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304 Cards in this Set

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Microsporum canis
Canine and feline ringworm. Fluoresce to green on Wood's light. Grows on hairs (ectothrix).
Colonies are smooth, and white surface with yellow underside.
Microsporum canis
What are the three forms of pathogenesis for Fasciola hepatica? When are each detected and what are they caused by?
1) Acute Fasciolosis
- Detected: Autumn/early winter
- Cause: migration of juvenile flukes
2) Subacute Fasciolosis
- Detected: Late autumn/winter
- Cause: juvenile and adult migration in bile ducts
3) Chronic Fasciolosis
-Detected: Later winter/spring
-Cause: adult flukes feeding in bile ducts
What is the:
Host
IMH
Site of infection
Distribution
of Dirofilaria immitis?
H: Dog, cat, ferret, sea lion, (man)
IMH: mosquito
Site: Right ventricle, posterior vena cava, pulmonary artery
Distrib: USA, warm climates, tropics
How do you diagnose B. anthracis?
-Carcasses are bloated, putrefy and do not exhibit rigour mortis. Tend to be bleeding from mouth, anus and nostrils.
- Blood sample stained with polychrome methylene blue (Blue bacteria with pink capsule=+)
Epidemiology
The study of the spread of infectious disease w/i a community or population.
What are the clinical signs of A.vasorum?
Early: asymptomatic
Late: Increased RR/cough on exercise
Heavy burden = symptoms in resting dog
Fainting and subcutaneous haematoma
Can be assoc with brain and spinal cord haemorrhage
May resemble Warfarin poisoning
Features of Leptospira.
Very fine, tightly coiled with a hook. Spirochaete.
Aerobic and fastidious
Sporadic abortion in sheep often late in gestation. Transmitted by contaminated water or food.
Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus
What Strongyloidea is found in cattle? Where is it found? Give a species.
Bunostomum phlebotomum
- Found in the small intestine
How does Leptospira cause pathology in animals?
Enters through cuts, abrasions or conjunctivae.
Gram Negative, "gull wing". Motile and microaerophilic. Non-fermentative and oxidase positive.
Campylobacter sp.
What is the PPP of Ancylostoma caninum?
PPP: 14-21days
What is evidence for a bacterial isolate being clinically significant?
1) Isolated in abundance &/or in pure culture
2) Isolated on more than one occasion
3) Isolated from blood/deep tissues/sterile sites
4) Evidence of local inflammation
5) Evidence of IR to bacterium
6) Fits with clinical picture
What are three forms of disease of B.anthracis in man?
A) Cutaneous
B) Pulmonary
C) Intestinal
Give three routes of infection (6)
1) Direct contact
2) Inhalation
3) Ingestion
4) Inoculation
5) sexual transmission
6) Transplacental transmission
Why is Nematodirus battus considered an atypical trichostrongylid?
Odd because:
1) 14 days vs. 3 weeks for PPP
2) Require a period of prolonged chill followed by a mean day/night temp of 10C.

(Do not hatch the year they are laid)
Gram positive (sorta). Creamy white, 2mm colonies. Can lead to mycotic abortion in cattle or dermatitis in pigs.
Candida albicans
Cause of bovine venereal disease. Can be transmitted by bulls during normal breeding or AI. May cause temporary infertility in cow.
Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis
Causes acute diarrhoea in puppies. (Hint: gulls!)
Campylobacter jejuni (intestinal campylobacteriosis)
What are the clinical signs of Type 2 Ostertagiosis?
Intermittent diarrhoea
Submandibular oedema common
weight loss
Maybe moderate anaemia
anorexia and increased thirst
Morbidity low, mortality high
Discuss the pathogenesis of Tetanus.
Consists of a light and heavy toxin chain. They bind irreversibly to ganglioside receptors on the motor neurone. TOXIN BLOCKS PRE-SYNAPTIC TRANSMISSION of INHIBITORY SIGNALS.
What is a reservoir of infection?
where the infectious agent lives, multiplies or survives. May be animal (brucelliosis) or the inanimate environment (e.g. tetanus -- spores in the environment).
What is the PPP of Dirofilaria immitis?
PPP:6 months
What can you do to treat and control Y.pestis?
- Cats suspected of infection to be isolated
- IV tetracycline or chloramphenicol for bubonic.
- In endemic areas treat for fleas!
- Surveillance
- Avoid sick/ dead animals
- insect repellents
- Treat humans with antibiotics.
What are some sources of infection? (5)
1) Animals
2) Humans
3) Food
4) Water
5) Environment
What superfamily does Capillaria belong? What are some of its predilection sites?
Belongs to Trichuroidea
- SI, crop and oesophagus
What are advantages of Bacterial Carriage (being a carrier)?
To bacteria: facilitates transmission, less likely to be eliminated and spread to susceptible hosts.

To Host: not made ill! and boosts immunity (naturally via carriage)
How many clinical forms are there of Ostertagiosis? When do they occur in the bovine (most commonly)?
Type 1: Grazing calves (July-October)
Type 2: Yearlings (March-May)
Name the Trichostrongyloidea associated with cattle. Group based on where they are found in the bovine.
Abomasum:
- Ostertagia
- Trichostrongylus
-Haemonchus

Small Intestine:
- Nematodirus
-Cooperia
- Trichostrongylus
What is the PPP of Toxocara canis?
< 3mo: 4-5 weeks via oral ingestion
Transplacental: 16d -3wks
What are the 2 actions of antimicrobials and what are the differences between them?
1) Bacteriocidal: Kill bacteria with no IR required. This is irreversible and mayr or may not cause lysis. These are good for immunocomp people/animals since their IR is already depleted.

2) Bacteriostatic: requires IR. Prevents bacterial growth but once this has been removed, growth can re-occur.
Gram Positive
Large rods
Resistant spores
Aerobes or facultative anaerobes
Grows very quickly
Bacillus
What are two genera found in the bovine large intestine?
1) Oesophagostomum
2) Trichuris
Which antibiotics are examples used to describe active efflux of antibiotics? How does this resistance help the microbe?
1) Tetracycline
2) Macrolide

- Cytoplasmic membrane protein that actively pumps antibiotic out of the cytoplasm (pumps may be acquired).
What are three species of Bacillus of veterinary importance?
Bacillus anthracis
Bacillus cereus
Bacillus licheniformis
Discuss the epidemiology of Anthrax.
- Endospore formation is key.
- Endospores able to survive for decades in soil and :. spores may be brought to the surface by flooding, excavation, or earthworm activity and cause outbreaks.
- Infection acquired by ingestion of spores
What is the bacterial cause of Mellioidosis? Where can it be found, and what are the possible clinical signs?
Burkholderia pseudomallei
- Endemic in soil and water in South East Africa (Vietnam time bomb: U.S. troops show signs 30yr later)
- Infection from ingestion, inhalation, or skin abrasion
- Opportunistic pathogen and may lead to acute or chronic septicaemia, respiratory, disseminated and characterized by abscess formation.
- May grow on blood agar and Ashdown's Medium.
What are three components of the B.anthracis toxin?
1)Protective Agent
2) Oedema factor
3) Lethal factor
Are infection via Oesophagostomum more common in indoor intensive systems our outdoor systems?
More common in inside because they can remain on faeces contaminated concrete. Less common in outdoor because they are not able to cope well with over-wintering, though L4 can arrest in nodules.
What are the virulence factors of B.anthracis?
a) Poly-D-glutamic acid capsule
b) complex toxin
What are the three groups of Clostridia?
1) Neurotoxic
2) Histotoxic
3) Enterpathogenic or enterotoxaemia
Gram positive
Large rods
Resistant spores
Grow very fast
Produce toxins
Clostridia
Where do Live vaccines stimulate immunity? Is the immunity strong? What may inhibit vaccine replication?
Live vaccines stimulate immunity at the mucosal surfaces (entry points for pathogens -- GIT, Resp tract).

Immunity is long lasting but generally weaker than if they had been infected naturally.

Maternal antibodies OR antibiotic treatments.
What tends to be one of the least fecund species of nematodes found in the bovine small intestine?
Cooperia oncophora
What genera and species can be found in the trachea of domestic fowl?
Syngamus trachea
What is the importance of ES products?
ES products = Excretory-secretory products
- Secrete anti-coagulants (so that worm can keep feeding and blood will not clot)
- Secrete proteases to breakdown Hb (host specific)
What are current types of vaccines available?
a) Inactivated
b) Lives vaccines
c) Single component
d) Multi-component
e) Passive protection (antisera)
Gram positive
Cocci
facultative anaerobe
Non-sporing, non-motile
commensals of mm
Catalase negative
sensitive to bile salts
Streptococcus!
Name the two genera (and assoc species) that belong to Ascaridoidea that infect birds.
Ascaridia galli
Heterakis gallinarum
What are two species of Neurotoxic Clostridia?
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium botulinum
Rank the three genera of the bovine abomasum based on size (largest to smallest).
Haemonchus > Ostertagia > Trichostrongylus
What is the largest intestinal nematode of cattle? Is this parasite a problem in the UK?
- Toxocara vitulorum (30cm)
- Not a problem in the UK but worldwide.
-Also, serious parasite in buffalo (parks etc)
When does a tetanus infection occur?
Infection occurs when endospores are introduced into tissue traumatized or contaminated by soil or faeces.
What are susceptible times of infection of C.tetani?
- Deep penetrating wounds in horses
- Castration and docking in sheep
- Abrasions in cows and ewes
- Umbilicus in all animals
Where does the botulinum toxin work?
Preformed toxins in food is absorbed from the GI tract, circulates in blood and act at the Neuromuscular junction of cholinergic nerves and at peripheral autonomic nervous system synapses. The toxin remains in the junction and irreversibly interferes with Ach :. FLACCID
Discuss the Life Cycle of D.immitis (start at adults in heart).
Adults in heart --> Release of Mf into blood --> Mf ingested by mosquito --> Develop L1-L3 in mosquito hind gut (10-14days) --> L3 transmitted to feeding mosquito --> L3 to L4 to adult in subcu --> Juvenile adult migrates to heart --> HEART AHHH!!
What are two examples of endogenous histotoxic clostridia?
Clostridia chauvoei
Clostridia novyi Type B
What are three Metastrongyloides associated with cats/dogs?
1) Angiostrongylus vasorum
2) Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
3) Oslerus osleri
How would you test for an infection by a mycobacteria?
- Immunological detection: 'Tuberculin" testing using purified protein derivatives (PPD) from the bacterial species. Text the bodies ran.
- Ziehl-neelson stain
- Lowenstein-Jensen Slant for 8 weeks
- PCR…plus loads more
Why is a faecal egg count not relevant for N. battus in sheep?
Not relevant because the clinical signs are due to the larval stages and :. eggs are irrelevant.
What is an example of an exogenous Histotoxic Clostridia?
Clostridia septicum
What are the two routes of infection for A.caninum?
1.) Transmammary
2.) Percutaneous
What is an example of an enteropathogenic/ enterotoxaemic clostridia?
Clostridia perfringens
What is a species of Trichostrongylus found in the bovine abomasum? Is this a primary pathogen?
Trichostrongylus axei -- tends to be a secondary pathogen.
Gram positive
Cocci
facultative anaerobe
Non-sporing, non-motile
commensals of mm
Catalase positive
Resistant to bile salts
Staphylococcus!
What is the PPP of Trichuris vulpis?
PPP: 6-12 weeks
What are three reasons why there is a periparturient rise in faecal egg output from 2 weeks before parturition to 6 weeks after?
1) Increased establishment of overwintered larvae acquired from pasture.
2) Inhibited L4's reactivating and developing to adults
3) Female worms have increased fecundity
What is the PPP of Nematodirus battus?
PPP:~14 days

ODD: most trichostrongyloides are 3 weeks
What are 4 important species of Staphylococcus to vets? Which are potentially pathogenic (Y/N)?
S.aureus (Y)
S.epidermidis (N)
S. pseudointermidis (Y)
S. hyicus (Y)
What are the clinical signs of N.battus?
-rapid onset
-profuse diarrhoea
-dehydration (increased thirst)
-Lambs affect, ewes totally fine
-Usually fatal unless quickly treated
What are the three genera (and assoc. species) of large intestine nematodes of the sheep?
Chabertia ovina
Trichuris ovis
Oesophagostomum venulosum/columbianum
What are 5 ways that Staphylococcus resist opsonization/phagocytosis?
1) Binding of Fc on Ab to protein A
2) SCIN
3) Capsule
4) Fibrinogen binding protein
5) Haemolysins and leukocidins
Gram Negative
Rods
Grow at room temperature
NLF
Oxidase positive
Primarily pathogens of reptiles, and fish (can infect mammals and birds)
GIVE SPECIES along with the genera
[Like Pseudomonas but grow more easily in lab :) ]
AEROMONAS

- Aeromonas hydrophila
- Aeromonas salmonicida
Large (2cm) stout worms of bovine large intestine. Strongyloidea superfamily.
Not a major pathogen of the UK, but impt in tropics/subtropics.
Oesophagostomum radiatum
What are pathogenic factors of pyogenic Streptococcus?
A) Adherence to epithelium via fibronectin and lipotecheic acid.
B) Anti-chemotaxis: C5a peptidase and IL-8 protease
C) Systemic toxicity: SUPERANTIGENS
D) Anti-opsonic/phagocytic: capsule, M/M-like protein, haemolysins (Streptolysin O+S).
E) Degradative enzymes: DNAase, protease, hyaluronidase, streptokinase and cysteine protease
What Superfamily does Toxocara belong to?
Ascaridoidea
How does a cow become infected with Actinomyces bovis?
It is a commensal of the mouth in cattle. If they've been eating rough food, or have damaged their buccal mucosa the bacteria will invade. Eventually infection will get in to bone (osteomyelitis) and the animal with stop eating.
-- May also get mastitis from calves suckling on "damaged" udders.
What are the clinical signs of Johne's disease?
Causes a transmissible chronic and progressive enteritis in cattle, sheep and goats (NOT swine or horses).
How can you treat and control B.mallei?
- Test and slaughter
- DON'T give antibiotics to animals, may just become carriers and transmit the disease.
- Cleaning and disinfecting contaminated areas with formalin or iodophors.
Discuss the life cycle of Angiostrongylus vasorum (start at adults in heart).
Starts in the heart --> Female releases eggs --> Eggs hatch quickly in pulmonary capillaries to L1 --> L1 break into alveoli, and migrate up to lungs --> L1 in faeces --> L1 to L3 in IMH (mollusc) --> L3 released from IMH --> L4 to adult once they've entered the dog --> Adults migrate to Right side heart --> Adults in heart "again"
What are the 5 major contributors to bovine mastitis?
Strept. agalactiae
Strept. dysgalactiae
Strept. uberis
Escherichia coli
Staph. aureus
What is the life cycle of A. caninum? (starting with adults in SI)
ADults in S.I. --> Eggs passed out in faeces --> L1 to L2 in as little as 5 days --> Then sheathed L3 on ground, can be either ingested (enter via injured buccal mucosa) or enter percutaneously, as well as ALD in tissues --> L3 migrate to the lungs --> L4 move to bronchi/trachea and are coughed up and swallowed --> move to SI
Diagnostically, how can you tell D. viviparus from D. arnfieldi?
D.viviparus: L1 in faeces (same with D. filaria)
D.arnfieldi: EGGS in faeces
What are inactivated vaccines also called? How are they made and what antigens are commonly preserved?
- Bacterins
- Made by inactivating the bacteria in formaldehyde, then preserved in phenol and also mixed with an adjuvant.
- Antigens included: fimbriae, capsule, outer membrane proteins, cell wall LPS, iron biding proteins and HSP, prototoxins and toxins/toxoids, and some other secreted antigens.
What are the clinical signs of each form of haemonchosis?
Hyperacute: SUDDEN DEATH
Acute: anaemia, submandibular oedema, ascites, dark faeces, dropping wool and inappetance.
Chronic: weight loss, weakness and inappetance.
Of the three strepts that may cause mastitis, which are caused by environmental factors and which are contagious?
S. Agalactiae: Contagious
S. dysgalactiae: Environmental
S. uberis: Environmental
What is the pathogenesis of Ostertagiosis?
Distension of the parasitized gastric gland lumen, this can then lead to either rupture of intercellular junctions or destruction of parietal cells and replacement with undifferentiated cells. With the ruptured junctions it allows for leakage of proteins into the lumen and this leads to hypoproteinaemia. Destruction of the parietal cells will lead to an increase in pH= bacterial overgrowth, and the increase fails to activate pepsinogen to pepsin and then pepsinogen leaks into the blood leading to increase plasma pepsinogen.
What superfamily does Trichinella spirals belong to? What are the modes of infection (4)?
Trichuroidea.
1) Predation
2) Carrion
3) Cannibalism
4) Ingestion of fresh faeces
How can resistance genes get transferred from one bacteria to another?
1) R-plasmids: mainly with G- bacteria and transposons that carry the anti-R genes insert into plasmids. May carry multiple resistances.

2) Conjugative transposons: promote their own transfer to other bacteria. And insert into chromosome or plasmid in bacteria. Most impt for G+ and very promiscuous.
What is the route of infection of Uncinaria stenocephala?
Oral Infection

- NO TRANSMAMMARY OR PERCUTANEOUS
Name a Metastrongyloides associated with cats? What is the IMH and what is the site of infection?
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
IMH: Molluscs
Site: lung parenchyma and small bronchioles
What is PGE?
Parasitic gastroenteritis: Generic term for disease caused by parasitic nematodes in gastrointestinal tract. Tends to be a disease of grazing stock and very common in young stock, since adults generally have strong acquired immunity.
What are the two equine group C streptococci? Which is zoonotic?
S. zooepidemicus -- Zoonotic
S.equi
What are the three forms of Ovine haemonchosis and what are the causes?
Hyperacute: up to 30, 000 worms
Acute: 2000 to 20,000 worms
Chronic: several hundred worms
What genera and species cause Ostertagiosis in sheep?
Teladorsagia circumcincta
What is the source of L3 build up on pastures in Ostertagiosis of sheep from July-October?
a) Eggs passed by ewes during periparturient rise

b) Eggs passed by lambs from 1st generation parasites established from overwintered larvae.

NOTE: Ewes very important with epidemiology of ovine Ostertagiosis.
What do each of the Group C equine strepts cause?
* S.equi = STRANGLES. Swollen LN, fever, discharge. Highly contagious.

* S.zooepidemicus= opportunistic 2' respiratory infections, wound, metritis etc.
What is the purpose of M-proteins? Which pathogen uses them?
Function to avoid opsonisation/phagocytosis. It is an alpha-coil that essentially keeps the pathogen. Each segment binds a different IR piece(i.e. binds fibrinogen, H etc)
Where does Heterakis gallinarum reside in its host? Normal?
Typical ascarids reside in small intestine BUT Heterakis gallinarum resides in LARGE INTESTINE.
What media can you use to differentiate between Strept species? What do each look like?
Edward's Media
S .uberis: black because it uses the esculin
S. agalactiae: Beta haemolysis
S. dysgalactiae: alpha haemolysis
What is the largest parasite found in the sheep abomasum (2-3cm)?
Haemonchus contortus
What is the intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica?
IMH: Amphibious small brown snail (Galba truncatula)
What are the clinical signs of Strangles?
Fever, loss of appetite, depression
marked snotty nasal discharge
LN abscessation (retropharyngeal & submandibular).
What are the virulence factors associated with S.equi?
- Two fibronectin binding proteins (for adhesion)
- Two M-like proteins (SeM and SzPSe)
- Hyaluronic acid capsule
- Toxins (Streptolysin S)
What is the life cycle of Fasciola hepatica (starting with adult flukes in sheep bile ducts)?
Adult flukes in sheep bile ducts --> eggs released in faeces (require embryonation outside host with H2O, 22C and ~9 days, light induces hatching) --> Miracidium "hatch" out and can infect the amphibious snails --> sporocyst form within snail and from 6-7 weeks they reproduce asexually within the snail --> when conditions appropriate the redia are released onto pasture and with proper light/temp/rainwater they cercaria leave the snail --> Cercaria loses tail and encyst on grass and are ingested --> FINAL HOST
Adults of this genera and species take on a "Y" shape when together. Which is the male/female?
Syngamus trachea

Male: small part
Female: large part
What is a naked DNA vaccine? What may a safety issue be?
Naked DNA vaccine: injection of naked DNA using plasmids encoding genes with functional eukaryotic promoters.

- This results in the expression of the gene in striated muscle at the site of injection.
- Safety issue: host body may develop an auto-immune reaction to DNA = just awesome times.
What is the first live, genetically modified bacterial vaccine licensed for use in the UK?
Equilis Strep E -- STRANGLES VACCINE
Of the resistance genes where there is inactivation of antibiotics, what are the two methods bacteria use to do so?
1) Hydrolysis: produce beta-lactamases which break down beta-lactam antibiotics (now need to make new drugs with added chains to prevent hydrolysis)
1a) B-lactamase resistant B-lactams: methicilin/ceftazidine
1b) B-lactamase inhibitors: Clavulonic acid, sulbactam, tazobactam.

2) Chemical modifications: adds chemical groups
2a) Aminoglycosides: enzymes carried on plasmids
2b) Chloramphenicol: add an acetyl group and prevents the prevention of protein synthesis = bacteria happy!
What is the PPP of Ostertagia ostertagi?
PPP: 21 days
What are the reasons for vaccinating?
1) To prevent infection or disease
2) Cost effective
3) Cheap
4) Efficient prevention
5) Profit for vets
What causes DA PLAGUE!
Yersenia pestis
Aerobic
Non-spore forming
Non-motile
Acid fast rods
Catalase positive
Mycobacteria!
What are 6 species of Mycobacteria are of veterinary importance?
1) M. tuberculosis
2) M. bovis
3) M. avium ss paratuberculosis
4) M. avium complex
5) M. leprae
6) M. lepraemurium/ulcerans
What are the virulence factors of Mycobacteria?
a) Mycolic acid: resist phagocytic digestion
b) Sulfatides: prevent phago-lysosome fusion and prevent phagocyte activation.
c) Trehalose di-mycolate: inhibits chemotaxis of WBC, prevent phago-lysosome fusion and digestion.
d) Lipoarabinomannan: prevents phagocyte activation and digestion.
e) Mycosides: prevent intracellular killing and digestion.
What are five genera of the bovine small intestine?
Cooperia, Nematodirus, Trichostrongylus, Bunostomum, and Toxocara
What is the most important pig nematode?
Ascaris suum
Give examples of Live vaccines currently in use (5).
1) Bordetella bronchiseptica
2) Bacillus anthracis
3) Chlamydia abortus
4) Salmonella enteritis
5) Trichophyton verrucosum
Tissue dwelling
Insect vector as IMH
Primitive forms release eggs; evolved release L1(Mf)

-- Superfamily?
FILAROIDEA!!
Angiostrongylus vasorum
Host, IMH, site of infection?
Host: Dogs, foxes
IMH: Molluscs
Site: right ventricle, pulmonary artery
Compare small and large strongylidae.
Small: short PPP (8 weeks), non-migrating life cycle, may have prolonged arrested development (>2yrs). AL stages resistant to anthelmintics

Large: Long PPP (6mo), migratory life cycle, larval stages pathogenic, and very sensitive to anthelmintics.
What are the clinical signs of an infection by B. phlebotomy?
Anaemia, hypoalbuminaemia, weight loss, sometimes diarrhoea, pedal dermatitis.

Note: several worms needed for clinical signs. >2000 worms leads to death.
Which is more problematic, open or closed M.bovis infections?
Open: the organisms are actively being coughed out and could potentially be taken up by someone/something else.
What are the pathologies assoc. with Trichostrongylus in sheep SI?
- Enteritis
- Mucus and mucosal haemorrhage
- Lamina propria infiltrated w/ inflammatory cells
- villi shortened/villus atrophy
- lesions become more localized as resistance develops
What are two species of Listeria which are of importance (cause disease)?
Listeria monocytogenes
Listeria ivanovii
What are the genera and species of nematodes found in the pig stomach?
Hyostrongylus rubidus
Trichostrongylus axei
How do cattle get infected with M.bovis and how do they transmit the infection?
- Can become infected by being on contaminated pastures (badger urine/faeces, bronchial pus on pastures or in water troughs).
- Can transmit to other cattle via respiratory droplets
Which is more pathogenic:
O. venulosum or O. columbianum?
O. columbianum is more pathogenic because of its nodule formation.
What do the following antibiotics do?
Rifampicin
Polymixins
Nitromidazoles
- Rifampicin: Affects transcription and is impt for TB treatment
- Polymixins: pores into cell membrane and has antimicrobial peptides
- Nitromidazoles: disrupts DNA, only active against anaerobes and protozoa. Banned in FPA.
What causes chicken TB?
Mycobacteria avium ss avium
What is an Aro-mutant of bacterial pathogens and why are they useful? Give examples of pathogens where this has been successful.
Aro-mutants have been mutated (duh!) so that one or more of their genes are attenuated. This then inhibits their growth in vivo because they are no longer able to convert PABA to folate (Bacteria unable to get folate from host :. limited growth). This makes for a nice live vaccine because their presence will mount an immune response but they are avirulent.

- Salmonella aro mutants ( typhi and tyhphimurium).
- Intervet Equilis StrepE is an aro vaccine vs. S.equi
What is the cause of Johne's disease?
Mycobacteria avium ss paratuberculosis
What are atypical forms of Bovine Ostertagiosis?
1) Early Season Type 1 where if calves are put out early (March/early April) there are sometimes enough overwintered L3 to cause disease 4-6 weeks afar turnout.

2) Ostertagiosis in adult cattle is not normal because they have acquired immunity. Can occur if they hadn't been exposed previously (i.e. move unexposed to contaminated area).
What species of Cooperia are found in the sheep small intestine?
Cooperia curticei
Gram positive
Rods
ubiquitous in environment
non-spore forming
non-motile
Incl. corynebacteria and nocardia...
ACTINOBACTERIA!
Describe parasite refugium.
The proportion of parasites not exposed to anthelmintic chemical compounds at points when the animal is dosed.
Name a genera and species of the superfamily Strongyloidea found in the bovine small intestine.
Bunostomum phlebotomum
What are the specific virulence factors of Y.pestis?
1)Fraction 1 antigen:capsule around the bacterium
2)HPI: for iron acquisition
3)YMT protein: on plasmid is a phospholipase D req. for survival in flea midgut.
4) Hms locus to allow for transmission from flea midgut to subcutaneous
5) Pla: plasma encoded to allow dissemination from a subcu site to LN or blood stream.
What is a live vaccine? How are they made?
Live vaccines are live microbes that have lost their ability to cause disease.
- Heat bacteria until attenuated
- Allow for multiple passages on lab media
- Next passage in cells from a different species
- Allow to colonize in a different host species
- Expose to sublethal chemicals.
- This produces a non-pathogenic form to be a vaccine. The pathogen retains all surface antigens, and replicate within the host but with no disease. This can then stimulate CMI and AB both locally and systemically.
What two superfamilies are included in ruminant lungworms?
1) Trichostrongyloidea
2) Metastrongyloidea
What are 4 species of mycobacteria that cause cutaneous infections?
M. leprae
M. lepreamurium
M. ulcerans
M. marinum
What is the PPP of A. vasorum?
PPP: ~7weeks
What does Ancylostoma brazliensis cause in cats &dogs?
Tends to be non-pathogenic since it is a non-blood sucker BUT it can lead to protein losing enteropathy
How do inactivated vaccine work to immunize the patient?
- The vaccines contain enough antigen to stimulate the host's defences to produce Ab. Usually they will need 2 doses to make sure a significant response is generated for future protection.
When are lambs most susceptible to infection by Nematodius battus? Why?
Most susceptible from 3 weeks to 3 months.
This coincides with them beginning to graze and they have not built up a resistance to N. battus yet.
With regards to leprosy, what are the two forms? Which is more serious/physically damaging?
1) Tuberculoid leprosy: little disfigurement where the bacterial organism is well maintained in granulomatous tissues.

*2) Lepromatous leprosy: disfigurement, with nodular swellings full of bacteria! Anaesthesia of periphery leading to the shortening of toes, fingers etc in response to repeated unfelt trauma (spontaneous amputations).
How can you tell Trichostrongylus eggs apart?
You can't! haha Well, Nematodirus eggs are significantly larger (2x the size).
What are the clinical signs of Type 1 Ostertagiosis?
Profuse watery diarrhoea
Weight loss
Sometimes submandibular oedema
Morbidity high, but mortality low
What are three genera that are Gram positive rods?
1) Actinobacteria
2) Listeria
3) Erysipelothrix
What is the standard pathology of actinobacteria?
Chronic inflammation
Focal lesions or dissemination
Granulomatous lesions
How does alteration in target site help with antibiotic resistance? Give examples.
1) B-lactams: they require that the bacteria has a penicillin-binding protein (PBP). Bacteria may acquired an altered binding protein (S.aureus and MRSA)

2) Macrolides: Chemical modification of the antibiotic binding site, where the resistance enzyme will methylate 2 adenosine residues on 23S rRNA (prevents antibiotic binding).
What are the three plague syndromes in man?
1) Bubonic
2) Septicaemic
3) Pneumonic
What virulence factors does Actinobacilli possess?
- Capsules: only by A. pleuropneumoniae and A. capsulatus
- Lipopolysaccharides: only A.pleuropneumoniae shown to cause lesions
- Exotoxins: Extracellular RTX toxin. Produced by A.ligniersii, A, equuli, A. suis.
Discuss the pathogenesis of N.battus.
-Pathology mainly due to larval stages when they disrupt the SI mucosa.
-Most damage occurs 10-12d after infection
-Leads to enteritis and villus atrophy
What are three species of the genera Trichostrongylus that are in the ovine Small Intestine?
T. colubriformis
T. vitrinus
T. capricola
Which of chloramphenicol, macrolides and lincosamides do the following?

1) Inhibit peptidyl transferase
2) Inhibit translocation
Chloramphenicol: 1
Macrolides: 1 and 2
Lincosamides: 1 and 2
Strictly aerobic
Widely distributed
non-motile and non-spore forming
aerial hyphae
acid fast
actinobacteria….hint
Nocardia spp!
What are the three clinical forms of Nocardia?
Cutaneous
Respiratory
Systemic
What are toxoid vaccines? What are they nice?
They are composed of toxins "taken" from bacteria (either the supernatant or secretion) and treated by either heat or chemicals (formaldehyde).

- The toxin has been destroyed and is no longer to able to cause disease but is still capable to cause an immune reaction.
- The stimulate the production of toxin neutralizing antibodies.
- Also, commonly contain adjuvants.
Discuss the characteristics of the superfamily Metastrongyloidea.
Indirect life cycle
Clinically asymptomatic/mild
IMH: molluscs (except: Met for pigs=EARTHWORMS, or Oslerus osleri: DIRECT!!)
What species of Trichostrongylus (genera) is found in the bovine Small Intestine?
Trichostrongylus colubriformis
What are the previous names of Truperella…
Corynebacterium --> Arcanobacterium --> Trueperella
What are the virulence factors of T.pyogenes?
1) Protease (necrosis/suppuration)
2) Haemolytic exotoxin (dermonecrotic)
3) Neuraminidase (to adhere)
4) Pyolysin (PLO) put holes in host cell membranes, leakage of cell contents and bacteria now has access to nutrients.
What are the clinical features of Glander's disease?
- acute septicaemia with fever
- Mucopurulent nasal discharges and respiratory signs
- Chronic disease more common presenting with nasal, pulmonary and cutaneous forms.
- Ulcerative nodules develop on the mucosa of the nasal turbinates and nasal septum.
- May day after several months or survive.
What is the genera and species of Strongyloidea found in the ovine small intestine? What is the PPP?
Bunostomum trigonocephalum

PPP: 1-2 months
What are some selective toxicities used by antimicrobials (hint: 1) active against bacteria and not host)
1) active against bacteria and not host
2) Targets components specific to microbes (like peptidoglycan)
3) Metabolic pathway's not present in vertebrates (i.e. folate biosynthesis)
4) A microbial enzyme has a higher affinity than vertebrate enzyme (i.e. dihydrofolate reductase)
5) Structural/compositional differences btw bacterial and eukaryotic component (ribosomes vs. chromosomes)
6) Antibiotic is only actively transported or activated by the microbe (tetracyclines, amino glycosides, metronidazole).
What are three impt species of Actinomyces? Place in order of importance!
A.bovis > A. viscosus > A. suis
What is the PPP of Metastrongyles in the Pig?
PPP: 4 weeks
What are important syndromes caused by Salmonella?
a) Enteritis: results in diarrhoea, but remains in GIT
b) Systemic: spread throughout body via blood
c) Chronic infection and carrier states occur
d) Zoonoses! AHHHH
Non-acid fast Actinobacteria genera.
non-motile
non-spore forming
microaerophilic or anaerobic
produce pyogenic, granulomatous rxns
ACTINOMYCES!
What does ALD stand for and why is this stage important?
Arrested Larval Development: stage where arrested L3 are hypo biotic :. reduced metabolic activity, and resistant to common anthelmintics as well as environmental influences.
Discuss the transmammary route of Toxocara canis.
L3 are infective in the milk and were arrested larvae in the b**ch, but along with the transplacental L3 migrating to the foetal lungs, other migrate to the mammary glands for transmammary infection. These can remain in the milk for up to 5 weeks post-parturition. Note: there is no migratory phase since the L3 will go straight to SI via GIT.
What are four mechanisms of antibiotic resistance?
1) Inactivation of the antibiotic
2) Active efflux of the antibiotic
3) Alteration in the antibiotic target on the microbe
4) Metabolic bypass
What is the common name for an infection in cattle by Actinomyces bovis? What is it commonly mistaken for (and name the genera and sp)?
Lumpy Jaw!

Mistaken with Wooden Tongue (Actinobacillus ligniersii)
What does Actinomyces suis cause in pigs?
Mastitis in pigs where trauma initiates the disease.
What is an adjuvant? Why are they added to vaccines?
- aluminum hydroxide, aluminum phosphate, aluminum, mineral oil (liquid paraffin).
- They are used to increase the immune response to a vaccine.
- They cause a local irritation and swelling at the site of vaccination.
Small pleomorphic bacteria
Gram positive rods
Look like "Chinese letters"
Common commensals
CORYNEBACTERIA SPP!
How does pathogenesis of Salmonella Enteritis differ from systemic?
Enteritis: Non-host adapted, attracts PMN for a massive acute response. Causes diarrhoea via inflame of the gut. Stays here!

Systemic: Host adapted, attracts MO and infection continues to LN while bacteria is within MO. Continues to other organs.
Why do you want to test for Mf before giving a prophylactic?
If Mf positive, should be careful giving prophylaxis because if treated it causes the lysis of circulating Mf. This lysis causes an anaphylactic shock because of their detection via the IR. Could lead to death!
What are three sites of action for the majority of antibiotics?
1) Peptidoglycan synthesis
2) Protein synthesis
3) DNA biosynthesis and replication
What nematode in the pig stomach, has a similar pathology to Ostertagiosis? What are the clinical signs?
Hyostrongylus rubidus
Clinical signs:
- inappetance
- anaemia
- Loss of condition
- Reduced fertility
Gram Negative
Rods
Obligate aerobes
Oxidise CHO
Oxidase and Catalase positive
Motile by one or more polar flagella
Grow well on MAC
Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia sp.
What are the two groups of Corynebacteria?
1) C. renale group
2) Diphtheria group
How can you administer a Live Vaccine?
- Intranasally for resp tract (B.bronchiseptica)
- Orally for intestinal or lactogenic/transovarian immunity.
What are three species of Trichuris of importance?
T. vulplis
T. suis
T. trichuria
What are problems with these traditional vaccines: Subunit, live and killed?
Subunit: Critical epitopes may be destroyed on inactivation, they are poorly immunogenic and may still be toxic if improperly treated.

Live: Prod'd in non-specific methods and the basis for attenuation is unknown. Because the attenuation is difficult and not well understood it is possible for them.

Killed: Usually get good antibody response but little/no CMI or mucosal IgG. Tend to have poor efficacy and therefore the response produced is irrelevant.
What is the PPP of Ascaris suum?
PPP: 7-9 weeks
What are three species in the C.renale group?
a) C.renale
b) C.cystitidis
c) C.pilosum
What do the C.renale group commonly cause clinically?
- cystitidis, pyelonephritis and balanoposthitis (don't google!)
What are two genera of the bovine large intestine?
Oesophagostomum
Trichuris
What are the virulence factors of Corynebacterium renale group?
- Pili for adherence
- Renalin for cell lysis (helps cause blood clots)
- Urease to break down urea giving bacteria access to urea comp.
- Caseinase allows access to nutrients
What are the four routes of transmission of Toxocara canis?
1. Oral
2. Transmammary
3. Transplacental
4. Paratenic host
What are 4 Enterobacterial Surface Antigens?
1) Flagella 'H' antigen
2) Capsule 'K' antigen
3) LPS 'O' antigen
4) Fimbriae/Pili 'F (K)' antigen
Gram Negative
Rods
Motile (except one…)
Bipolar staining in Giemsa
Birds act as amplifier hosts. Fleas and rats have been impt….
YERSINIA spp!
When are L3 activated for the transplacental transmission of T.canis?
Arrested larvae are re-activated 3 weeks pre-partum.
What genera and species are assoc. with Trichostrongyloidea and are lungworms of the ruminant (what is host mammal)?
- Dictyocaulus viviparus (cattle)
- Dictyocaulus arnfieldi (horse/donkey)
- Dictyocaulus filaria (sheep/goat)
-
What are the three species associated with diphtheria group?
C.diphteriae
C. pseudotuberculosis
C.ulcerans
What is a component vaccine?
- Contain either one or more antigens that have been purified
- May incl: toxoid, secreted antigens, or structural proteins.
- Popularity is increasing and require moderate amounts of antigen to produce.
- Administer with an adjuvant.
Which lungworms will you find L1 in the faeces of sheep? Which is pathogenic?
1) Dictyocaulus filaria (PATHOGENIC)
2) Muellerius capillaris
3) Protostrongyles rufescens
Which of the three species in the diphtheria group are pathogenic?
1) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
2) Corynebacterium ulcerans
Which Type of ostertagiosis is more common in sheep? What are the clinical signs?
Type 1 most common.
Clinical signs:
-weight loss/failure to gain weight
-intermittent diarrhoea (less dramatic than with bovine)
-appetite loss (dehydration)
How does C.pseudotuberculosis gain entry into hosts and what happens afterwards?
Gains entry to host via wounds, and sometimes via transfer of pus from one infected animal to anima (flies or direct contact).
- Once the bacteria enter they drain to the local LN and spread w/i the animal from there.
What are the virulence factors of C. pseudo tuberculosis?
1) PLD (phospholipase D)
2) Mycolic acid
3) Serine protease
4) Siderophores
Haemophilus, Histophilus, Bibersteinia -- These genera belong to what family?
PASTEURELLA!
What is a cause of "circling disease" in cattle? What other clinical signs can you see with this infection?
Listeria spp!
Animal circles in one direction.
- may show signs of unilateral fascial paralysis and difficulty swallowing. Sometimes fever, blindness and head pressing.
- Eventually paralysis and death in 2-3 days
* if pregnant, causes abortion after crossing placentomes.
* subclinical mastitis
What are the pathogenic mechanisms of Listeriosis?
- They are facultative intracellular pathogens, :. must survive w/i the macrophage and epithelial cells.
- They are taken up by host cells via the use of Internalin
- Once inside the cell they are able to avoid phagolysosome fusion via listeriolysin and then are able to multiply in the host cells cytoplasm.
- They can then spread laterally to adjacent cells with actin based motility (Act A-- form tails).
What causes Glander's disease? (Gram negative rod)
Burkholderia mallei
What are foods associated with listeria?
Milk products: raw unpasteurized
Cheeses: feta, camembert, blue
Meat/Poultry: raw, cooked ready to eat, undercooked frankfurters.
Seafood: fresh frozen and processed seafoods.
Which worm has a watch spring appearance? (Hint: Sheep small intestine)
Cooperia curticei
Pig commensals! Diamond shaped skin lesions can be produced!
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
List factors that impact the number of parasites found in the faeces.
1) # adult parasites
2) level of host IR
3) Age of the host
4) Species of the parasite
5) Stage of the infection
6) Parturition/lactation
7) Consistency of faeces
Gram Negative
Non-motile
Pleomorphic cocco-bacilli
Oxidase and Catalase positive
RTX
Pastereulla Family
What are four Strongyloidea associated with small animals?
1) Ancylostoma caninum
2) Ancylostoma braziliense
3) Ancylostoma tubaeforme
4) Uncinaria stenocephala
Cause of spirochaetal diarrhoea in pigs, chickens, dogs and humans.
Not bloody
Give false brush border
Brachyspira pilosicoli
What are the clinical signs of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?
Mild
Chronic moist cough
Cough and sneezing after being handled
Mild dyspnoea
What is a PSI? Examples?
Protein synthesis inhibitors: show selective toxicity for bacteria because of the difference in the ribosomes or because they are actively transported into the cytoplasm of bacteria but NOT eukaryotes.

- Aminoglycosides: Streptomycin, Gentamicin, Amikacin
What are the components of a Gram Negative Bacterial Cell wall? (starting form inside going out)
Inner membrane
Peptidoglycan layer
Outer membrane
Lipopolysaccharide (or LOS)
Capsule (sometimes)
What is the PPP of Oesophagostomum dentatum/ quadrispinulatum?
PPP: 18-21days
What genera require X-factor or V-factors (or both)?
Haemophilus
What are three methods of genetic antibiotic resistance transfer? (6)
1) Bacteriophage
2) Conjugative plasmid
3) Conjugative transposon
4) Conjugation
5) Transduction
6) Transformation
7) Mutation
8) Naked DNA
What are some species of Haemophilus of veterinary importance? (5)
- H. paragallinarum
- H. parasuis
- H. agni
- H. felis
- H.somni
Which Enterobacteriaceae are lactose fermenting? Which are not?
LF: Escherichia coli, Klebsiella

NLF: Salmonella, Proteus, Yersinia
What causes Glasser's disease in pigs? What clinical signs will you see with this?
Haemophilus parasuis

- swollen joints and lameness
- fever and pleuritis
- possibly meningitis
Discuss the epidemiology of N. battus?
-Ewes play little role in epidemiology.
-Lamb-to-lamb disease
-Large #'s of L3's hatch in spring from eggs passed onto pasture from last year's lambs.
-L3's die off quickly in warmer spring/summer.
-Susceptible lambs on pasture must coincide with L3 hatching
-Risk of disease also dependent on weather!
What are the clinical signs of fowl coryza? What pathogen causes this (Hint: gram negative coccobacilli)?
- Inflammation of the turbinates and sinus epithelium
- disruption of the turbinates
- Acute air sacculitis

Haemophilus paragallinarum
How can we control infection of Trichinella spirals?
1) Meat inspection
2) Prohibit uncooked food waste being sold to pigs
3) Control of rodent pop'n in piggeries
4) Proper carcasse disposal
5) Consumer education
Where does Bacitracin work on bacterial cells, and how would you administer it?
Bacitracin acts to prevent the transfer of precursors across the cell membrane.

- Apply topically because this antimicrobial is toxic internally.
What genera are included in Enterobacteriaceae (8 total)?
- Escherichia
- Salmonella
- Proteus
- Klebsiella
- Edwardsiella
- Yersinia
- Shigella
- Citrobacter
What is the cause of Wooden Tongue?
Actinobacilli ligniersii
What is the McMaster Method?
Eggs are separated from faecal debris by flotation unsaturated salt solution. Nematode eggs float in liquid of specific gravity 1.1-1.2.
What is host specific to swine, and causes pleuropneumoniae? What are the clinical signs of this pathogen?
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
- Trembling
- anorexia
- dyspnoea
- fever
How would you diagnose actinobacilli?
- Easy to isolate from lesions
- colonies tend to be sticky on plate
- A. pleuropneumoniae require V-factors and :. can isolate on chocolate agar or on blood with Staph.
- A. ligniersii needs to be cultured on blood agar in CO2
How are inactivated vaccines administered and what do they cause?
IM parenteral administration, 2 or more injections.

- This elicits IgM and IgG antibodies to be released but produces only a poor local immunity and some cellular immunity.
- Often a route for passive immunity (dose mom before pups).
Which pasteurella are of veterinary importance (genera)?
Pasteurella multocida
Mannheimia Haemolytica
Bibersteinia trehalosi
Which bacteria causes Shipping fever?
Mannheimia haemolytica
Gram negative
Rods or coccobacilli
Usually motile and flagellated
Oxidase negative
Grow well on MacConkey
Enterobacteriaceae
What virulence factor(s) does Haemophilus possess?
Capsule- esp. H. paragallinarum & H. parasuis
Exotoxins: H.somni has haemolysins
Proteases
Binding nucleotides
Outer membrane proteins that bind to Fc
Host specificity
What is the most important route of transmission of Toxocara cati? Which route (in comp to canis) are they missing?
Transmammary is the most impt.
- There is NO TRANSPLACENTAL
What is an approved method of treating canines with D.immitis. Risks?
Can treat dogs with melarsomine but need to be very careful. It is an arsenical compound and :. an overdose can be fatal. If this drug is not available, antibiotics are thought to help since they will kill their bacterial endosymbionts (Wolbachia).
Compare infections of D. immitis in cats vs. dogs.
Cats: reduced susceptibility, adult worms live 2-3yr, usually <6 adults per host, transient Mf, lungs are most affected and can potentially be fatal, no approved Tx for cats!

Dogs: very susceptible, adult worms live 5-7yr, persistent Mf, heart and lungs affected, depends on worm burden for severity, melarsomine Tx

There's more…look it up :)
Where would you find L1 of Oslerus osleri?
You would find L1 in the sputum or faeces.
Where do Beta-Lactams act and what are some examples?
B-lactams act to prevent the cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains.

- Penicillin and Glycopeptides
Infects large intestine -- Leads to swine dysentery (7-14 filaments) -- diarrhoea tends to be bloody
Bracyspira hyodysenteriae
Cooperia oncophora
common in temperate regions incl. UK. Tends to be part of a mixed infection but can contribute to PGE.
What two life cycles does Trichinella spirals have? Which are found in the UK?
Has a sylvatic cycle and domestic cycle
Neither SHOULD be in the UK though there is an increased risk with Ireland still having it.
What are the clinical signs of Trichuris suis in pigs? Where does this infection occur?
Clinical signs:
- reduced growth rate
- loose faecesto overt scouring
- mucous in faeces
- occasionally fresh blood in faeces in severe cases.
What is the PPP of Dictyocaulus viviparus?
PPP: 26 days
What are the steps for the biosynthesis of peptidoglycan?
1) Synthesize precursors in the cytoplasm
2) Transport precursors across cell membrane
3) Addition of precursors to peptidoglycan
4) Cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains
Which family of nematodes are common in horses? How can they be separated?
Strongylidae
- Classified as being small (Cyathostomins), or large (Strongylinae).
What do cyathostomins cause?
Protein losing enteropathy
What parasite causes summer sores in horses?
Habronema microstoma
Which parasite cause intense perineal irritation and can lead to rubbing.
Oxyuris equi
Parascaris equorum
Parasite of equine small intestine.
- common in foals and yearlings
- Large worm ~40cm
- Migrating larvae cause damage to liver via focal haemorrhage and fibrosis, or lungs with focal haemorrhage, lymphocyte infiltration and nodules.
What are the clinical signs of Parascaris equorum?
1) Ill thrift due to adult worms in the SI

2) Respiratory signs due to migrating larvae
Which parasite is pathogenic in Strongyloides westeri?
Females cause pathogenicity
How does Brucella become a persistent infection?
Survive w/i host macrophages and inhibits phagolysose fusion and possess a Type IV secretion system.

They do not alarm the host because their LPS is very poorly pro-inflammatory ( in comp to E.coli)
What is the PPP of Oxyuris equip?
PPP: 5 months
Define active immunity and passive immunity.
Active immunity: develops as a result of infection (colonization or disease) with an microbe.

Passive immunity: transfer of maternal antibodies to offspring or injection of antibodies.
What superfamily do Flukes belong to?
Trematoda!
What are the levels of attenuation and what could be the result to the vaccinated animal?
Under attenuated: BOOM DEAD

Ideal Attenuation: Immune

Over attentuation: no immunity
What is the intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica?
Gulba truncatula
What is a pathogenicity island? How many does Salmonella have?
PI: large chromosomal regions that encode virulence genes (toxins, adhesions, invasions etc)

- Salmonella sp. potentially have 2 PI.
What does TTSS stand for? What is it's purpose?
TTSS: Type three secretion system
- Used by pathogenic bacterial species to inject effector proteins into host cells. In the case of Salmonella, these effector proteins encourage the reorganization of hot cell membrane to allow them to be taken into the host cell.
What is the cause of Salmonella enteritis?
Largely due to the destruction of epithelium via large IR infiltration and massive Neutrophil influx caused by Salmonella.
Which pathogenicity island is essential for replication within a macrophage?
SPI 2
Gram negative
small coccobacilli
Oxidase positive
Visualised with ZN
Requires complex media
Predilection for male and female repro tracts
Zoonotic
Brucella
What are examples of extra intestinal infections by E.coli?
Mastitis, UTI, Septicaemia, pyometra, air sacculitis, cellulitis
What are the virulence factors of E.coli?
1) Siderophore (Aerobactin or Enterochelin)
2) Toxins (haemolysins, Cytotoxic necrotising factor 1)
3) Fimbriae (pilli): for adhesion to host cell surface
Which has a higher affinity for iron (E.coli)?
Enterochelin > Aerobactin
Which E.coli causes traveller's diarrhoea, and diarrhoea of many young mammals?
Enterotoxigenic E.coli
What two toxins are produced by E.coli?
1) Heat Labile toxin: highly immunogenic (A subunit is enzymatic, B subunit binds receptors)

2) Heat Stabile toxin: non immunogenic
Where do Cycloserine and Fosfomycin work?
Works in the bacterial cytoplasm during synthesis of peptidoglycan precursors (they prevent the synthesis of the precursors).
Compare the diarrhoea caused by Salmonella and E.coli.
Salmonella: Invades cells and causes inflammatory diarrhoea. There will be high numbers of WBC in the poo and may be bloody.

E.coli: Pathogen remains extracellular but causes non-inflammatory diarrhoea. No/little WBC and no internal invasion. These tend to have watery poo.
What is an AE lesion and which E.coli is this associated with?
AE lesion= Attaching and effacing lesion.
- Occurs with Enterpathogenic E.coli
- Note that you only get the problems where the bacteria has attached and a pedestal has formed.
What are two typical syndromes assoc with EHEC? What does EHEC stand for…?
1) Haemorrhagic colitis: sudden onset of severe abdominal cramps/pain
2) Haemolytic uraemic syndrome: haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, and antibiotics may make it worse.

EHEC: Enterohaemorrhagic E.coli
ID50: what does this mean?
ID=Infection dose
ID50= the number of organisms required for 50% of the population to show signs of infection.
What are 5 reservoirs of EHEC?
1) Mostly in intestine of cattle
2) Chickens, deer, sheep and pigs
3) Does not make carrier animals sick
4) Meat becomes contaminated in slaughtering process
5) Bacteria on udder and equipment can contaminate cows.
What virulence factors does Brucella melitensis possess?
Type IV secretion system
What is passive immunity and why is it important?
Passive immunity is that which the mother passes on to her offspring.

- Requires first administration of a vaccine and then a boost prior to parturition.
- Can either cross the placenta in some species, or in many farm animals it can be found in the colostrum/milk.
Anaerobic
Large spirochaetes
Grow on blood agar
Beta-haemolysis
Live in LI of mammals and birds: some cause inflammation, diarrhoea and dysentery
Brachyspira
What is a cardinal feature of Brucella
ABORTION
What are species of importance (Brucella)?
B. abortus
B. melitensis
B. ovis
B. canis
B. suis
B. neotomal
Gram negative
Coccobacilli
Strict aerobe
oxidase positive
Non-sporing, non-motile
Don't ferment CHO
Respiratory tract pathogens
BORDETELLA
What are some species of Bordetella that are important and the mammalian species they're assoc. with?
B. bronchiseptica: cats/dogs/pigs/ others
B. parapertussis: sheep/humans
B. avium: turkeys
B. pertussis: humans
Discuss the pathogenesis of Bordetella bronchiseptica.
- Initial attachment of B.bronchiseptica to ciliated cells
- Tight adhesion to cilia. Production of toxins and paralyze the reap. cilia.
- Loss of cilia, interference with innate specific immune response and accumulation of mucus.
What are the virulence factors of Bordetella?
Fimbriae
Filamentous haemagglutinin (FHA)
Pertactin
TTSS
Toxins: adenylate cyclase toxin, tracheal cytotoxin, dermonecrotic toxin
Discuss the pathogenesis atrophic rhinitis.
- initial attachment of B.bronchiseptica to ciliated cells
- tight adhesions to cilia, prod'n of toxins, and paralyse cilia
- Loss of cilia, interference with innate and specific immune response and accumulation of mucus. May allow colonization with P.multocida
What are polymicrobial bacteria?
Foot Rot: Dichelobacter nodosus
- Fusobacterium necrophorum
- Trueperella pyogenes
- Spirochaetes
** GRAM NEGATIVE ANAEROBES**
Which is less sensitive to antibiotics, Gram positive or Gram Negative? Why?
Gram Negative are less sensitive because there outer membrane provides another barrier that can prevent antibiotic action.
Name 4 genera that are obligate intracellular.
Chlamydia, Coxiella, Anaplasma, Lawsonia
What are some target genes for attenuating bacteria?
1) Genes for virulence factors (toxins etc)
2) Regulatory genes
3) metabolic pathway genes
4) Stress response genes
Discuss the infection cycle of Chlamydia (starting form).
Infective form (EB) --> adherence to cell membrane --> Entry by endocytosis --> prevention of phago-lysosome fusion --> replicative (RB) --> Division-formation of "inclusion" --> Differentiation to infective form --> Exit from infected cells and can then reinfect other cells.
What are the pathogenic mechanisms of Chlamydia?
- Cytopathic effect: interferes with metabolism cytolysis
- "PAMP" activity: induces IFN, IL1, IL6, TNFalpha
- Acute inflam: neutrophils, macrophage
-Delayed type hypersensitivity
Chlamydia abortus: How does the rate of abortion change with exposure?
First exposure: 30% abort
Second exposure: 5% abort
What causes Tick Borne Fever?
Anaplasma phagocytophilum
How does Anaplasma phagocytophilum cause problems?
Tick haemolymph --> inoculation by tick bite --> infection of PMN --> Cytokine release (Neutropenia) --> immunocompromise or leads to fever/abortion/reduced milk yield or reduced weight gain. OR secondary infections and then tick pyaemia, systemic pasteurellosis, looping ill of listeriosis
What causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetti
What are characteristics of mollicutes?
Small genome
physiologically restricted
lack cell wall
sterols present in cell membrane
What are the genera of mollicutes?
Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma
Spiroplasma
Anaeroplasma
Acholeplasma
What is the difference between antibiotics and antimicrobials?
Antibiotics: microbial origins
Antimicrobial: chemical synthesized
What is the approach taken for a resistant infection?
- Avoid it :)
- Is the bacteria significant
- interpreting antibiotic sensitivity testing
- using antibiotics effectively
- alterations to antibiotics
- infection control
What is the PPP of Liver Fluke in Sheep?
PPP: 10-12 weeks
Discuss the epidemiology of Fasciolosis.
1) Availability of snail habitat (muddy areas etc)
2) Moisture (increases snail breeding, prod'n of larval stages in snail and egg dev)
3) Temperature (mean day/night of >10C)