• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/35

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

35 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1) Where in the kidney is blood initially filtered to form urine?

A) the renal capsule


B) efferent arterioles


C) the collecting duct


D) the nephron


E) the renal pyramids

D) the nephron
2) Which of the following structures allows fetal blood vessels to exchange nutrients and wastes with the mother's blood vessels?

A) the uterus


B) the uterine tubes


C) the placenta


D) the cervix


E) the clitoris

C) the placenta
3) Mature sperm cells are stored in a male's

A) testes.


B) vas deferens.


C) prostate gland.


D) prepuce.


E) epididymis.

E) epididymis.
4) At what age is a young female most susceptible to urinary tract infections?

A) at birth


B) 3 years old


C) 18 years old


D) 10 years old


E) 12 years old

B) 3 years old
5) Microbial infection of the bladder is called

A) cystitis.


B) ectopic.


C) prostatitis.


D) pyelonephritis.


E) bacteriosis.

A) cystitis.
6) Which of the following transmits leptospirosis?

A) infected animal urine


B) infected animal bites


C) humans infected with leptospirosis


D) infected animal feces


E) droplet nuclei

A) infected animal urine
7) During the spring calving season a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel nauseous and achy. After he develops a headache and vomiting, he goes to a clinic. A microscopic exam of a urine sample reveals long thin microbes which move very rapidly in a corkscrewing pattern. The man may have contracted

A) chancroid.


B) glomerulonephritis.


C) leptospirosis.


D) staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome.


E) trichomoniasis.

C) leptospirosis
8) The majority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome occur in

A) newly delivered mothers.


B) uncircumcised males.


C) anyone with a Staphylococcus aureus infection.


D) nasal surgery patients.


E) menstruating women.

E) menstruating women.
9) Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial vaginosis frequently used to confirm diagnosis?

A) an abnormal vaginal discharge.


B) an acidic vaginal pH.


C) fever and rash.


D) the presence of buboes


E) the presence of clue cells

E) the presence of clue cells
10) What type of infection is candidiasis?

A) yeast


B) bacterial


C) viral


D) protozoan


E) spirochete

A) yeast
11) Which of the following is associated with Candida infections?

A) gummas


B) pseudohyphae


C) reticulate bodies


D) pelvic inflammatory disease


E) lymphogranuloma venereum

B) pseudohyphae
12) Untreated infection of males with Neisseria gonorrhoeae may result in

A) gummas.


B) sterility.


C) orchitis.


D) glomerulonephritis.


E) penile cancer.

B) sterility.
13) Ophthalmia neonatorum is an infection caused by

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.


B) Staphylococcus aureus.


C) Gardnerella vaginalis.


D) Candida albicans.


E) Treponema pallidum.

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
14) Which of the following contributes to the invasiveness of Treponema pallidum?

A) hyaluronidase


B) fimbriae


C) lipooligosaccharide in the cell wall


D) TSST


E) IgA protease

A) hyaluronidase
15) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gonorrhea?

A) It is easily confused with chancroid.


B) The causative agent can grow on most mucous membranes of the body.


C) Women usually experience severe symptoms early in infection.


D) Asymptomatic infections have no long-term consequences.


E) Gonorrhea produces good long-term specific immunity.

B) The causative agent can grow on most mucous membranes of the body.
16) Neisseria gonorrhoeae most commonly infects which of the following in females?

A) the uterus


B) the vagina


C) the cervix


D) the fallopian tubes


E) the ovaries

C) the cervix
17) The presence of Gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis is diagnostic for infection by

A) human herpesvirus 2.


B) Treponema pallidum.


C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.


D) Chlamydia trachomatis.


E) Mycoplasma hominis.

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
18) The typical sign of primary syphilis is

A) a chancre at the site of infection.


B) a widespread rash.


C) lymphadenopathy.


D) gummas in various organs.


E) paralysis.

A) a chancre at the site of infection.
19) Diagnosis of syphilis is usually made by

A) the MHA-TP test.


B) culturing specimens on laboratory media.


C) microscopic evaluation of stained specimens.


D) DNA probes.


E) a Pap smear.

A) the MHA-TP test.

20) A distinctive feature of secondary syphilis is


A) a widespread rash that can include the palms and soles.


B) hard, red, painless bumps.


C) rubbery, painful lesions.


D) soft, painful ulcers.


E) blister-like lesions which ulcerate.

E) blister-like lesions which ulcerate.

21) Syphilis can be transmitted

A) by sexual contact.


B) from mother to fetus.


C) by fomites.


D) both by sexual contact and from mother to fetus.


E) by sexual contact, by fomites, and from mother to fetus.

D) both by sexual contact and from mother to fetus.
22) The noninfective, obligately intracellular forms of chlamydia are called

A) elementary bodies.


B) phagosomes.


C) pseudohyphae.


D) glomerular capsules.


E) reticulate bodies.

E) reticulate bodies.
23) The most common sexually transmitted bacterium is

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.


B) Haemophilus ducreyi.


C) Treponema pallidum.


D) Chlamydia trachomatis.


E) Mycoplasma hominis.

D) Chlamydia trachomatis.
24) In addition to the genital tract, various strains of Chlamydia trachomatis can infect which of the following?

A) lymph nodes


B) the lungs


C) the conjunctiva


D) lymph nodes and conjunctiva


E) lymph nodes, lungs, and conjunctiva

E) lymph nodes, lungs, and conjunctiva
25) A young adult shows up at a free clinic complaining of painful swellings in the groin. The young woman has a history of occasional casual sex, but denies noticing any genital sores or experiencing painful urination. The young woman is most likely infected with

A) Chlamydia trachomatis.


B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.


C) Haemophilus ducreyi.


D) Treponema pallidum.


E) Trichomonas vaginalis.

A) Chlamydia trachomatis.
26) Which of the following can mimic gonorrhea infections?

A) syphilis


B) chancroid


C) trichomoniasis


D) chlamydia


E) candidiasis

D) chlamydia
27) Chancroid is caused by

A) human herpesvirus 2.


B) Trichomonas vaginalis.


C) Haemophilus ducreyi.


D) Treponema pallidum.


E) Mycoplasma hominis

C) Haemophilus ducreyi.
28) The major sign of Haemophilus ducreyi infection is similar to the major sign of infection by

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.


B) Treponema pallidum.


C) Staphylococcus aureus.


D) Candida albicans.


E) Chlamydia trachomatis.

B) Treponema pallidum.
29) A diagnosis of genital herpes is confirmed by the

A) detection of herpesvirus DNA by PCR.


B) location of herpetic lesions.


C) appearance and size of herpetic lesions.


D) appearance of stained tissue specimens.


E) binding of fluorescent antibodies.

A) detection of herpesvirus DNA by PCR.
30) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding genital herpes?

A) Re-appearance of lesions is the result of new infections.


B) It can only be transmitted when lesions are evident.


C) There is an effective vaccine to prevent infection.


D) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure.


E) Herpes can be prevented using vaginal spermicidal creams.

D) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure
31) Pap smears are used in the diagnosis of

A) tertiary syphilis.


B) cervical cancer.


C) trichomoniasis.


D) genital herpes.


E) chancroid.

B) cervical cancer.
32) Condylomata acuminata are associated with infections of which of the following?

A) Trichomonas vaginalis


B) human herpesvirus 1


C) papillomaviruses


D) human herpesvirus 2


E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C) papillomaviruses
33) Which of the following is the cause of the most common curable STD in women?

A) human herpesvirus 2


B) Haemophilus ducreyi


C) Trichomonas vaginalis


D) Gardnerella vaginalis


E) Chlamydia trachomatis

C) Trichomonas vaginalis
34) A woman goes to her gynecologist and reports that she is experiencing pain during intercourse and frequently has an unusual vaginal discharge that is increased in quantity and sort of foamy. A vaginal smear shows normal appearing epithelial cells along with small leaf-shaped cells with prominent oval nuclei. What disease is the woman experiencing?

A) cervical cancer


B) herpes


C) chancroid


D) syphilis


E) trichomoniasis

E) trichomoniasis
35) Trichomonas vaginalis is usually transmitted via sexual intercourse because it

A) requires a growth factor found only in the vagina.


B) penetrates cells lining the genitourinary tract.


C) participates with HIV in coinfections.


D) produces cysts that germinate in the vagina.


E) cannot live long outside the body.

E) cannot live long outside the body.