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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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mention a worm species for which ab ano ab os auto-reinfection is characteristic in childhood!
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enterobius vermicularis
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mention 2 worm species that migrate through the human lungs in the larval stage!
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ascaris lumbricoides
necator americanus ancylostoma duodenale strongyloides stercoralis |
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which 2 protozoa may infect the human foetus transplacentally?
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toxoplasma gondii
plasmodium species |
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what is the laboratory diagnosis of malaria?
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giemsa stained blood smears. thick smear is used to screen for the agent, thin smear is used to identify the species.
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how long is the erytrocytic cycle of plasmodium vivax and P.ovale?
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48 hours
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how long is the erytrocytic cycle of plasmodium malariae?
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72 hours
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what is the causative agent of malignant malaria?
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plasmodium falciparum
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mention an antimalarial drug active against hypnozoites!
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primaquin
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how can one diagnose the african sleeping sickness disease?
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giemsa-stained blood smears are used for direct demonstration.
serology may be helpful |
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what are the causative agents of African sleeping sickness?
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trypanosoma brucei gambiense and rhodesiense
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how can one diagnose amebic dysenetery?
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microscopic demonstration of E.histolytica cysts and trophozoites from feces
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how can one diagnose Trichomonas vaginalis infection?
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direct demonstration of protozoa in wet mount or stained smear of clinical specimens (vaginal, urethral or prostatic secretions)
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how can one diagnose intestinal taeniasis?
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demonstration of characteristic proglottis and eggs (ova) in faeces
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how can one diagnose Hymenolepis infection?
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demonstration of eggs in faeces
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how can one diagnose Ascaris infection?
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demonstration of eggs in faeces
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how can one diagnose trichuriasis?
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demonstration of eggs in faeces
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how can one diagnose Enterobius infection?
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demonstration of eggs recovered from perianal skin.
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mention 4 tissue infecting filarial nematodes!
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Wuchereria bancrofti
Loa Loa Oncocerca volvulus Dracunculus medinensis |
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how is human Fasciola hepatica infection acquired?
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by eating aquatic vegetation containing encysted larvae
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what disease is caused if humans are infected per os with Taenia solium eggs?
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human cysticercosis (encysted larvae in brain, eyes etc)
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how is human Trichinella spiralis infection acquired?
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by eating raw or undercooked meat containing encysted larvae
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mention 2 protozoa that are susceptible to metronidazol?
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entamoeba histolytica
trichomonas vaginalis |
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what are the 3 modes of transmission for human Toxoplasma gondii infection?
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eating undercooked meat containing tissue cysts
contact with cat faeces containing oocysts transplacental transmission |
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mention 2 helminths whose larvae enter the human body by penetrating the intact skin!
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schistosoma
necator americanus ancylostoma duodenale strongyloides stercoralis |
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which developmental form of Echinococcus granulosus can occur in humans?
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Hydatid cyst
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what is the definitive (ultimate) host of Echinococcus granulosus?
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dog
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which species are the causative agents of malaria?
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plasmodium vivax, P. ovale, P.malariae, P.flaciparum
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what is the definitive (ultimate) host of Plasmodium species?
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female Anopheles mosquito
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what are the definitive and the intermediate hosts of Taenia saginata repectively?
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definitive host: human
intermediate host: cattle |
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what are the definitive and the intermediate hosts of Taenia solium respectively?
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human
swine (pig) |
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what is the infectious form of Strongyloides stercoralis?
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filariform larva
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what is the infectious form of Trichuris trichiura?
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embryonated egg
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which form of Taenia saginata is infectious for humans?
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cysticercus (on beef)
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is autoreinfection possible in Ascaris lumbricoides infection? if yes, when?
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no, the eggs must mature in the soil for several days to become infectious (embryonated)
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is autoreinfection possible in Strongyloid stercoralis infection? it yes, when?
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yes, in immunosuppression
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is autoreinfection possible in Enterobius vermicularis infection? if yes, when?
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yes, the eggs become infectious in a few hours, and ab ano ad os autoinfection may occur
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which virus family is characterized by a single stranded DNA genome?
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parvoviridae
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which virus family is characterized by a double stranded RNA genome?
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reoviridae
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which viruses are susceptible to acyclovir? what is the mechanism of effect of the drug?
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alpha herpesviruses- HSV1, HSV2, VZV
inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase and DNA chain terminator |
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explain why acyclovir is selectively toxic to cells infected by alpha herpesviruses!
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these viruses encode their own thymidine kinase enzymes, which are needed for activation (phosphorylation) of the drug. cellular thymidine kinase does not activate the drug.
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in which cells do Herpes simplex viruses establish latent infection?
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sensory ganglion cells (trigeminal or sacral ganglia)
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what is the possible, late complicaion (years after acute infection) of the childhood chickenpox?
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herpes zoster (shingles)
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ehat are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by B19 parovirus?
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fetal death or hydrops fetalis
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which isotype of antigen specific immunoglobulins in the newborn's blood indicates a congenital infection?
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IgM
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what manifestation does cytomegalovirus cause in congenital infections?
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cytomegalic inclusion disease - spontaneous abortion, CNS damage (deafness, blindness, mental retardation), hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice
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what disease does cytomegalovirus cause in immunocompetent persons?
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mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil-antibody negative)
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mention 2 diseases that cytomegalovirus can cause in immune compromised persons!
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pneumonia, chorioretinitis, colitis
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which antiviral drug is active against cytomegalovirus infections?
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Ganciklovir (foscarent, cidofovir)
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describe the heterophil antibody test used in EBV diagnostics!
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Paul-Bunnel test - in mononucleosis caused by EBV, the serum of the patient agglutinates with sheep red blood cells
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which virus causes exanthema subitum (resola infantum)?
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HHV6
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which virus causes erythema infectiosum?
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human parvovirus B19
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reverse transcription is involved in the replication of which DNA virus?
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Hepadnaviridae - HBV
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what is the mechanism of antigenic shift in influenza viruses?
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reassortment of genome segments
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which antigens of influenza viruses are recognized by neutralizing antibodies?
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Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase
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which virus(es) is (are) susceptible to amantadine?
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influenza A virus
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what is the possible late complication of measles infection (several years after the acute infection)?
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SSPE- subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
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what is the portal of entry of the viruses belonging to Paramyxoviridae?
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respiratory tract - aerosol infection
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which age group is mostly affected by respiratory syncitial (RS) virus infection?
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babies (about 6 weeks - 6 month old)
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what are the possible complications of adulthood mumps virus infection? specify at least 2 of them!
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meningitis, pancreatitis
orchitis |
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what is the rout of infection of rabies virus?
how does rabies virus spread in the infected body? |
by the bite of a rabid animal, (rarely by infectious aerosol)
spread of the virus in the host - along the axons |
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what medication does a person need after exposure to rabies virus?
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active immunization - human diploid cell vaccine (killed virus)
AND passive immunization - rabies immune globins |
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what is the portal of entry of polioviruses? which areas of the central nervous system are affected by poliovirus infection?
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oropharynx and gastrointestinal tract
damage in motor neurons in the anterior horn of the spinal cord+ brain stem |
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which viruses belong to the Enterovirus genus?
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polioviruses, coxsackie A and B viruses, echoviruses, enteroviruses 68-71
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mention at least 4 diseases caused by Coxsackie viruses!
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myocarditis
pericarditis meningitis hand-foot and mouth disease |
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what disease do rotaviruses cause? at which age?
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gastroenteritis in young children
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list the 3 antigens of hepatitis B virus against which antibodies may develop during or after the acute phase of infection?
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HBcAg, HBeAg, HBsAg
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which hepatitis B specific antibody is never present in chronic hepatitis?
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anti- HBs
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what are the main modes of transmission of HBV infection?
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sexual contact, perinatally from mother to newborn, by blood or blood products
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what are the 2 serological markers that are necessary and sufficient to prove acute hepatitis B virus infection?
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HBs Ag
Anti HBc IgM |
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describe the active and passive prophylaxis against hepatitis B!
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active immunization: recombinant HBs Ag vaccine
passive immunization: hepatitis B immune globulin |
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which hepatitis viruses are acquires orally?
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HAV, HEV
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which hepatitis viruses are acquired via parenteral routes?
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HBV, HCV, HDV, (HGV)
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mention 4 diseases that can be caused by adenoviruses!
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acute respiratory disease
bronchitis pharyngitis atypical pneumonia hemorrhagic cystitis |
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mention 2 human prion diseases!
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kuru
fatal familial insomnia |
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what are the serious complications of HSV infection in newborns?
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disseminated infections, encephalitis, skin, eye and mouth infections
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mention 2 DNA virus families containing no envelope!
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parvoviridae
papovaviridae adenoviridae |
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mention 3 DNA virus families containing envelope!
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herpesviridae
hepadnaviridae poxviridae |
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mention 3 RNA virus families containing no envelope!
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picornaviridae
caliciviridae reoviridae |
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mention 3 RNA virus families containing envelope!
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orthomyxoviridae
paramyxoviridae rhabdoviridae |
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what is the portal of entry of mumps virus?
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upper respiratory tract
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mention at least two viruses frequently causing pneumonia!
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RSV, influenza A and B virus, parainfluenza virus, adenovirus
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what is the causative agent of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
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measles virus
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what is (are) the nature(s) of antigen(s) in the combined vaccine against measles, German measles and mumps?
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live attenuated virus
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what is the nature of antigen in the rabies vaccine for human use?
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killed virus
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which viral variants are included in the human influenza vaccine?
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the vaccine contains 2 influenza A strains and 1 influenza B strain
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what does the vaccine against hepatitis B contain?
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subunit vaccine, containing HBsAg
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what is (are) the nature(s) of antigens in the vaccines against polioviruse?
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IPV: inactivated polio vaccine: killed virus (type 1, 2 and 3)
OPV: oral polio vaccine: live attenuated virus (type 1, 2 and 3) |
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what is the causative agent of PML (progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy)?
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JC virus (polyomaviridae)
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which influenza virus types are characterized by antigenic shift?
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influenza A
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which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic drift?
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influenza A and B
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what is the nature of the immune response in diseases caused by prions?
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there is no immune response, as prions are self proteins.
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mention at least 3 diseases caused by herpes simplex viruses (HSV1, HSV2)!
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oropharyngeal herpes, keratoconjuctivitis,
herpes genitalis |
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what are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by rubella virus? specify at least 3 of them!
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congenital malformation involving the heart (patent ductus arteriosus, septal defect), eye (cataract, glaucoma), brain (deafness, mental retardation)
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which influenza A subtypes cause most human infections currently?
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H1N1. H3N2
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mention 3 main viral targets of antiviral chemotherapy!
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HIV reverse transcriptase, protease, integrase
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mention 3 nucleoside (or nucleotide) type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!
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azidothymidine
abacavir lamivudine emtricitabine tenofovir |
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mention 2 non nucleoside type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of aids!
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nevirapine
efavirenz |
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mention 2 protease inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!
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ritonavir
lopinavir atazanavir darunavir |
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mention an integrase inhibitor used in the therapy of AIDS!
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raltegravir
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what is the principle of the "highly active antiviral therapy" (HAART) currently used in the treatment of AIDS!
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combination of 2 nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor (2NRTI) with either nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor(NNRTI) or protease inhibitor (PI) or integrase inhibitor (II).
2NRTI +NNRTI/PI/II |
