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1) Organizational behavior goals include all of the following EXCEPT: A. improve the quality of overall work life. B. improve the level of organizational profits. C. improve the performance of organizations. D. improve the performance of people. 2) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics. A. performance management. B. workgroup analysis. C. motivation. D. organizational behavior. 3) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT: A. sociology. B. physics. C. anthropology. D. psychology. 4) Which of the following statements about the management of organizational culture is NOT correct? A. corporate culture can be managed by using organizational development techniques to modify specific elements of the culture that address both external adaptation and internal integration. B. corporate culture can be managed by directly modifying the observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions that deal with issues of external adaptation. C. dictate rules from the top of the organization. D. good managers are able to help build resilient cultures in situations where the features of strong cultures are absent. 5) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture. A. implicit culture B. observable culture C. common culture D. shared values 6) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________. A. observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions. B. shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission. C. explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions. D. implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences. 7) A person who is a __________ assumes a unique responsibility for work that is accomplished largely through the efforts of other people. A. change agent B. human resources director C. manager or team leader D. team member 8) Henry Mintzberg identified a set of roles that managers perform. These roles are grouped into which of the following three categories? A. interpersonal, informational, and decisional. B. strategic, informational, and political. C. supervisory, authoritarian, and decisional. D. interpersonal, strategic, and decisional. 9) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon. A. False B. True 10) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________. A. religious differences B. language differences C. lifestyle differences D. geographic differences 11) __________ are important to spot since non-verbals can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face communication. A. Perceptual distractions. B. Mixed messages. C. Merged messages. D. Mangled messages. 12) Which of the following statements about cross-cultural communication is NOT accurate? A. gestures mean basically the same thing in various cultures of the world. B. ethnocentrism can easily create communication problems among people of diverse backgrounds. C. people must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different national cultures. D. people must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different geographical or ethnic groupings within one country. 13) Each of the following is a characteristic of high-performance teams EXCEPT: A. high-performance teams have members who focus on individual effort and excellence. B. high-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives. C. members of high-performance teams have the right mix of skills. D. high-performance teams have strong core values. 14) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives. A. teams that evaluate things. B. teams that run things. C. teams that review things. D. teams that make or do things. 15) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled. A. teams that study things. B. teams that run things. C. teams that recommend things. D. teams that review things. 16) The conflict management style of __________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains. A. compromise B.accommodation C. avoidance D. collaboration 17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style? A. accommodation B. collaboration C. competition D. compromise 18) Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to partially satisfy both his concerns and the other party’s concerns through bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which conflict management style? A. compromise B. accommodation C. avoidance D. collaboration 19) Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow’s needs from the lowest (lower-order need) to the highest (higher-order need)? A. physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization. B. social, esteem, self-actualization, physiological, and safety. C. safety, social, physiological, esteem, and self-actualization. D. physiological, social, safety, self-actualization, and esteem. 20) In the context of motivation, direction refers to __________. A. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy. B. an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives. C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action. D. the consequences of an individual’s behavior. 21) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________. A. perceptions on-the-job. B.the impact of individual ethics on business decisions. C. the relationship between values and attitudes. D. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs. 22) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development. A. True B. False 23) Diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and increase creativity. A. True B. False 24) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out. A. True B. False 25) Job burnout manifests itself as a loss of interest in and satisfaction with a job due to stressful working conditions. A. True B.False 26) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities. A. True B. False 27) Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are experiencing personal problems and the stress associated with them. A. True B.False 28) Directives falling within the zone of indifference are __________. A. obeyed. B. rejected. C. subjected to slight scrutiny. D. subjected to severe scrutiny. 29) In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is NOT correct? A. in firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives for various constituencies. B. in other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders, etc. C. in U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid. D. senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders. 30) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments? A. the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points. B. experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs C. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person. D. the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority. 31) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance. A. True B. False 32) A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create early successes, establishing clear rules for team behavior, setting the tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader, modeling expected behaviors. A. True B. False 33) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose. A. True B. False 34) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are: A. charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven. B. autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented. C. self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented. D. implicit, explicit, specific, detailed. 35) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT: A. C. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations. B. B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire. C. A. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional factor. D. D. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today. 36) Often self-leadership activities are divided into these three broad categories: A. focus, ambiguous and unfocused strategies. B. cognitive, behavior and emotional strategies. C. behavior focused, natural reward and constructive thought pattern strategies. D. bottom-up, top-down and middle strategies. 37) One of the foremost trends in management involves using information technology to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raise productivity. A. False B. True 38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the boiled frog phenomenon, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge. A. True B. False 39) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments. A. use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments B. management of networks… influence of governments C. influence of governments…development of alliances D. management of networks…development of alliances |
1) Organizational behavior goals include all of the following EXCEPT: A. improve the quality of overall work life. B. improve the level of organizational profits. C. improve the performance of organizations. D. improve the performance of people. 2) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics. A. performance management. B. workgroup analysis. C. motivation. D. organizational behavior. 3) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT: A. sociology. B. physics. C. anthropology. D. psychology. 4) Which of the following statements about the management of organizational culture is NOT correct? A. corporate culture can be managed by using organizational development techniques to modify specific elements of the culture that address both external adaptation and internal integration. B. corporate culture can be managed by directly modifying the observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions that deal with issues of external adaptation. C. dictate rules from the top of the organization. D. good managers are able to help build resilient cultures in situations where the features of strong cultures are absent. 5) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture. A. implicit culture B. observable culture C. common culture D. shared values 6) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________. A. observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions. B. shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission. C. explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions. D. implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences. 7) A person who is a __________ assumes a unique responsibility for work that is accomplished largely through the efforts of other people. A. change agent B. human resources director C. manager or team leader D. team member 8) Henry Mintzberg identified a set of roles that managers perform. These roles are grouped into which of the following three categories? A. interpersonal, informational, and decisional. B. strategic, informational, and political. C. supervisory, authoritarian, and decisional. D. interpersonal, strategic, and decisional. 9) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon. A. False B. True 10) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________. A. religious differences B. language differences C. lifestyle differences D. geographic differences 11) __________ are important to spot since non-verbals can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face communication. A. Perceptual distractions. B. Mixed messages. C. Merged messages. D. Mangled messages. 12) Which of the following statements about cross-cultural communication is NOT accurate? A. gestures mean basically the same thing in various cultures of the world. B. ethnocentrism can easily create communication problems among people of diverse backgrounds. C. people must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different national cultures. D. people must always exercise caution when communicating with people of different geographical or ethnic groupings within one country. 13) Each of the following is a characteristic of high-performance teams EXCEPT: A. high-performance teams have members who focus on individual effort and excellence. B. high-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives. C. members of high-performance teams have the right mix of skills. D. high-performance teams have strong core values. 14) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives. A. teams that evaluate things. B. teams that run things. C. teams that review things. D. teams that make or do things. 15) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled. A. teams that study things. B. teams that run things. C. teams that recommend things. D. teams that review things. 16) The conflict management style of __________ involves being both cooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone gains. A. compromise B.accommodation C. avoidance D. collaboration 17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style? A. accommodation B. collaboration C. competition D. compromise 18) Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to partially satisfy both his concerns and the other party’s concerns through bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which conflict management style? A. compromise B. accommodation C. avoidance D. collaboration 19) Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow’s needs from the lowest (lower-order need) to the highest (higher-order need)? A. physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization. B. social, esteem, self-actualization, physiological, and safety. C. safety, social, physiological, esteem, and self-actualization. D. physiological, social, safety, self-actualization, and esteem. 20) In the context of motivation, direction refers to __________. A. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy. B. an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives. C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action. D. the consequences of an individual’s behavior. 21) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________. A. perceptions on-the-job. B.the impact of individual ethics on business decisions. C. the relationship between values and attitudes. D. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs. 22) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development. A. True B. False 23) Diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and increase creativity. A. True B. False 24) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked out. A. True B. False 25) Job burnout manifests itself as a loss of interest in and satisfaction with a job due to stressful working conditions. A. True B.False 26) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities. A. True B. False 27) Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are experiencing personal problems and the stress associated with them. A. True B.False 28) Directives falling within the zone of indifference are __________. A. obeyed. B. rejected. C. subjected to slight scrutiny. D. subjected to severe scrutiny. 29) In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is NOT correct? A. in firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives for various constituencies. B. in other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders, etc. C. in U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid. D. senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders. 30) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments? A. the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points. B. experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs C. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person. D. the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority. 31) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance. A. True B. False 32) A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create early successes, establishing clear rules for team behavior, setting the tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader, modeling expected behaviors. A. True B. False 33) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose. A. True B. False 34) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are: A. charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven. B. autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented. C. self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented. D. implicit, explicit, specific, detailed. 35) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT: A. C. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations. B. B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire. C. A. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional factor. D. D. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today. 36) Often self-leadership activities are divided into these three broad categories: A. focus, ambiguous and unfocused strategies. B. cognitive, behavior and emotional strategies. C. behavior focused, natural reward and constructive thought pattern strategies. D. bottom-up, top-down and middle strategies. 37) One of the foremost trends in management involves using information technology to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raise productivity. A. False B. True 38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the boiled frog phenomenon, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge. A. True B. False 39) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments. A. use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments B. management of networks… influence of governments C. influence of governments…development of alliances D. management of networks…development of alliances |
