the following are most characteristic of cervicofacial actinomycosis?
- Multiple ulcers - Enlarged cervical lymph nodes - Multiple cutaneous abscesses with sinuses - Indurated nodules in the skin of the neck |
Multiple cutaneous abscesses with sinuses
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Which of the following viruses is strongly associated with Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
- Adenovirus - Cytomegalovirus - Epstein Barr virus - Herpes simplex virus type I - Herpes simplex virus type II |
Epstein Barr virus
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If a susceptible person were given tetanus antitoxin, what kind of immunity would result?
- Innate - Natural active - Natural passive - Artificial active - Artificial passive |
Artificial passive
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Aspiration of materia from carious teeth may cause:
- lung abscess - tuberculosis - lobar pneumonia - bronchopneumonia - interstitial pneumonia |
lung abscess
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Sterilization refers to which of the following?
- Absence of all living forms - Inhibition of bacterial growth - Removal of pathogenic bacteria only - Removal of pathogenic bacteria, viruses, and fungi |
Absence of all living forms
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For the majority of individuals, the initial infection with herpes simplex virus results in:
- genital herpes - a subclinical disease - herpes labialis in puberty - a dermal rash in childhood - encephalitis as a young adult |
a subclinical disease
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Which of the following disease exhibits a normal prothrombin time with a prolonged partial thromboplastin time?
- Leukemia - Afibrinoginemia - Chronic liver disease - Athrombocytopenic purpura - Factor VIII deficiency (hemophilia) |
Factor VIII deficiency (hemophilia)
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Cytopathogenic effect in tissue culture cells is used specifically for identification of certain:
- fungi - viruses - anaerobes - spirochetes - spore formers |
viruses
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The complement system may be activated:
- at C1 and C3 - only by way of C1 - by interferon during viral infection - by activation of any of the nine components - only when body temperature exceeds 101.6ñF |
at C1 and C3
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Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to which of the following nerves?
- Optic - Facial - Auditory - Trigeminal |
Auditory
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Which of the following is a demyelinating disease of the central nervous system?
- Multiple sclerosis - Alzheimer's disease - Parkinson's disease - Creutzfeldt Jakob disease |
Multiple sclerosis
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Bacterial capsules usually consist of:
- chitins - celluloses - polypeptides - polysaccharides |
polysaccharides
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The observations that typify hemolytic anemias are elevated:
- conjugated bilirubin, kernicterus, and choluria - conjugate bilirubin, kernicterus, and elevated urine urobilinogen - unconjugated bilirubin, kernicterus, and elevated urine urobilinogen - unconjugated bilirubin, decreased blood hemoglobin, and absent urine urobilinogen |
unconjugated bilirubin, kernicterus, and elevated urine urobilinogen
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The process of gene transfer between bacterial cells that involve the uptake of naked DNA molecules is:
- conversion - transversion - transduction - transfection - transformation |
transformation
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The type of infection most commonly transmitted by transfusion of properly screen blood is:
- cytomegalovirus - type A hepatitis - type B hepatitis - non A non B hepatitis |
non A non B hepatitis
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Which type of chromosome is usually missing from the cells of persons with Turner's syndrome?
- An autosome - Chromosome 21 - A sex chromosome - A "ring" chromosome - A Group A chromosome |
A sex chromosome
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Increased functional demand on the heart produces increased size of the myocardium by:
- hyperplasia - hypertrophy - calcification - fatty infiltration - increased amounts of fibrous connective tissue |
hypertrophy
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Esophageal varices are a common complication of:
- portal hypertension - primary hypertension - mesenteric thrombosis - carcinoma of the esophagus |
portal hypertension
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On the basis of histogenesis and transitions observed in clinical cases, there appears to be a relationship between lymphocytic lymphoma and:
- lymphadenitis - lymphoepithelioma - lymphocytic leukemia - lymphocytic leukocytosis |
lymphadenitis
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The bacterial population in the gingival sulcus or the pocket that influences the course of periodontal disease involves:
- mostly aerobic bacteria - essentially a pure culture - bacteria not indigenous to the oral cavity - essentially the same organisms found in the healthy sulcus |
essentially the same organisms found in the healthy sulcus
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Classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal Factor VIII which in turn is due to a genetic deficiency that is:
- parially dominant - autosomal dominant - autosomal recessive - sex linked dominant - sex linked recessive |
sex linked recessive
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|
A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant neoplasm derived from:
- the nerve tissue - the blood vessels - smooth muscle tissue - striated muscle tissue - fat and fibrous tissue |
striated muscle tissue
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Which of the following drugs is likely to aid in treating or preventing influenza in high risk subjects during epidemics?
- Acyclovir - Amantadine - Griseofulvin - Stilbamidine - Amphotericin B |
Amantadine
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A reduction in acid secretion by the stomach, an increased tendency toward gastric carcinoma, atrophic glossitis, and myelin degeneration in the spinal cord are characteristic of:
- thalassemia - agranulocytosis - sickle cell anemia - pernicious anemia - polycythemia vera |
pernicious anemia
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Histamine release from mast cell requires:
- antibodies (IgE) attached to mast cells and reacting with antigen - antigen attached to mast cells and reacting with antibody - antibodies (IgE) attached to mast cells, but no reaction with antigen - antigen attached to mast cells, but no reaction with antibody |
antibodies (IgE) attached to mast cells, but no reaction with antigen
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Squamous epithelium exhibiting acanthosis, disorganization of pattern and atypical cells without invasion is diagnostic of:
- dysplasia - neoplasia - metaplasia - hypoplasia - prosoplasia |
dysplasia
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Antiseptics differ from disinfetants in that antiseptics:
- sterilize - kill pathogens - are bactericidal only - are bacteriostatic only - are applied to living tissues |
are applied to living tissues
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As opposed to lobar pneumonia, bronchopneumonia is characterized grossly and microscopically by:
- inflammation of a bronchus - organization of alveolar exudate - a patchy, inflammatory distribution - a diffuse, inflammatory distribution |
a patchy, inflammatory distribution
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In children, the bones become bowed in rickets because of failure of:
- osteoblasts to develop - osteoid tissue to calcify - osteoid tissue to form - cartilage matrix to form |
osteoid tissue to calcify
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Which of the following is the best description of the characteristic lesion of chronic granulomatous inflammation?
- A localized collection of liquefied cellular debris and dead or dying neutrophils - A diffuse collection of liquefied cellular debris and dead or dying neutrophils - A localized area of inflamed connective tissue exposed to the environment as a result of denuding of the overlying epithelium - A circumscribed collection of lymphocytes, macrophages, and epithelioid cells with a background of fibroblasts, capillaries, and delicate collagen fibers |
A circumscribed collection of lymphocytes, macrophages, and epithelioid cells, with a background of fibroblasts, capillaries, and delicate collagen fibers
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Which of the following is the single most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity?
- Enterococci - Anaerobic streptococci - Facultative streptococci - Beta hemolytic streptococci |
Facultative streptococci
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In which of the following mycotic infections are the organisms characteristically found within reticuloendothelial cells?
- Candidiasis - Aspergillosis - Blastomycosis - Histoplasmosis |
Histoplasmosis
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Which of the following genera most frequently develops resistance to penicillin?
- Neisseria - Treponema - Actinomyces - Streptococcus - Staphylococcus |
Staphylococcus
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The earliest changes in rheumatoidarthritis occur in the:
- synovia - epiphysis - attached ligaments - articular cartilage |
synovia
|
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The disease characterized by radiolucent bone lesions, anemia, hypergammaglobulinemia, and one or more bone marrow tumors containing predominantly plasma cells is:
- leukemia - thalassemia - multiple myeloma - Hodgkin's disease - pernicious anemia - sickle cell disease |
multiple myeloma
|
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Multinucleated giant cells of the foreign-body type originate from:
- nuclear division of granulocytes - atypical regeneration of epithelium - bone marrow with migration into the area - multiplication of nuclei in surrounding fibrocytes - fusion or nuclear division of mononuclear cells |
fusion or nuclear division of mononuclear cells
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Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?
- Decreased albumin - Decreased serum amylase - Elevated serum lipase - Elevated serum amylase - Elevated alkaline phosphatase |
Elevated serum lipase
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|
Infection of the kidney is usually caused by:
- septic emboli - bacteria in the bloodstream - traumatic introduction of bacteria - bacteria ascending from the lower urinary tract - bacteria from the large boewl migrating to the kidney through retropeitoneal lymphatics |
bacteria ascending from the lower urinary tract
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Which of the following forms of oral ulcerations involves oral, ocular, and genital lesions?
- Behcet's - Herpetiform - Recurrent aphthous - None of these |
Behcet's
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Which of the following cardiac disorders is subject to infective endocarditis secondary to a bacteremia from oral microorganisms?
(a) Tetralogy of Fallot (b) Congenital aortic stenosis (c) Patent ductus arteriosus (d) Ventricular septal defect - a, b, c - a, b, d - a, c, d - b, c, d - a, b, c, d |
a, b, c, d
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Which of the following oral bacteria are aciduric?
(a) Lactobacillus casei (b) Actinomyces viscosus (c) Streptococcus mutans (d) Streptococcus salivarius - a and b - a and c - a and d - b and c - b and d - c and d |
a and c
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Which of the following malignant bone tumors are likely to be encountered in children or young adults?
(a) Myeloma (b) Liposarcoma (c) Ewing's sarcoma (d) Osteogenic sarcoma (e) Metastatic carcinoma - a, c - a, c, e - b, c, d - c, d - c, d, e - d, e |
c, d
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Seeding of transplantation metastasis is likely in carcinomas of the:
(a) skin (b) ovary (c) tongue (d) stomach (e) large bowel - a, b, d - a, c, e - a, d, e - b, c, d - b, d, e |
b, d, e
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The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine does not play a major role is:
- asthma - urticaria - anaphylaxis - Arthus reaction |
Arthus reaction
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Which of the following enteric microorganisms is not typically found in normal human intestinal flora?
- Escherichia coli - Salmonella typhi - Proteus vulgaris - Bacteroides fragilis - Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
Salmonella typhi
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A persistent infection may be caused by any of the following viruses except:
- rhinovirus - papilloma virus - cytomegalovirus - herpes simplex virus - varicella zoster virus |
rhinovirus
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Each of the following diseases has painless hematuria as a common early clinical sign except:
- acute diffuse glomerulonephritis - carcinoma of the bladder - focal glomerulonephritis - renal cell carcinoma - nephrolithiasis |
nephrolithiasis
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Each of the following is useful in identifying viruses except the:
- nature of the viral nucleic acid - morphology of the viral protein capsid - ability of the virus to grow on complex media - neutralization of the virus with specific antisera - ability of the virus to be inactivated by certain solvents, such as ether or chloroform |
ability of the virus to grow on complex media
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Common airborne fungi that cause opportunistic infections in debilitated individuals include all of the following except:
- Candida - Rhizopus - Aspergillus - Cryptococcus |
Candida
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Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can directly infect all of the following cells except:
- neurons - macrophages - CD4 (helper) lymphocytes - CD8 (suppressor) lymphocytes |
CD8 (suppressor) lymphocytes
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Which of the following is not a component of the body's non-specific defense mechanism?
- Lysozyme - Properdin - Interferon - Complement - Fibrinolysin |
Fibrinolysin
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Which of the following has the least capacity for regeneration?
- Bone - Cardiac muscle - Liver parenchyma - Squamous epithelium - Fibrous connective tissue |
Cardiac muscle
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Which of the following is not characteristic of plasmids?
- Confer conjugal fertility - Carry genetic information - Exist as circular RNA molecules - Exist as extrachromosomal elements in bacteria |
Exist as circular RNA molecules
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Supparation is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors. Which of the following is not one of these factors?
- Necrosis - Presence of lymphocytes - Collection of neutrophils - Accumulation of tissue fluid - Autolysis by proteolytic enzymes |
Presence of lymphocytes
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Which of the following is not characteristic of carcinoma in situ?
- Pleomorphism - Disorderly maturation - Hyperchromatic nucleus - Disruption of the basement membrane |
Disruption of the basement membrane
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Jaundice is characteristic of all of the following conditions except:
- aplastic anemia - liver cell damage - excessive hemolysis - bile duct obstruction - carcinoma of the head of the pancreas |
aplastic anemia
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Which of the following factors has the greatest impact on prognosis of a skin melanoma?
- Site of origin - Depth of invasion - Degree of pigmentation - Existence of ulceration - Size of surface area involved |
Depth of invasion
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The most common cause of a massive hematemesis in alcoholics is:
- peptic ulcer - acute gastritis - esophageal varices - Mallory Weiss syndrome - acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis |
esophageal varices
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|
The chemotactic accumulation of inflammatory cells that occurs at the sites where immune complexes are deposited is most probably the result of:
- C5a - IgA - IgD - IgE - sensitized lymphocytes |
C5a
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Removal of the capsule from an encapsulated bacterium is likely to result in:
- loss if viability - decreased generation time - failure of the cell to gram stain - increased susceptibility to mutation - increased susceptibility to phagocytosis |
increased susceptibility to phagocytosis
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|
The major factor in the production of inflammatory edema is:
- venous obstruction - arterial dilatation - generalized kidney damage - increased capillary permeability |
increased capillary permeability
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|
|
Left-sided heart failure or shock may be associated with:
- pneumoconiosis - bronchoiectasis - pulmonary edema - pulmonary emboli |
pulmonary edema
|
|
|
Which of the following disease is characterized by painful vesicles that occur on the skin or a mucosal surface along the distribution of a sensory nerve?
- Smallpox - Psoriasis - Cat scratch disease - Recurrent varicella - Infectious mononucleosis |
Recurrent varicella
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|
|
Lysozyme can attack bacteria cells by:
- degrading their flagella - inactivating their ribosomes - preventing the transpeptidation reaction - breaking the bond between N acetyl glucosamine and N acetyl muramic acid |
breaking the bond between N acetyl glucosamine and N acetyl muramic acid
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Although the exact mechanism of formation of calculus is not understood, it is known that the organic matrix of calculus in humans includes:
- no living microorganisms - a fusospirochetal complex - an abundance of microorganisms - only by products of bacterial metabolism |
an abundance of microorganisms
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|
Generally, resistance of a bacterium to killing by heat in influences by time and by temperature employed in growth of the culture. Another factor is the ability of the organism to:
- form spores - withstand acid pH - produce protoplasts - undergo transformation - grow at elevated temperatures |
form spores
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|
The renal lesion most commonly associated with benign hypertension is:
- renal atresia - acute pyelonephritis - chronic pyelonephritis - arteriolonephrosclerosis |
arteriolonephrosclerosis
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|
|
The most likely diagnosis for a patient with dysphonia, dysphagia, weight loss and a history of heavy cigarette smoking is:
- laryngitis - tonsilitis - laryngeal polyps - carcinoma of the lungs - carcinoma of the larynx |
carcinoma of the larynx
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|
|
Two important factors for initation of caries by oral streptococci are:
- production of protease and production of acid - production of dextranase and production of soluble dextran - production of collagenase and production of hyaluronidase - fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol and production of protease - synthesis of insoluble dextran and production of glucosyltransferase |
synthesis of insoluble dextran and production of glucosyltransferase
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In order for a virus to infect a host cell, it mist first absorb to the cell surface. This involves:
- phagocytic activity by the cell - energy output on the part of the cell - insertion of virally specified glycoproteins into the host cell membrane - a specific interaction between a viral surface receptor and a specific receptor on the cell membrane - all of the above |
a specific interaction between a viral surface component and a specific receptor on the cell membrane
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Laboratory results of a patient's serum show presence of HBs and anti-HBs. Which of the following can be concluded?
- The patient is a carrier - The patient has acute disease - The patient is in the convalescent stage - The patient has recovered completely - None of the above |
The patient is a carrier
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An increased serum acid phosphatase level is clinically significant and aids in the diagnosis of which of the following conditions?
- Paget's disease of bone - Primary hyperparathyroidism - Secondary hyperparathyroidism - Breast carcinoma with bone metastasis - Prostatic carcinoma with bone metastasis |
Prostatic carcinoma with bone metastasis
|
|
|
A benign neoplasm of the myometrium of the uterus is a:
- myeloma - fibroma - leiomyoma - myoblastoma - rhabdomyoma |
leiomyoma
|
|
|
A patient with dentinogenesis imperfecta has a history of multiple fractures. Examination reveals blue sclera. The most probably diagnosis is:
- achondroplasia - Marfan's syndrome - osteogenesis imperfecta - Albers Schonberg disease |
osteogenesis imperfecta
|
|
|
The primary function of SIgA is to:
- promote phagocytosis by monocytes - prevent ingress of antigen through mucosa - activate complement in secretory fluids - activate K/NK cells in the gingival crevice |
prevent ingress of antigen through mucosa
|
|
|
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to penicillin is caused by:
- pleomorphism - an enzyme that attacks penicillin - production of a penicillin analogue - a lack of mycolic acid in the cell wall - the presence of a tough lipopolysaccharide capsule |
an enzyme that attacks penicillin
|
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Which of the following serum values is likely to be elevated in a patient with hyperparathyroidism?
- Calcium - Chloride - Potassium - Phosphorus - Acid phosphatase |
Calcium
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|
The principle antibacterial action of the tetracyclines is inhibition of:
- DNA synthesis - protein synthesis - histone formation - cell wall synthesis - cell membrane function |
protein synthesis
|
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|
The most acceptable conditions for complete sterilization by autoclaving are:
- 5 minutes at 275ºF (135ºC) and 15 lbs. of pressure - 15 minutes at 275ºF (135ºC) and 10 lbs. of pressure - 20 minutes at 250ºF (121ºC) and 10 lbs. of pressure - 20 minutes at 250ºF (121ºC) and 15 lbs. of pressure |
20 minutes at 250ºF (121ºC) and 15 lbs. of pressure
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|
|
The class of anitbodies first detected in serum after primary immunization is usually:
- IgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - IgM |
IgM
|
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|
The principle chemical mediator located in the granules of mast cells is:
- plasmin - histamine - complement - bradykinin - norepinephrine |
histamine
|
|
|
Production of bone in scar tissue occurs by:
- dysplasia - anaplasia - neoplasia - metaplasia - fibroplasia |
metaplasia
|
|
|
Which of the following disease is characterized by an extremely high level of alkaline phosphatase, normal levels of calcium and phosphorus, enlargement of the skull, and an increased incidence of osteogenic sarcoma?
- Osteoporosis - Multiple myeloma - Fibrous dysplasia - Osteogenesis imperfecta - Paget's disease of bone |
Paget's disease of bone
|
|
|
A very high percentage of cases of hepatitis A are found in:
- young people - recent recipients of gamma globulin - recent recipients of whole blood transfusions - persons with histories of recurrent respiratory infections |
young people
|
|
|
The etiologic basis of Hashimoto's thyroiditis is:
- autoimmune - bacterial infection - hereditary enzyme deficiency - premalignant diffuse hyperplasia - secondary to hyperpituitarism |
autoimmune
|
|
|
Long-standing gradual ischemia of an organ or a tissue most likely results in:
- atrophy - dysplasia - metaplasia - hypertrophy - hyperplasia |
atrophy
|
|
|
A disease caused by the interaction of antigen and IgE on the surface of mast cells with release of histamine is:
- serum sickness - bronchial asthma - pulmonary emphysema - lupus erythematosus - rheumatoid arthritis |
bronchial asthma
|
|
|
Which of the following identifies the cell that produces interleukin-1 and the cell affected by interleukin-1, respectively?
- T cell, B cell - Macrophage, T cell - Macrophage, monocyte - Dendritic cell, B lymphocyte |
Macrophage, T cell
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|
|
Patients with Bruton's agammaglobulinemia principally suffer from infections caused by:
- fungi - viruses - parasites - pyogenic bacteria - tubercle bacilli |
pyogenic bacteria
|
|
|
Which of the following is diagnosed by karyotyping?
- Phenylketonuria - Neurofibromatosis - Tay Sachs disease - Turner's syndrome - Sickle cell anemia |
Turner's syndrome
|
|
|
Neoplasms of which of the following organs have been shown to be hormonally dependent?
- Liver - Parotid - Prostate - Pancreas |
Prostate
|
|
|
Chronic passive congestion of the lung is characterized by:
- hyaline membranes - chronic bronchitis - giant cell arteritis - interstitial infiltration of PMNs - edema of alveolar walls and "heart failure" cells |
chronic bronchitis
|
|
|
Use of vaccines for preventing clinical symptoms after introduction of the virus is most likely to be effective against:
- rabies - influenza - poliomyelitis - herpes zoster |
rabies
|
|
|
Which of the following is characterized by a collapse of alveoli?
- Empyema - Pneumonia - Emphysema - Atelectasis - Bronchiectasis |
Atelectasis
|
|
|
A virus causing recurrent herpetic lesions is never completely eliminated but assumes a state of:
- latency - symbiosis - mutualism - commensalism - none of the above |
latency
|
|
|
Patients receiving chemotherapy for leukemia are particularly prone to develop oral:
- candidiasis - actinomycosis - blastomycosis - histoplasmosis - coccidiodomycosis |
candidiasis
|
|
|
The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced by:
- an increase in salivary hyaluronidase - an increased number of bacteria in saliva - an increase in bacterial antibodies in saliva - appearance of new phagocytic strains in the affected area - a reduction in inflammation by removal of bacteria |
a reduction in inflammation by removal of bacteria
|
|
|
The effectiveness of autoclaving is best determined by:
- culturing bacterial spores - culturing the water reservoir - themocouples (temperature recording devices) - indicators that change color at elevated temperatures |
culturing bacterial spores
|
|
|
An oral lesion that may appear as an ulcer, a nodule or a vegetative process and is often mistaken for squamous cell carcinoma is a manifestation of:
- candidiasis - trichinosis - sporotrichosis - histoplasmosis |
histoplasmosis
|
|
|
The nuclear material of a bacterial cell is typically characterized as a:
- single, double-stranded DNA molecule enclosed within a nuclear membrane - single, double-stranded DNA molecule not confined within a nuclear membrane - rigid, DNA protein complex enclosed within a nuclear membrane - rigid, DNA lipopolysaccharide complex not confined within a nuclear membrane |
single, double-stranded DNA molecule not confined within a nuclear membrane
|
|
|
Which of the following is the most common initial sign or symptom in patients with malignant lymphoma?
- Pallor - Weight loss - Lymphadenopathy - Chronic infection - Unexplained fever |
Lymphadenopathy
|
|
|
Most rickettsial disease produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae:
- produce potent exotoxins - are destructive for endothelial cells - are particularly destructive to cutaneous tissues - are primarily neurotropic and cause extensive damage in certain CNS centers |
are destructive for endothelial cells
|
|
|
Which of the following bacteria has the highest lipid content in the cell wall?
- Escherichia coli - Lactobacilus casei - Leptotrichia buccalis - Staphylococcus aureus - Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
|
|
|
A complication of peptic ulcer disease that accounts for the majority of deaths is:
- bleeding - perforation - surgical complication - malignant transformation - obstruction form edema or scarring |
perforation
|
|
|
Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valve abnormaility who is allergic to penicillin is:
- ampicillin - linomycin - tetracycline - streptomycin - erythromycin |
erythromycin
|
|
|
Which of the following organs is the most uncommon site for infarcts?
- Brain - Heart - Liver - Kidney - Adrenals |
Liver
|
|
|
Cervicofacial actinomycosis is usually due to:
- poor aseptic technique during oral surgery - contamination of a trauma or surgical site with spores - contamination of a trauma or surgical site with endogenous organisms - spread of the organisms from a dermal or thoracic infection |
contamination of a trauma or surgical site with endogenous organisms
|
|
|
Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?
- Decreased albumin - Elevated serum lipase - Decreased serum amylase - Elevated alkaline phosphatase |
Elevated serum lipase
|
|
|
Classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal Factor VIII which in turn is due to a genetic deficiency that is:
- partially dominant - autosomal dominant - autosomal recessive - sex linked dominant - sex linked recessive |
sex linked recessive
|
|
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Ten days after hospitalization for a large, incapacitating myocardial infarct, a 50-year-old man suddenly develops paralysis of the right side of his body. The best explanation for his brain damage is:
- rupture of a congenital aneurysm of the circle of Willis - brain abscess from necrosis of the myocardium - detachment of a bacterial embolus from the pulmonic valve - detachment of a mural thrombus from the right ventricle - detachment of a mural thrombus from the left ventricle |
detachment of a mural thrombus from the left ventricle
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Features of the herpes simplex virus type 1 virion surface include:
- no envelope - an envelope synthesized de novo - an envelope acquired by budding through the cytoplasmic membrane - an envelope acquired by budding through the nuclear membrane - none of the above |
an envelope acquired by budding through the nuclear membrane
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Hemorrhagic infarction and necrosis are characteristic of which of the following fungal diseases?
- Candidiasis - Actinomycosis - Cryptococcosis - Histoplasmosis - Coccidioidomycosis - Mucormycosis (Phycomycosis) |
Mucormycosis (Phycomycosis)
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The chemical nature of bacterial endotoxins is a:
- lipid - protein - complex carbohydrate - lipopolysaccharide complex - low molecular weight polypeptide |
lipopolysaccharide complex
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Detergents kill bacteria by interfering with the function of the cell:
- wall - capsule - membrane - ribosome - chromosome |
membrane
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Phage conversion is responsible for:
- transduction of bacteria - antigenic phase variation - production of B galactosidase - ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen - production of erythrogenic toxin by Streptococcus pyogenes |
production of erythrogenic toxin by Streptococcus pyogenes
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An Rh negative mother delivered a normal first child. Her second child developed symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis. Which of the following can be concluded?
- The father is Rh negative - The first baby is Rh negative - The first baby is a girl, the second is a boy - The mother has very high levels of serum component and anti Rh IgE - None of the above |
None of the above
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A summer illness that produces vesicular lesions of the uvula, anterior pillars and the posterior pharynx is:
- influenza - herpesvirus - ECHO virus - coxsackievirus |
coxsackievirus
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Bacterial endotoxin exerts its pathologic effect, in part, by:
- stimulating production of IgA - activating the complement cascase - inactivating nonspecific lymphokines - releasing transfer factor from B lymphocytes - releasing vasoactive lipopolysaccharides from mast cells |
activating the complement cascade
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The host response to a malignancy is best reflected by:
- marked cellularity of the tumor - many mitotic figures in the tumor - lymphocytic infiltration at the edge of the neoplasm - a large number of blood vessels in the neoplastic mass - large areas of necrosis in the center of the neoplastic mass |
lymphocytic infiltration at the edge of the neoplasm
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Which of the following is most commonly associated with development of gastrointestinal cancer?
- Amebiasis - Villous adenoma - Meckel's diverticulum - Duodenal peptic ulcer - Peutz Jeghers syndrome |
Villous adenoma
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Which of the following is the most common skin cancer in man?
- Malignant melanoma - Basal cell carcinoma - Squamous cell carcinoma - Sebaceous adenocarcinoma - Transitional cell carcinoma |
Basal cell carcinoma
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Multiple drug resistance is related most closely to:
- viruses - plasmids - transformation - cell chromosomes |
plasmids
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Which of the following organisms is most frequently isolated from the oral cavity?
- Streptococcus sanguis - Streptococcus pyogenes - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Neisseria meningitidis - Staphylococcus aureus |
Streptococcus sanguis
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Which of the following characteristics of enterobacteria is most important in hospital infections?
- High degree of invasiveness - Ability to become resistant to antibiotics - Production of enzymes destructive to tissue - Ability to survive drying due to spore formation |
Ability to become resistant to antibiotics
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The most common clinical consequence of benign prostatic hyperplasia is:
- pain - jaundice - urinary tract obstruction - red blood cell casts in urine - progression to prostatic carcinoma |
urinary tract obstruction
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In organisms sensitive to penicillin, this antibiotic shows the greatest bactericidal activity against:
- growing gram negative bacteria - growing gram positive bacteria - nongrowing gram negative bacteria - nongrowing gram positive bacteria - sporulating gram negative bacteria |
growing gram positive bacteria
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Myasthenia gravis is caused by dysfunction of the:
- motor nerves - smooth muscle - sensory nerves - skeletal muscle - myoneural junction |
myoneural junction
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Which antibody type is resistant to hydrolysis by microbial proteolytic enzymes?
- IgA - SIgA - IgE - IgG |
SIgA
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Which of the following are rarely, if ever, acquired from another individual?
(a) Blastomycosis (b) Sporotrichosis (c) Histoplasmosis (d) Neonatal candidiasis - a, b - a, b, c - a, b, d - a, c - b, c - b, d - All of the above |
a, b, c
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Granulation tissue typically contains:
(a) fibroblasts (b) nerve fibers (c) endothelial cells (d) epithelioid cells (e) giant cells - a, b - a, c - b, d - c, d - c, e - d, e |
a and c
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Significant functions of polymorphonuclear leukocytes in inflammation are:
(a) replication of new cells (b) phagocytosis of bacteria (c) elaboration of proteolytic enzymes (d) elaboration of antibodies - a, b - a, c - b, c - b, d - c, d |
b, c
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IgE is involved in which of the following conditions?
(a) Hives (b) Hay fever (c) Pemphigus vulgaris (d) Lupus erythematosus - a, b - a, c - a, d - b, c - c, d |
a, b
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Invasive staphylococcal infections of orofacial structures are likely to result in:
(a) brain abscess (b) osteomyelitis (c) cavernous sinus thrombosis (d) localized tissue abscesses - a, b, c - a, b, d - a, c, d - b, c, d - Any of the above |
Any of the above
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Which of the following diseases are commonly associated with pathogenic staphylococci?
(a) Impetigo (b) Dysentery (c) Food poisoning (d) Rheumatic fever - a, b - a, c - a, d - b, c - b, d - c, d |
a, c
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Which of the following are associated with a patient who has AIDS?
(a) Recent Heptavax vaccination (b) Loss of cellular immunity defenses (c) Alteration of T-helper/T-suppressor cell ratio in blood (d) Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections (e) Decreased immunoglobulin concentration in peripheral circulation - a, b, d - a, b, e - a, c, e - b, c, d - c, d, e |
c, d, e
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Infants are routinely immunized against diseases caused by:
(a) Brucella abortus (b) Bordetella pertussis (c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae (d) Clostridium tetani (e) Hemophilis influenzae - a, b, c - a, c, e - b, c, d - b, d, e - c, d, e |
b, c, d
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Which of the following blood diseases are red cell disorders?
(a) Thalassemia (b) Polycythemia vera (c) Erythroblastosis fetalis (d) Hereditary spherocytosis - a, b, c - a, b, d - a, c, d - b, c, d - All of the above |
All of the above
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Basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma are similar in that both:
(a) are invasive (b) readily metastasize (c) exhibit mitotic figures (d) are cured by early excision (e) commonly occur in the oral cavity - a, c, d - a, d, e - b, c - b, d, e - d, e |
a, c, d
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The secondary stage of syphilis may be manifested in which of the following forms?
(a) Hard chancre (b) Soft chancre (c) Maculopapular rash (d) Extensive CNS involvement (e) Mucous pathes in the oral cavity - a, b - a, d - b, c - c - c, e - d |
c, e
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Ascites, which is often a complication of alcoholic liver disease, develops as a result of:
(a) cirrhosis (b) esophageal varices (c) portal hypertension (d) decreased protein production by the liver - a - a, c - a, c, d - b, c - b, d - All of the above |
a, c, d
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Cells of which of the followin retain a latent capacity for mitotic division?
(a) Liver (b) Bone marrow (c) Cardiac muscle (d) Salivary glands (e) Neurons - a, b, c - a, b, d - a, c, d - b, c, e - b, d, e |
a, b, d
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In healing of a fracture, which of the following will prevent favorable reconstruction and alignment of bones?
(a) Formation of pseudoarthrosis (b) Functional remodeling of the procallus by osteoblasts and osteoclasts (c) Formation of new bone at the site of fracture (d) Presence of sequestrum (e) Organization of a hematoma at the site of fracture - a - a, d - b, c - b, c, d - d, e |
a, d
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Abnormalities in cell growth that cause cells, tissues or organs to be smaller than normal include:
(a) metaplasia (b) atrophy (c) anaplasia (d) hypoplasia - a, b - a, b, d - a, c - a, c, d - b, c, d - b, d |
b, d
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Right-sided heart failure affects the kidneys by causing:
(a) renal hypoxia (b) venous congestion (c) retention of H2O and NaCl (d) decreased glomerular filtration rate - a, b, c - a, b, d - a, c, d - b, c, d - All of the above |
All of the above
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A soft tissue infection rather diffusely spread along the mandible and into the floor of the mouth would likely involve which of the following organisms?
(a) Eikenella corrodens (b) Staphylococcis auerus (c) Streptococcus pyogenes (d) Peptostreptococcus anaerobius - a, c, d - b, c - b, c, d - b, d - All of the above |
All of the above
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Bacteria of which of the following genera have a limited range of habitats in the oral cavity?
(a) Treponema (b) Bacteroides (c) Actinomyces (d) Streptococcus - a, b - a, c - a, d - b, c - b, d - c, d |
a, b
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Which of the following will not promote fluid retention in the interstitial compartment?
- Lymphatic obstruction - Increased capillary permeability - Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood - Increased hydrostatic pressure of the blood - Decreased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid |
Decreased osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid
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Each of the following may be seen in multiple myeloma except:
- hypoproteinemia - plasma cell neoplasia - hypergammaglobulinemia - light chain proteinuria - punched out areas of bone |
hypoproteinemia
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Which of the following is not a feature of infectious mononucleosis?
- Splenomegaly - Necrotizing pharyngitis - Depressed heterophile titer - Abnormal lymphocytes in peripheral blood - Marked increase in the number of circulating lymphocytes |
Depressed heterophile titer
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A primary tumor of which the following organs is least likely to give rise to skeletal metastasis?
- Breast - Tongue - Kidney - Thyroid - Prostate |
Tongue
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Which of the following is not mediated by immunoglobulins?
- Anaphylaxis - Atopic allergy - Serum sickness - Arthus' reaction - Contact dermatitis |
Contact dermatitis
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Which of the following is not a direct cause of left-sided heart failure?
- Emphysema - Hypertension - Aortic stenosis - Myocardial infarction - Rheumatic heart disease |
Emphysema
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Which of the following viruses is least likely to be spread in the dental office?
- HTLV III - Adenovirus - Rhinovirus - Hepatitis B - Herpes simplex virus |
HTLV III
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Which of the following is not a function of T lymphocytes in defense of the host?
- Production of MIF - Production of histamine - Activation of macrophages - Production of chemotactic factors - Protection against intracellular parasites |
Production of histamine
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A patient with which of the following disease is least likely to show "clubbing" of finers and cyanotic nail beds?
- Polycythemia - Congenital heart disease - Chronic pulmonary disease - Congestive heart failure - Systemic lupus erythematosus |
Systemic lupus erythematosus
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Which of the following species of streptococci is usually not found in human dental plaque?
- S. mutans - S. sanguis - S. pyogenes - S. salivarius - S. mitior (S. mitis) |
S. pyogenes
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Which of the following viral-associated enzymes is unique to RNA tumor viruses?
- Neuramidase - Capping enzyme - Reverse transcriptase - DNA dependent RNA polymerase |
Reverse transcriptase
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Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are generally:
- motile - sensitive to H2O2 - insensitive to H2O2 - able to ferment lactate - producers of O2 and H2O from H2O2 |
sensitive to H2O2
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Which of the following is characterisitc of a prokaryotic cell?
- Mitochondrion - Nuclear membrane - Single chromosome - Endoplasmic reticulum |
Single chromosome
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Which of the following is charaterized by a cumulative antimicrobial effect?
- Iodine - Alcohol - Cationic detergent - Acid glutaraldehyde - Chlorhexidine gluconate |
Chlorhexidine gluconate
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The different types fo Streptococcus pneumoniae are distinguished by:
- fermentation reactions - distinct H and O antigens - distinct somatic proteins - distinct capsular polysaccharides - varying susceptibility to specific bacteriophages |
distinct capsular polysaccharides
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Which of the following most accurately describes the antibacterial mechanism of penicillin?
- Inhibits DNA synthesis - Inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis - Inhibits protein synthesis in growing bacterial cells - Disrupts the integrity of the cell membrane |
Inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis
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A common oral manifestation of Addison's disease is:
- melanosis - xerostomia - glossodynia - "cotton wool" bone - loss of lamina dura |
melanosis
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The first human cancer that has been strongly linked to a virus is:
- Hodgkin's disease - multiple myeloma - Burkitt's lymphoma - acute lymphocytic leukemia - chronic myelogenous leukemia |
Burkitt's lymphoma
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Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by:
- Actinomyces bovis - Borrelia vincentii - Nocardia asteroides - Staphylococcus auerus - Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
Staphylococcus aureus
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Immunosuppressed patients are particularly prone to develop severe oral disease caused by:
- Candida albicans - Actinomyces isrealii - Pneumocystis carinii - Streptococcus mutans - Streptococcus salivarius |
Candida albicans
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Tetany may result from hyperfunction of which of the following glands?
- thyroid - Hypophysis - Parathyroid - Adrenal cortex - Adrenal medulla |
Parathyroid
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Which of the following is a significant effect of pheochromocytoma?
- Myxedema - Acromegaly - Glycosuria - Hypertension |
Hypertension
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The indiscriminate use of broad spectrum antibiotics is contraindicated because they frequently:
- are extremely nephrotoxic - cause psychogenic symptoms - produce dependency reactions - induce anaphylactoid reactions - interfere with indigenous biota |
interfere with indigenous biota
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A positive skin test in an individual who has tuberculosis is an example of:
- atopy - autoimmunity - hypersensitivity - passive immunity |
hypersensitivity
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Which of the following pneumoconioses is most often associated with bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma in man?
- Silicosis - Asbestosis - Anthracosis - Berylliosis |
Asbestosis
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Microcytic hypochromic anemia is most often due to:
- infection - malabsorption - folate deficiency - chronic blood loss - a genetic abnormality |
chronic blood loss
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As a result of dental prophylaxis, microorganisms around teeth enter the bloodstream. This condition is an example of:
- pyemia - toxemia - bacteremia - septicemia - focal infection |
bacteremia
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Nephrolithiasis is most likely to result from which of the following diseases?
- Hyperpituitarism - Cushing's disease - Hyperparathyroidism - Paget's disease of bone |
Hyperparathyroidism
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The ability of mammalian organs to regenerate after injury if best demonstrated by the:
- lung - liver - heart - brain - kidney |
liver
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A patient is homozygous for a defective gene that substitutes valine for glutamic acid on the beta chain of globin. The most probably diagnosis is:
- thalassemia major - thalassemia minor - sickle cell trait - sickle cell disease |
sickle cell disease
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A 65-year-old man who experiences urinary retention or difficulty in voiding his bladder most likely has:
- carcinoma of the prostate - benign prostatic hyperplasia - malignant neoplasm involving the urethra - bladder metastasis of bronchogenic carcinoma |
benign prostatic hyperplasia
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The absence of cellular differentiation is characteristic of:
- anaplasia - metaplasia - hyperplasia - hypertrophy - inflammation |
anaplasia
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The most characterisitc finding in intestinal malabsorption syndrome is:
- pain - melena - anorexia - diarrhea - steatorrhea |
steatorrhea
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Chronic passive congestion of the lung is characterized by:
- hyaline membranes - chronic bronchitis - giant cell arteritis - interstitial infiltration of PMNs - thickening of alveolar walls and hemosiderosis |
thickening of alveolar walls and hemosiderosis
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A person with anti A and anti B isoagglutinins in the serum belongs to blood group:
- A - B - AB - O |
O
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A cigarette-smoking patient notices a gradual onset of progressive, labored breathing characterized by prolonged expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis is:
- bronchopneumonia - chronic bronchitis - pulmonary emphysema - carcinoma of the lung - left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and edema |
pulmonary emphysema
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Organisms that exhibit dimorphism and grow on Sabouraud's medium are:
- fungi - bacteria - mycoplasms - rickettsiae - spirochetes |
fungi
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Hypertensive heart disease is consistently associated with which of the following anatomic findings?
- Aortic stenosis - Tricuspid stenosis - Pericardial effusion - Left ventricular hypertrophy - Right ventricular hypertrophy |
Left ventricular hypertrophy
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In transduction, DNA is transferred from donor cell to recipient cell by:
- a plasmid - an episome - a bacteriphage - purified nucleic acid |
a bacteriophage
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The components in the cell wall of Mycobacterium responsible for acid-fastness are:
- mucoproteins - teichoic acids - polysaccharides - lipids and waxes - magnesium ribonucleates |
lipids and waxes
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Fat embolism is most often a sequela of:
- fracture - infection - contusion - infarction - deep laceration |
fracture
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Which of the following viruses causes two distinct diseases in different age groups?
- Influenza - Measles - Smallpox - Varicella - Newcastle disease |
Varicella
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The requirement for an insect vector in the transmission of human disease is a common characterisitic of all infectious agents included in the genus:
- Brucella - Bedsonia - Treponema - Mycoplasma - Rickettsia |
Rickettsia
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Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of DNA from smoth pneumococci develop capsules. This is an example of:
- mutation - conjugation - translation - transduction - transformation |
transformation
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Which of the following skin lesions is generally considered precancerous?
- Verruca vulgaris - Actinic keratosis - Intradermal nevus - Seborrheic keratosis |
Actinic keratosis
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Which of the following is produced by a gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobic bacillus?
- Thrush - Gas gangrene - Blastomycosis - Actinomycosis - Undulant fever |
Gas gangrene
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The usualy incubation period for hepatitis B virus infection is:
- 1 to 2 days - 1 to 2 weeks - 1 to 6 months - 1 year - 5 years |
1 to 6 months
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Which of the following is the most common type of lung cancer?
- Adenocarcinoma - Bronchiolar carcinoma - Alveolar cell carcinoma - Squamous cell carcinoma - Anaplastic (oat cell) carcinoma |
Squamous cell carcinoma
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Carcinoma of which of the following organs has been shown to be hormonally dependent?
- Colon - Larynx - Prostate - Pancreas |
Prostate
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Which of the following are most characterisitc of cerviofacial actinomycosis?
- Multiple ulcers - Enlarged cervical lymph nodes - Multiple cutaneous abscessed with sinuses - Indurated nodules in the skin of the neck |
Multiple cutaneous abscesses with sinuses
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A summer illness that produces nodular lesions of the uvula, anterior pillars and the posterior pharynx is:
- influenza - herpesvirus - ECHO virus - coxsackievirus |
coxsackievirus
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Which of the following distinguishes a viral infection from other microbial assaults?
- Necrosis - Chronicity - Interferon production - Intracellular infection - Need for an external vector |
Interferon production
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Herpes simplex virus type 1 is clinically most often associated with:
- neural lesions - genital lesions - cervical carcinoma - oral and ocular lesions - none of the above |
oral and ocular lesions
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A patient with facial erythema, fever, Raynaud phenomenon, joint pain and photophobia probably has:
- scleroderma - Paget's disease - Sjogren's syndrome - erythema multiforme - systemic lupus erythematosus |
systemic lupus erythematosus
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In which of the following is hyaluronidase involved?
- Arthus reaction - Shwartzman phenomenon - Spread of streptococcal infections - Localization of staphylococcal infections |
Spread of streptococcal infections
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Allergens that are usually responsible for contact hypersensitivity are:
- lipids - haptens - proteins - carbohydrates |
haptens
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The most frequent complication following a single transfusion of blood that was inadequately cross matched is:
- leukopenia - infectious hepatitis - altered clotting time - agglutination of the recipient's erthrocytes - agglutination of the donor's erythrocytes |
agglutination of the donor's erythrocytes
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Rheumatic fever may leave the heart seriously damaged because of:
- primary infection of the heart valves with Group A streptococci - secondary infection of the heart valves with Group A streptococci - damage to the heart valves throught to be a result of hypersensitivity to hemolytic staphylococci - damage to the heart valves thought to be a result of hypersensitivity to Group A streptococci |
damage to the heart valves thought to be a result of hypersensitivity to Group A streptococci
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Opsonization may occur as a component of the humoral immune response to:
- virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae - intracellular microorganisms - infections by viruses - nucleic acids - none of the above |
virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Antibodies of which class are likely to be associated with atopic allergy?
- IgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - IgM |
IgE
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Which of the following is an example of naturally-acquired passive immunity in humans?
- Tetanus immunization - Injection of gamma globulin - Transfusion of immune blood - Placental transfer of antibody - Antibody produced during recovery from measles |
Placental transfer of antibody
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The alum adjuvant employed in many vaccines acts biologically in tissue to:
- serve as a local inflammatory stimulus - prolong antigen release to immunocompetent cells in the region - both of the above - none of the above |
both of the above
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Recurrent herpes labialis occurs in people who:
- are hypersensitive to herpesvirus - have been infected with herpesvirus and who have antibodies against the virus - have been infected with herpesvirus but who fail to produce antibodies against the virus - None of the above |
have been infected with herpesvirus and who have antibodies against the virus
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Neutralization and inactivation of bacterial toxins are accomplished by:
- humoral immunity - cellular immunity - serotonin release - lymphokine sythesis - delayed hypersensitivity |
humoral immunity
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|
Development of pseudomembranous colitis is a major adverse effect of prolonged therapy with:
- vancomycin - clindamycin - tetracycline - streptomycin - cephalosporin |
clindamycin
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The aerosol produced during operative dental procedures is likely to contain a predominance of:
- yeasts and spirochetes - spirochetes and rod forms - spirochetes and rickettsiae - gram positive microorganisms - gram negative rod forms and spirochetes |
gram positive microorganisms
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Large wound defects heal by:
- resolution - regeneration - wound contraction - primary intention - secondary intention |
secondary intention
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A lesion that is characterized microscopically in the tissues by central necrosis surrounded by macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells and occasional giant cells is generally classified as:
- a cyst - a phlegmon - a granuloma - an acute abscess - an autoimmune disease |
a granuloma
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Leukocytosis is to acute apendicitis as:
- a sign is to disease - a lesion is to disease - a symptom is to disease - pathogenesis is to disease - an etiologic agent is to disease |
a sign is to disease
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Which of the following histopathologic findings during necropsy suggests that the person died of, or at least has, rheumatic fever?
- Russell bodies - Periarteritis nodosa - Aschoff bodies in the heart muscle - Monckeberg's sclerosis of the aorta |
Aschoff bodies in the heart muscle
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Inadequate immobilization after a bone fracture is likely to result in:
- lipping - a pannus - pseudoarthrosis - Heberden's nodes |
pseudoarthrosis
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|
Anorexia most seriously and immediately affects the brain and the:
- lung - heart - liver - spleen - kidney |
heart
|
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Which of the following is the lymphoid cell type probably responsible for initial immune recognition of an antigen?
- Neutrophil - Plasma cell - Immunoblast - B lymphocyte - T lymphocyte |
T lymphocyte
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Immersion of instruments in cold disinfectants for 30 minutes is expected to destroy:
(a) streptococci (b) hepatitis B virus (c) bacterial spores (d) staphylococci - a, b, c - a, c - a, c, d - a, d - b, c |
a, d
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Clotting of blood is delayed in which of the following conditions?
(a) Hyperparathyroidism (b) Granulocytic leukemia with thrombocytopenia (c) During treatment with dicumarol or heparin (d) Tetany (e) Alcoholic cirrhosis (f) Rickets (g) Microcytic anemia - a, b, e - b, c, e - b, c, f - b, c, g - d, e, g |
b, c, e
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Which of the following are examples of endogenous pigments?
(a) Lead (b) Melanin (c) Hemosiderin (d) Bismuth (e) Bilirubin - a, b, c - a, d, e - b, c, d - b, c, e - c, d, e - All of the above |
b, c, e
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Edema may result from:
(a) increased sodium retention (b) increased lymphatic drainage (c) increased venule blood pressure (d) decreased capillary permeability (e) decreased plasma osmotic pressure - a, b, d - a, c, d - a, c, e - b, c, e - b, d, e |
a, c, e
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Benign neoplasms may cause a serious threat to a patient's well-being or, in some cases, death by:
(a) overproduction of a hormone (b) direct invasion into a blood vessel (c) compression of an adjacent vital organ (d) secondary spread to vital organs, such as the liver (e) hemorrhage following ulcerations of an overlying mucosal surface - a, b, c - a, b, e - a, c, d - a, c, e - a, d, e - b, c, d - b, d, e - c, d, e |
a, c, e
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Responses by T-lymphochytes to viral infections include:
(a) production of lymphokine (b) direct cell-mediated cytotoxicity (c) helper activity to trigger B-lymphocytes to divide and secrete antibodies - a, b - a, c - b, c - All of the above |
All of the above
|
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Which of the following are important etiologic factors in arteriosclerosis?
(a) Smoking (b) Hypertension (c) Diabetes mellitus (d) High serum cholesterol levels - a, b, c - a, b, d - a, c, d - b, c, d - All of the above |
All of the above
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Major complications of a duodenal peptic ulcer include:
(a) stenosis (b) pernicious anemia (c) malignant transformations (d) perforation with peritonitis - a, b - a, b, d - a, c - a, c, d - a, d - b, c |
a, d
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Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by a well-defined hematologic picture that consists of:
(a) atypical lymphocytes (b) lymphocytic leukocytosis (c) a positive heterophile test - a - a, b - a, c - b - b, c - c - All of the above |
All of the above
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Which of the following is not associated with anaphylaxis?
- Delayed reaction - Immediate reaction - Passive transfer by serum - Participartion of antibodies - Smooth muscle spasm with capillary damage |
Delayed reaction
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Microorganisms of which of the following species do not exhibit dimorphism?
- Candida albicans - Actinomyces isrealii - Histoplasma capsulatum - Blastomyces dermatitidis |
Actinomyces isrealii
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Jaundice does not result from which of the following?
- Gallstones - Hepatitis A - Hemolytic anemia - Vitamin K deficiency - Carcinoma of the common bile duct |
Vitamin K deficiency
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Which of the following is least likely to produce acute abdominal symptoms?
- Cholelithiasis - Acute pancreatitis - Carcinoma of the ampulla of the duodenum - Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas |
Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas
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Which of the following cannot be diagnosed by karyotyping?
- Trisomy 18 - Down's syndrome - Neurofibromatosis - Klinefelter's syndrome |
Neurofibromatosis
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Which of the following is least likely to metastasize?
- Neurofibromatosis - Chondrosarcoma - Epidermoid carcinoma - Basal cell carcinoma - Mucinous adenocarcinoma |
Basal cell carcinoma
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Hemoptysis is characteristic of each of the following except:
- emphysema - tuberculosis - lobar pneumonia - pulmonary embolism - bronchogenic carcinoma |
emphysema
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Calcium dipicolinate is present in large amounts in:
- spores - flagella - mesosomes - ribosomes - mitochondria |
spores
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Which of the following cancers typically arises in teenagers and young adults?
- Wilms' tumor - Angiosarcoma - Ewing's sarcoma - Multiple myeloma - Chronic lymphocytic leukemia |
Ewing's sarcoma
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Three days ago, a patient received her third immunization with tetanus toxoid. What class of antibodies specific for tetanus toxoid would one expect to find in her serum?
- Similar concentrations of IgM and IgG - High concentrations of both IgM and IgD - Low concentrations of IgM, high concentration of IgE - Low concentration of IgM, high concentration of IgG - High concentration of IgM, low concentration of IgG |
Low concentration of IgM, high concentration of IgG
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Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is most characteristic of:
- viral pneumonia - bacterial pneumonia - lung abscess - bronchial asthma - bronchopneumonia |
viral pneumonia
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Human papillomaviruses 16 and 18 are strongly correlated with the appearance of:
- genital warts - plantar warts - cutaneous warts - uterine cancer - cervical cancer |
cervical cancer
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Staphylococcus aureus most commonly causes:
- skin infections - septicemia - sore throat - chronic infections - exogenous infections |
skin infections
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Each of the following is characteristic of herpes zoster except one. Which one is this exception?
- Unilateral - Usually involves 1 to 3 dermatomes - Occurs repeatedly in immunocompetent patients - Only occurs in an individual having a latent VZV infection - More common in individuals who are immunocompromised |
Occurs repeatedly in immunocompotent patients
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The rapid emergence of new strains of human immunodeficiency virus is primarily the result of:
- the frequent genomic recombination between human immunodeficiency virus and other retroviruses - frequent errors in the translation of viral proteins - the lack of immune response to the viral envelope glycoprotein - frequent errors introduced by viral reverse transcriptase - the imprecision of protein cleavage by viral protease |
frequent errors introduced by viral reverse transcriptase
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The antigenic component of which of the following vaccines is a capsular antigen?
- Influenza - Poliovirus - Hepatitis B - Haemophilus influenzae |
Haemophilus influenzae
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As the severity of periodontal disease progresses, there is an increase in plasma cells that produce which of the following?
- sIgA - IgD - IgE - IgG - IgM |
IgG
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Which of the following is a complication of cirrhosis?
- Splenic atrophy - Hepatic angioma formation - Obstruction of portal circulation - Increased plasma protein formation - Decreased central venous pressure |
Obstruction of portal circulation
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Which of the following is caused by vitamin D deficiency in adults?
- Rickets - Myxedema - Acromegaly - Ostermalacia - Osteitis fibrosa cystica |
Osteomalacia
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Which of the following streptococcal virulence factors acts as a superantigen, mediating a variety of cytokine-induced effects that can result in life-threatening disease?
- Pyogenic exotoxin - Hyaluronidase - Streptokinase - Streptolysin O |
Pyogenic exotoxin
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Each of the following viruses is potentially capable of causing cell transformation except one. Which one is this exception?
- Retrovirus - Herpesvirus - Picornavirus - Hepatitis B virus - Human papillomavirus |
Picornavirus
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Which of the following chemical agents is approved as an immersion sterilant?
- Iodophors - Ethyl alcohol - Glutaraldehydes - Synthetic phenolics - Sodium hypochlorite |
Glutaraldehyde
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Which of the following chemical agents is approved as an immersion sterilant?
- Iodophors - Ethyl alcohol - Glutaraldehydes - Synthetic phenolics - Sodium hypochlorite |
Glutaraldehyde
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Granulation tissue is comprised of each of the following components except one. Which one is this exception?
- Fibroblasts - Plasma cells - Capillary beds - Endothelial cells - Newly formed collagen |
Plasma cells
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Oral streptococci are usually:
- gamma hemolytic - alpha hemolytic - beta hemolytic - non hemolytic |
alpha hemolytic
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According to the Spaulding Classification System for contaminated items and curfaces, semi-critical items should be reprocessed by:
- exposure to ethylene oxide - a spray wipe technique - immersion in a tuberculocidal disinfectant - washing with a chlorhexidine gluconate disinfectant - heat stabilization if the material is heat stable |
heat stabilization if the material is heat stable
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Which of the following promotes edema?
- Increased blood proteins - Increased sodium excretion - Decreased lymphatic drainage - Decreased venule blood pressure - Increased plasma osmotic pressure |
decreased lympahtic drainage
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Which of the following is the characteristic immunoglobulin present in human external secretions (i.e. saliva, tears, intestinal juice)?
- Monomeric IgE - Monomeric IgA - Polymeric IgG4 - Polymeric IgA - Secretory IgD |
Polymeric IgA
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Virulence of the pneumococcus is associated with its:
- pyogenic exotoxin - C reactive protein - content of nucleoprotein - production of streptolysin - capsular polysaccharide |
capsular polysaccharide
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Which of the following is branching, filamentous microorganism that is a normal inhabitant of the gingival crevice and tonsilar crypts?
- Aspergillus niger - Actinomyces naeslundii - Penicillium notatum - Trichophyton mentagrophytes - Lactobacillus casei |
Actinomyces naeslundii
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Which of the following represents the primary function of sIgA?
- Aggregates microorganisms and prevents colonization - Activates complement in secretory fluids - Prmotes phagocytosis by monocytes - Activates mast cells - Activates NK cells |
Aggregates microorganisms and prevents colonization
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Cellular tropism by viruses is dependent on which of the following?
- Host cell DNA homology to viral DNA - Temperature of host cell incubation - Gamma interferon production - Cell surface receptors - Viral enzyme synthesis |
Cell surface receptors
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Collagen degradation that is observed in chronic periodontal disease can result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of:
- Porphyromonas species - Lepthothrix buccalis - Entamoeba gingivalis - Enterococcus faecalis - Veillonella species |
Porphyromonas species
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Neurofibromatosis type I is characterized by which of the following conditions?
- Multiple mucosal neuromas - Perioral melanotic freckles - Medullary carcinoma of thyroid - Development of visceral carcinoma - Multiple pigmented macules of the skin |
Multiple pigmented macules of the skin
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Which of the following is an endogenous fungus that is capable of producing an opportunistic infection?
- Candida - Rhizopus - Blastomyces - Aspergillus - Cryptococcus |
Candida
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Which of the following pathogens is the single most common cause of sexually transmitted disease in the U.S.?
- Treponema pallidum - Haemophilus ducrey - Chlamydia trachomatis - Herpes simplex virus - Human immunodeficiency virus |
Chlamydia trachomatis
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A 9-year-old boy has tinea capitis. If he is receiving appropriate therapy then he is most likely being treated with an:
- anti viral agent - anti mycotic agent - anti bacterial agent - anti parasitic agent |
anti mycotic agent
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Most cases of choriocarcinoma are discovered by the appearance of a rising titer in blood or urine of which of the following?
- Acid phosphatase - Alpha fetoprotein - Alkaline phosphatase - Carcinoembryotic antigen - Human chorionic gonadotropin |
Human chorionic gonadotropin
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Pernicious anemia is characterized by each of the following symptoms except one. Which one is this exception?
- Easy fatigability - Atrophic glossitis - Peripheral neuropathy - Atrophy of the gastric mucosa - Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells |
Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells
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Each of the following conditions involves changes in numbers of cells in an organ or tissue except one. Which one is this excption?
- Aplasia - Hyperplasia - Hypoplasia - Metaplasia |
Metaplasia
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Which of the following conditions is a significant risk factor for the development of hepatocellular carcinoma?
- Cholestasis - Portal hypertension - Cholelithiasis - Reye's syndrome - Hepatitis C |
Hepatitis C
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Cigarette smoking has been etiologically linked to each of the following cancers except one. Which one is this exception?
- Lung - Colon - Oral cavity - Esophagus - Urinary bladder |
Colon
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Which of the following histopathologic findings will characterize lymph node involvement with Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lateral neck?
- Fibrosis and scarring of the lymph node cortex - Hyperplasia of the cortex and presence of Reed Sternberg cells - Granulomas with multinucleate giant cells and caseation necrosis - Hyperplasia of the cortex and a focally dense infiltrate of neutrophils |
Granulomas with multinucleate giant cells and caseation necrosis
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Each of the following is a likely long-term complication of poorly controlled type I diabetes mellitus except one. Which one is this exception?
- Pancreatic carcinoma - Hyaline arteriosclerosis - Proliferative retinopathy - Nodular glomerulosclerosis - Peripheral symmetric neuropathy |
Pancreatic carcinoma
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In the presence of sucrose, Streptococcus mutans produces:
- L forms - very long chains of cocci - regular diploid pairs rather than chains - deposits of a gummy polysaccharide called glucan - a very thick wall of muramic acid and mucopeptide substances |
deposits of a gummy polysaccharide called glucan
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Each of the following is attributable to hepatic failure except one. Which one is this exception?
- Tremor - Gynecomastia - Mallory bodies - Hypoalbuminemia - Spider telangiectasia |
Mallory bodies
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Gram-positive cell walls differ from gram-negative cell walls in that gram-positive cell walls uniquely contain:
- teichoic acids - lipopolysaccharides - acid fast lipids - endotoxins |
teichoic acids
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Which of the following pathogens is most often associated with infective endocarditis?
- Pneumococci - Group A streptococci - Group B streptococci - a hemolytic streptococci - B hemolytic streptococci |
a hemolytic streptococci
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Pain in inflamed tissues is associated with the release of which of the following mediators?
- Histamine - Serotonin - Bradykinin - Leukotrienes - Complement components |
Bradykinin
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Which of the following represents genes that often encode proteins necessary for antibiotic resistance, and that can change positions on a chromosome or "jump" from a plasmid to a chromosome?
- Tryptophan operon - Lysogens - Prophage - Transposons |
Transposons
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Each of the following disease is transmitted from person to person by droplets or droplet spray except one. Which one is this exception?
- Condyloma acuminatum - Whooping cough - Menigitis - Diphtheria - Pneumonia |
Condyloma acuminatum
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The development of which of the following types of hepatitis depends on the host having been previously infected with hepatitis B virus?
- Hepatitis A - Hepatitis C - Hepatitis D - Hepatitis E - Hepatitis G |
Hepatitis C
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Recovery from an infection with mumps virus confers lifelong immunity. This describes which of the following types of immunity?
- Innate - Natural active - Natural passive - Artificial active - Artificial passive |
Natural active
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Which of the following represents the type of maxillofacial bone graft having the best chance of success?
- Isograft - Homograft - Allograft - Autograft - Xenograft |
Autograft
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Which of the following represents a risk factor for the development of endometrial carcinoma?
- Herpes simplex virus infection - Endometriosis - Multiple leiomyomas - Multiple pregnancies - Hyperestrogenism |
Hyperestrogenism
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Each of the following fluids is considered one that can transmit HIV except one. Which one is this exception?
- Semen - Serum - Saliva - Amniotic fluid - Breast milk |
Saliva
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In order for RNA oncogenic viruses to be integrated into the host genome, they must possess:
- translation enzymes - restriction endonuclease - DNA dependent RNA polymerase - RNA dependent DNA polymerase |
RNA dependent DNA polymerase
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Oxygen-dependent killing of bacteria by neutrophils involves each of the following except one. Which one is this exception?
- Superoxide - Collagenase - Myeloperoxidase - Hydrogen peroxide - NADP dehydrogenase |
Collagenase
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A patient has a periapical abscess and a history of hypersensitivity to penicillin. Which of the following antimicrobial agents might be the preferred alternative for this patient?
- Amoxicillin - Azithromycin - Tetracycline - Cephalosporin - Nystatin |
Azithromycin
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Edema as a result of a hemodynamic disorder commonly occurs in each of the following locations except one. Which one is this exception?
- Lungs - Brain - Subcutaneous tissues - Peritoneal cavity - Pancreas |
Pancreas
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Human infection with Histoplasma capsulatum is usually a result of:
- inhaling contaminated air - drinking contaminated water - ingesting contaminated food - direct human to human contact - direct animal to human contact |
inhaling contaminated air
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Which of the following types of bronchogenis carcinoma is most commonly associated with paranerplastic syndrome?
- Small cell carcinoma - Large cell carcinoma - Mesothelioma - Adenocarcinoma |
Small cell carcinoma
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Which of the following statements describes an example of innate immunity?
- An allergic reaction to insect venom - The classical pathway of complement - The destruction of virus infected cells by T killer cells - The production of IgG in response to insect venom - Phagocytosis of microbes by neutrophils and macrophages |
Phagocytosis of microbes by neutrophils and macrophages
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Which of the following has the least ability to regenerate?
- Bone - Liver - Striated muscle - Collagen - Smooth muscle |
Striated muscle
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Polmonary edema and filling of the pleural cavity by a transudate is most suggestive of which of the following underlying disease?
- Cor pulmonale - Polmonary embolism - Pulmonic valve stenosis - Tricuspid valve prolapse - Left sided heart failure |
Left sided heart failure
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Which of the following disorders is X-linked recessive?
- Neurofibromatosis - Turner syndrome - Cystic fibrosis - Marfan syndrome - Hemophilia A |
Hemophilia A
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The biologic effect oexotoxin A produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is to:
- increase membrane permeability - inactivate IgG - inhibit protein synthesis - increase levels of cAMP - inhibit DNA synthesis |
inhibit protein synthesis
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Urolithiasis is associated with each of the following conditions except one. Which one is this exception?
- Gout - Hypertension - Hypercalcemia - Renal infection - Hyperparathyroidism |
Hypertension
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Which of the following cells are responsible for delayed-type hypersensitivity (Type IV hypersensitivity)?
- B cells, Th2 cells - B cells, neutrophils - Th1 cells, macrophages - Mast cells, eosinophils - IgE, mast cells, histamine |
Th1 cells, macrophages
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Which of the following characterizes a benign tumor arising from skeletal muscle?
- Leiomyoma - Papilloma - Rhabdomyoma - Leiomyosarcoma - Rhabdomyosarcoma |
Rhabdomyoma
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Following prophylactic administration of amoxicillin, a patient becomes hypotensive and itchy and is having difficulty breathing. Which of the following is most probably occuring?
- CD4 lymphocytes are secreting lymphokines resulting in edema - Amoxicillin reacts with IgE and activates cytotoxic T cells to release lymphokines - IgG and complement are inducing the chemotaxis of neutrophils out of vessels - IgE bound to antigen results in histamine releasing from mast cells |
Amoxicillin reacts with IgE and activates cytotoxic T cells to release lymphokines
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Which of the following is most likely to precede an impending atherosclerotic cerebral infarction?
- Angina pectoris - Pulmonary embolus - Myocardial infarction - Ruptured berry aneurysm - Transient ischemic attacks |
Transient ischemic attacks
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The glomerular lesions in immune complex disease result from deposition of which of the following?
- IgE - IgG - TCR - Histamine - Interleukin |
IgG
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In osteomalacia, bones are weak because of the failure of:
- remodeling of bone - bone matrix formation - osteoblast proliferation - bone matrix calcification - interstitial growth of cartilage |
bone matrix calcification
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Which of the following represents the term characteristic of a single disease?
- Pathogenic - Pathologic - Idiopathic - Iatrogenic - Pathognomonic |
Pathognomonic
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Each of the following conditions predisposes a patient to develop cancer except one. Which one is this exception?
- Asbestosis - Anthracosis - Hepatitis C - Gardner's syndrome - Ulcerative colitis |
Anthracosis
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The first clinical findings in prostatic cancer are often the result of metastasis to which of the following?
- Liver - Brain - Testes - Adrenal gland - Bone |
Bone
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Each of the following statements correctly describes a clinical feature of acute lymphoblastic leukemia except one. Which one is this exception?
- Multiple, acutely tender lymph nodes due to central node ischemic necrosis - CNS infiltration related to headache, vomiting, and palsies - Bone pain secondary to leukemia infiltration of the marrow and periosteum - Symptoms related to bone marrow suppression, including anemia and thrombocytopenia |
Multiple, acutely tender lymph nodes due to central node ischemic necrosis
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A patient with hyperparathyroidism is likely to show each of the following signs or symptoms except one. Which one is this exception?
- Urolithiasis - Elevated serum calcium - Tetanic muscular convulsions - Central giant cell bone lesions - Loss of lamina dura surrounding multiple teeth |
Tetanic muscular convulsions
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Which of the following best characterizes the anemia showing normocytic, normochromic erythrocytes?
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Myelophthisic
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Each of the following statements correctly describes myocardial infarction (MI) except one. Which one is this exception?
- Most acute MIs are caused by coronary artery thrombosis - Acute MI is the most common cause of death in industrialized nations - Pain from MI can usually be relieved by vasodilators such as nitroglycerin - Thrombocytic agents such as streptokinase often limit the size of infarction - Myocardial necrosis usually begins 20-30 minutes after coronary artery occlusion |
Pain from MI can usually be relieved by vasodilators such as nitroglycerin
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Each of the following statements describes a characteristic feature of ischemic heart disease except one. Which one is this exception?
- Usually results from complete occlusion of one or more coronary arteries - Represents an imbalance between myocardial oxygen demand and available blood supply - Has a peak incidence in men over 60 years of age and women over 70 years of age - Contributing factors include chronic hypertension and high levels of low density lipoproteins |
Usually results from complete occlusion of one or more coronary arteries
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If a patient transmits hepatitis C virus to his dentist, then it will most likely be via which of the following routes?
- Oral fecal - Saliva contamination - Inhalation of aerosols - Contaminated needle stick |
Contaminated needle stick
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