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311 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following theorists did NOT develop a “stage” theory:

A) Freud
B) Piaget
C) Skinner
D) Erikson
C

Feedback: Freud has psychosexual stages, Piaget has cognitive developmental stages, and Erikson has psychosocial stages. Skinner is a proponent of operant conditioning ~ which does not revolve around stages.
A case study may involve which of the following:

A) compilation of large amounts of information
B) materials from family members
C) psychological testing
D) all of the above
D

Feedback: A case study is a compilation of large amounts of information including materials from family members and psychological testing. All of the above answer choices are correct.
If reinforcement is to be most effective in learning, it should be:

A) provided as sparingly as possible
B) used on a regular basis
C) provided soon after the desired behavior occurs
D) used primarily with high achievers
C

Feedback: Reinforcement works best when it's provided soon after the desired behavior occurs so the person can connect the two incidences. High achievers are not the only beneficiaries of reinforcement. Punishment, not reinforcement, should be used sparingly.
In order to study the effects of music on memory, a researcher has one group of subjects listen to music while studying a list of words and another group study the same list without listening to music. In this experiment, the number of words each subject can remember would be:

A) the independent variable
B) a placebo
C) manipulated by the experimenter
D) the dependent variable
D

Feedback: The independent variable is manipulated by the experimenter. In this example, listening to music is the independent variable. The dependent variable is the "effect" of the independent variable that is why the number of words that subjects could remember is the dependent variable. A placebo is an inert substance--for example, a pill with no medicine in it.
The law of effect refers to which of the following researcher’s work?

A) John B. Watson
B) Thorndike
C) Freud
D) B.F. Skinner
B

Feedback: Watson is a proponent of classical conditioning; Skinner is associated with operant conditioning; Freud is a psychoanalytic theorist; Thorndike's research involves the law of effect.
Which developmental domain is involved with acquiring problem solving skills and learning new information?

A) cognitive
B) personality
C) physical
D) cultural
A

Feedback: All of these areas are part of our developmental domain; however, the domain involved with problem solving skills and learning new information is cognitive.
A mother nags her son until he cleans his room. Later that month when his room becomes messy again, the son spontaneously cleans up his room because he doesn’t want to be nagged. The mother’s nagging is an example of:

A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) punishment
D) intermitten reinforcement
B
Feedback: Both positive and negative reinforcers are used to increase behaviors. The mother's nagging is a negative reinforcer because it's used to remove an unpleasant stimulus. The son is cleaning his room to "remove" the mother's nagging. Punishment is used to decrease a behavior, not to have it repeated.
Which of the following theorist created the ecological model of human development?

A) Freud
B) Vygotsky
C) Bronfenbrenner
D) Darwin
C

Feedback: Freud is associated with psychoanalytic theory; Vygotsky is a cognitive theorist that stressed the role of social factors; Darwin is known for his work on the evolutionary perspective. Bronfenbrenner created the ecological model of development.
Albert Bandura’s approach to personality is referred to as

A) symbolic interaction theory
B) attribution theory
C) self-disclosure theory
D) social learning theory
D

Feedback: Albert Bandura is most famously associated with social learning theory or sometimes referred to as observational learning.
Time out is a disciplinary technique that is based on the principles of:

A) operant conditioning
B) classical conditioning
C) observational learning
D) habituation
A

Feedback: Operant conditioning principles revolve around reinforcements & punishment. Time-out is an example. Classical conditioning involves 2 stimuli to generate 1 response, obervational learning involves models and immitation of behavior, and habituation is a process where a particular stimulus becomes so familiar that the exposure doesn't produce a response.
An important difference between the cognitive-developmental theories of Piaget and of Vygotsky is that Vygotsky placed greater emphasis on which of the following?

A) The causal role of social factors
B) the causal role of maturational factors
C) infant development
D) development during early adolescence
A

Feedback: Vygotsky believed that the structural differences in people's thinking depends a great deal on the social context.
A longitudinal study does which of the following:

A) studies different people over time
B) studies time intervals
C) studies people who live far away
D) studies the same people over time
D
Feedback: Cross sectional research studies time intervals & different people over time; Whereas longitudinal studies the same individuals over a long period of time.
The Zone of Proximal development was developed by:

A) Piaget
B) Vygotsky
C) Skinner
D) Thorndike
B

Feedback: Piaget developed stages of cognitive development; Skinner is associated with operant conditioning; Thorndike came up with the law of effect.
The extent to which our behavior is influenced by heredity and by the environment is known as the _______ controversy.

A) stability versus change
B) nature versus nurture
C) rationality versus irrationality
D) continuous versus discontinuous
B

Feedback: Continuous versus discontinuous was the only other controversy that developmental theorists debate. It asks whether there is a continual progression from the beginning to the end of life or are there distinct, identifiable stages. Stability versus change and rationality versus irrationality are not developmental controversies.
Cohort effects are concerned with people of different:

A) ethnic backgrounds
B) cultures
C) age groupings
D) socioeconomic backgrounds
C

Feedback: A cohort is a group of people born roughly at the same historical time, usually within the same 5 or 10 year period. Ethnic backgrounds, SES,and culture are not necessarily effects in cohort.
Dr. Smith believes that all behavior – both abnormal and normal – is learned. She is not interested in the person’s mind; he studies only what is observable and measurable. Dr. Smith takes what approach to psychology?

A) Behavioral
B) psychodynamic
C) humanistic
D) biological
A

Feedback: Psychodynamic theories emphasize our actions are ruled by the unconscious; Humanistic theories believe that the potential for growth is guided by human needs; Biological theories stress the role of genetics. Behaviorism or Learning theories are concerned with behaviors that can be observed or measured.
Researchers set up a controlled environment to elicit a specific behavior. This is called:

A) laboratory observation
B) naturalistic observation
C) case study
D) field observation
A

Feedback: Naturalistic observation and field information involve observing people in their natural environments. A case study is an intensive study of one individual. A laboratory observation or experiment tests a hypothesis in a controlled situation.
Which theoretical perspective believes that development is based on intrinsic sources of motivation:

A) humanism
B) psychodynamic
C) ethological
D) cognitive
A

Feedback: Psychodynamic perpective is based on unconscious drives; Ethology stresses that development is biologically determined; Cognitive theory believes development is based on thinking processes; Humanism is based on principles of instrinic motivation to achieve one's highest potential.
A random sample is:

A) asking your class to draw names out of a hat
B) generated in such a way that everyone has an equal chance at being selected
C) talking to random people on the street
D) studying the people who live in your building
B

Feedback: People who live in your building, talking to random people on the street, and drawing names out of a hat do not give individuals an "equal" chance of being included. A random sample allows individuals an equal chance of being selected for a particular study.
According to Jean Piaget, cognitive development begins with which of the following:

A) preoperational thought
B) concrete operations
C) sensorimotor activities
D) formal operations
C

Feedback: The first stage in Piaget's cognitive development is sensorimotor. The subsequent stages are preoperational, concrete operational and formal operations
Which of the following approaches is used by a psychologist who emphasizes the power of rewards and punishments to influence behavior?

A) behavioral
B) cognitive
C) humanistic
D) psychoanalytic
A

Feedback: Cognitive theories emphasize thought processes; humanistic emphasize striving to one's full potential; psychoanalytic stress the meaning of unconscious drives. Behaviorial proponents, specifically operant conditioning principles, emphasize rewards and punishments.
A cross sectional design does which of the following:

A) one half of the sample is compared with the other half
B) the design does not study age of participants
C) two groupings of the same age are studied
D) one age sample is compared with one or more samples from another age
D

Feedback: Cross sectional researach compares people of various ages.
A researcher studies language development by collecting data from a specific group of infants starting when they are six months old and continuing at six-month intervals for the next five years. This is an example of which developmental research design?

A) cross-sectional
B) experimental
C) longitudinal
D) sequential
C

Feedback: Longitudinal method studies the same individuals over a long period of time. The experimental method studies subjects in a controlled situation in usually a short term study. Cross sectional compares people of various ages. Sequential or cross sequential is a combination of cross sectional and longitudinal methods.
"Nature" is to "nurture" as _________________ is to ______________

A) genetics: environment
B) biology: physiology
C) physiology: genetics
D) upbringing: social status
A

Feedback: "nature" means genetics and "nurture" means environment.
Which type of conditioning involves the use of 2 stimuli to evoke 1 response?

A) operant
B) classical
C) observational
D) law of effect
B

Feedback: Classical conditioning involves 2 stimuli to evoke 1 response. Operant conditioning uses 1 stimulus for 1 response. Observational learning relies on modeling and immitation. Law of effect behaviors that are pleasant are more likely to be repeated.
In ecological systems theory, the exosystem includes:

A) the values and beliefs of the culture in which the child is developing, such as acceptance and violence
B) settings in which children spend time, such as their classrooms and neighborhood play groups
C) social settings that indirectly influence children, such as their parents' workplaces
D) connections among the different settings in which a child develops, such as the home and school
C

Feedback: The exosystem refers to the neighborhood and community structures that affect the functioning of the smaller systems.
After each of Joyce’s last three meals at the school cafeteria, she vomited. Before the fourth meal, Joyce began to feel nauseated as soon as she saw the cafeteria door. In terms of classical conditioning, what is the conditioned stimulus?

A) the cafeteria food
B) the cafeteria door
C) nausea
D) vomiting
B

Feedback: Within the principles of classical conditioning, a person comes to associate a neutral stimulus (cafeteria)with a meaningful one (vomiting). Therefore, Joyce will begin to feel nauseous upon entering the cafeteria door because she associates the cafeteria with vomiting.
One advantage in using naturalistic observation rather than an experiment is that naturalistic observations

A) are less intrusive
B) are not subject to personal bias
C) do not require a trained observer
D) do not require informed consent
A

Feedback: Naturalistic obervation allows the researcher to observe people in their natural environments; therefore, is a less instrusive research method.They can be subject to bias, do require a trained observer and does require informed consent.
Studies in which the same people are tested at different ages are called:

A) longitudinal
B) cross-sectional
C) naturalistic observation
D) experimental
A

Feedback: A cross sectional design involves studying people of various ages. An experimental design studies groups in a controlled situation. Naturalistic observation studies subjects in their natural environment.
A researcher sits at a table in a restaurant all day and records what customers in adjoining booths are saying and doing. What type of research strategy is this?

A) experiment
B) case study
C) survey
D) naturalistic observation
D

Feedback: An experiment involves a controlled environment; A case study is an extensive history; a survey is asking people for information through interview or questionnaire. Naturalistic obervation is observing people in their natural environment.
Subjects know that their behavior is being observed in the typical setting for all of the following research methods EXCEPT:

A) case study
B) naturalistic observation
C) survey
D) experimental
B

Feedback: Participants in a case study, survey and experimental group are fully aware that they are being studied.
Negative reinforcement is exemplified by which of the following:

A) getting money for good behavior
B) getting money for bad behavior
C) losing a toy for bad behavior
D) child avoiding punishment when it lies about its behavior
D

Feedback: Getting money for good and bad behaviors are examples of positive reinforcement, because they are rewards used to increase a behavior. Losing a toy for bad behavior is an example of punishment since the parent is trying to "decrease" a behavior. A negative reinforcer is the removal of an unpleasant stimulus as a result of a particular behavior.
Random assignment of subjects to experimental and control groups ensures that:

A) the number of subjects in each group will be the same
B) subjects in each condition with not know each other
C) prior to the experimental maniupulation, the two groups of subjects would be equivalent with respect to the dependent variable
D) after the experimental manipulation, the two groups of subjects would differ with respect to the dependent variable
D

Feedback: The independent variable is the "cause" that is being manipulated by researchers. The dependent variable is the "effect" from the independent variable. Therefore, a random assignment of groups would ensure that after the experimental manipulation, any difference would be a result of the dependent variable.
Thorndike’s law of effect says that when a behavior is pleasant it is:

A) less likely to be repeated
B) more likely to be repeated
C) less likely to cause avoidance
D) likely to encourage change
B

Feedback: Thorndike's law of effect states that when behavior is followed by pleasurable consequences, it tends to be repeated and when behavior is followed by unsatisfying consequences, it tends not to be repeated.
____________is the “father” of social learning theory.

A) Skinner
B) Pavlov
C) Bandura
D) Vygotsky
C

Feedback: Skinner--Operant conditioningPavlov--classical conditioningVygotsky--zone of proximal development
A researcher wants to know whether failure at a task causes aggression. As a part of her study, some of subjects are told they have failed at a task, whereas others are told they succeeded. Failing or not at the task would be:

A) a placebo
B) the independent variable
C) a within-subjects manipulation
D) the dependent variable
B

Feedback: Aggresion would be the dependent variable in this study because it is the "effect" being measured. Failing or not failing is the independent variable because it is the "cause" of the study being manipulated.
Which of the following is NOT one of Piaget’s stages of development:

A) senorimotor
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
D) postoperational
D

Feedback: Postoperational is not one of Piaget's stages of cognitive development.
A correlation is

A) a mathematical statement of the relationship or correspondence between two variables
B) a philosophical statement about relationships
C) a psychological statement about correspondence
D) a historical connection
A

Feedback: A correlation is a statistical term that indicates how variables are related.It's not philosophical, psychological or historical in nature.
Which research method involves studying the behavior of individuals one at a time and in depth?

A) case study
B) naturalistic observation
C) survey
D) experimental
A

Feedback: Naturalistic observation, survey participants, and experimental subjects are not necessarily studied one at a time nor for any great length of time.
Which of the following theorists introduced the concept of the identity crisis:

A) Piaget
B) Freud
C) Vygotsky
D) Erikson
D

Feedback: Erikson was the stage theorist who believed there was a crisis in each developmental period.
The developing organism is most vulnerable to the effects of teratogens during the period of the _____________

A) zygote
B) embryo
C) fetus
D) ovum
B

Feedback: During the period of the zygote, the process of implantation occurs.The period of the fetus, muscles develop and cartilage begins to be replaced by bone. All of the major organs complete their formation.The period of the embryo, the 4-8week is the time period most vulnerable to teratogen effects.
Which of the following is an abnormality accompanied by mental retardation and marked by the presence of an extra twenty-first chromosome?

A) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
B) Korsakoff’s syndrome
C) Turner’s syndrome
D) Down syndrome
D

Feedback: PKU is abnormal digestion of protein caused by a recessive gene. Korsakoff's syndrome is mainly due to insufficient vitamin B1. Turner's syndrome only has one sex chromosome.
During which stage of prenatal development does implantation occur?

A) conception
B) germinal
C) embryonic
D) fetal
B

Feedback: Implantation takes place during the germinal period of prenatal development.The embryonic period is the time which all the major external and internal body structures begin to form. The fetal period occurs from 8wks after conception til birth
Which is the characteristic common to individuals with Turner and Klinefelter syndromes?

A) Premature death
B) Sterility
C) Severe mental retardation
D) Elevated levels of aggression
B

Feedback: Since secondary sex characteristics do not develop, sterility is common to individuals with Kleinfelter syndrom or Turner's syndrome
Which of the following disorders is caused by the absence of a chromosome?

A) Down syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Huntington disease
D) Turner syndrome
D

Feedback: Klinefelter syndrome & Down syndrome have an extra chromosome and Turner syndrome only has one. Huntington disease is a genetic disorder which affects motor and cognitive abilities.
Women have a lifetime supply of:

A) ova
B) brain cells
C) toenails
D) hormones
A

Feedback: Ova or eggs are the reproductive cells of women, which are present at birth.
The sex cells carry only one member of each pair of genes. Therefore, these cells, called, _____, each contain only ____ chromosomes.

A) Gametes; twenty three
B) Gametes; forty six
C) Zygotes; thirty two
D) Zygotes; sixty four
A

Feedback: A gamete is a human reproductive cell (eggs or sperm). Each gamete carries 23 chromosomes. A zygote is the merging of 2 gametes.
The set of traits an individual inherits is referred to as the

A) karyotype
B) phenotype
C) genotype
D) zygote
C

Feedback: A karyotype is a picture that shows the 46 chromosomes form one individual.A phenotype is the expression of traits that are observable in the person's physical appearance. A zygote is the merging of 2 gametes.
Linda became pregnant one week ago when her husband’s sperm cell fertilized her egg cell. The correct term for the now fertilized egg cell that will eventually become their baby is:

A) embryo
B) ovum
C) fetus
D) zygote
D

Feedback: An embryo is the organism from 2 to 8 weeks after conception. Ovum is the reproductive cell of the female. The fetus is the name given to prenatal life from the 9th week of pregnancy to birth.
Which of the following statements is true concerning fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) Only an alcoholic woman can have a child with alcohol-related birth defects
B) A woman who drinks moderately can have a child with alcohol-related birth defects
C) The father’s drinking habits are as important as the mother’s during the pregnancy
D) Children born with fetal alcohol syndrome rarely have any cognitive deficiencies
B

Feedback: You do not have to be an "alcoholic" woman to have a child with alchol related birth defects. The father's drinking habits do not influence birth defects. Children born with fetal alcohol syndrome typically have cognitive deficiencies.
Joe is a normal male. His sex chromosomes are

A) YY
B) XX
C) XY
D) XXY
C

Feedback: XX is a female; YY is not a possible combination. XXY is typically Klienfelter syndrom.
Sean has a dominant gene for brown hair and a recessive gene for blonde hair. His hair color is _____, and his children’s hair color will be _____.

A) Brown; brown or blonde
B) Blonde; brown or blonde
C) Brown; blonde
D) Blonde; brown
A

Feedback: A dominant gene describes something in a person's phenotype. Sean's dominant gene is brown; therefore, he has brown hair. His recessive gene of blonde hair is in his genotype which means it's a carrier for his offspring. Sean's child has the possibility of having either brown or blonde hair.
____________is a large complex molecule. It contains the genetic code that regulates the functioning and development of an organism.

A) DNA
B) Molecules
C) Genes
D) chromosome
A

Feedback: Chromosomes are threadlike structures of DNA that carry genetic material. Genes are the basic units of heredity carried by the chromosomes.
Which contribution is necessary for a couple have a baby girl?

A) the father's X chromosome
B) the mother's X chromosome
C) the father's Y chromosome
D) the mother's Y chromosome
A

Feedback: Since a girl is an XX chromosome pattern and the mother gives an X, the father's chromosome determines the sex. The father's Y chromosome would make it a boy, and there is no such instance of the mother contributing a Y chromosome since she doesn't have one to contribute.
The fetus reaches the age of viability at approximately __________

A) 36 weeks
B) 30 weeks
C) 24 weeks
D) 18 weeks
C

Feedback: At the end of the second trimester, after 24 weeks, a health fetus reaches the age of viability. It has a 50% chance of survival outside the womb.
Which aspect is central in the Lamaze method of childbirth?

A) childbirth occurs at home, rather than in a hospital
B) anesthetics and cesarean sections are not used
C) the mother learns breathing and other exercises to help manage labor pains
D) the mother and infant are submerged in a warm bath
C

Feedback: The Lamaze method focuses on breathing and concentration techniques during labor regardless of where the mother gives birth.
Amy and Greg just had a baby girl. If she has no genetic abnormality, the newborn baby’s twenty-third chromosome pair must be

A) XX
B) XY
C) YX
D) YY
A

Feedback: XY is a male; YX and YY are not possible pairs.
Studies on identical twins are influential on gene-environment interactions because:

A) twins are not used when studying gene-environment interactions
B) any differences must be attributed to environment since they are genetically identical
C) gene-environment interactions aren't studied as much as gene-gene interactions
D) it allows researchers to understand the difference between monozygotic and dizygotic twins
B

Feedback: Twin studies are an integral focus on the nature vs. nurture debate. Monozygotic twins are identical in genetic make-up; therefore, any differences among them must be a result of environmental factors.
Jenny has brown eyes. Her eye color is an example of Jenny's _________?

A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) carrier
D) genes
B

Feedback: A phenotype is the actual observable trait that one posseses. A genotype includes all of the inherited traits, both dominant and recessive. A carrier is an individual who posseses a recessive gene to his/her children as part of his/her genotype. A gene is the basic unit of heredity.
What is the basic unit of inheritance?

A) nucleus
B) dominance
C) gene
D) gamete
C

Feedback: A gamete is a human reproductive cell. A nucleus is the center of a cell.
Which of the following sequences of prenatal developmental stages is correct?

A) embryo, fetus, zygote
B) zygote, embryo, fetus
C) fetus, zygote, embryo
D) zygote, fetus, embryo
B

Feedback: zygote is the first stage which is the joining of 2 gametes; embryo stage occurs from the 4th to the 8th week; the fetus stage lasts from 9th week until birth
Which is the main factor accounting for the high correlation between IQ and personality traits in identical twins who grew up in different environments?

A) they shared the same prenatal environment
B) they have identical genotypes
C) they have identical phenotypes
D) fifty percent of their genes are identical
B

Feedback: Identical twins obviously shared the same prenatal environments and have identical genotypes & phenotypes. When looking at the correlation among IQ & personality traits among twins that didn't grow up in the same environment, the identical genotypes they share is the most influential factor.
If heredity is an important determinant of a specific behavior, what prediction can we make about expression of the behavior in monozygotic twins reared apart compared to its expression in dizygotic twins reared apart?

A) Dizygotic twins will express the behavior more similarly than monozygotic twins
B) There will be little similarity in the expression of the behavior in either set of twins
C) Monozygotic twins will express the behavior more similarly than dizygotic twins
D) The behavior will be expressed similarly by monozygotic twins and dizygotic twins
C

Feedback: Since monozygotic twins are identical genetically, they will express more similar behaviors that dizygotic twins.
Down syndrome is caused by:

A) an extra chromosome
B) alcohol consumption by the mother during pregnancy
C) the mother's poor nutrition
D) an extra chromosome on the 23rd pair
A

Feedback: Down syndrome is caused by an extra chromosome at site 21.
Which of the following are NOT life support systems for the embryo?

A) placenta
B) fallopian tube
C) umbilical cord
D) amnion
B

Feedback: The placenta, umbilical cord and amnion are all life support systems for the embryo.
The typical female chromosome pattern is:

A) YY
B) XX
C) XY
D) XXY
B

Feedback: XY is a male; XXY indicates Klienfelter syndrome which affects males; YY is not a possible combination
A person's genetic heritage is his or her:

A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) dominant character
D) recessive character
A

Feedback: Genotypes are the sum total of all the genes a person inherits for any particular trait; A phenotype is the physical expression of genetic characteristics; Dominant genes control the trait and recessive genes are carried on the genotype but not expressed in the phenotype
The APGAR scale is administered:

A) 5 days after the baby is born
B) immediately after delivery
C) on the baby's first doctor visit
D) only on premature babies
B

Feedback: The APGAR scales are administered immediately after birth to check for problems in body structure and functioning.
Why is Fragile X syndrome worse in males than females?

A) men would be considered weak and fragile
B) woman have 2 Xs and men only have 1 X
C) Fragile X syndrome is not worse for males
D) Females do not get this syndrome
B

Feedback: The fragile X syndrome affects both men & women. Since females have 2XXs and males have only one X, fragile X syndrome is worse for men.
Major defects in body structure occur during which period of pregnancy?

A) germinal
B) fetal
C) embryonic
D) conception
C

Feedback: The embryonic period is the time where major external and internal body structures begin to form; therefore, it's the time where most defects in body structure may occur
Traits that are produced by the interaction between two or more genes are called:

A) dominant
B) recessive
C) monogenic
D) polygenic
D

Feedback: Dominant traits that cause a particular trait to be expressed. Recessive traits that are part of a person's genotype. Polygenic means interaction among 2 or more genes.
High alcohol intake during pregnancy may result in:

A) Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
B) Rubella
C) Rapid growth
D) Down's syndrome
A

Feedback: Fetal alcohol syndrome is an obvious effect of excessive alcohol consumption during pregnancy.
________is abnormal protein digestion caused by a recessive gene.

A) Turner sydrome
B) XXX
C) Fragile X syndrome
D) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
D

Feedback: Turner syndrome, XXX and Fragile X syndrome are common abnormalities involving sex chromosomes. PKU is abnormal protein digestion caused by a recessive gene.
If a trait is expressed, it is called a ________________ trait.

A) dominant
B) submissive
C) secondary
D) incomplete
A

Feedback: In genetics, one gene of a gene pair that will cause a particular trait to be expressed is the dominant trait.
The second stage of labor in the birth process is characterized by which occurence?

A) the cervix starts to dilate
B) contractions expel the placenta
C) the newborn is delivered
D) the amniotic sac breaks
C

Feedback: The first stage of birth is the longest stage contractions occur, the cervix dilates & the amniotic sac breaks. In the second stage, the baby’s head moves through birth canal and the newborn is delivered. The third stage is the shortest;the afterbirth which is the detachment of placenta and umbilical cord
The ________ pair of chromosomes determines a person’s sex

A) 46th
B) 23rd
C) 10th
D) 2nd
B

Feedback: The 23rd pair of chromosomes determines the person's sex.
A couple has been informed that their newborn daughter has stubby fingers and a “webbed” neck. The parents are told that, in the future, their child may have difficulty with spatial and mathematical reasoning, be shorter than average, and probably will not be able to have children. These characteristics are typical of which sex chromosome abnormality?

A) XXX pattern
B) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
C) Klinefelter Syndrome
D) Turner Syndrome
D

Feedback: PKU is abnormal protein ingestion caused by a recessive gene. XXX has a normal female appearance, but is retarded in almost all intellectual skills.Klinefelter syndrome affects males, not females.
During the germinal stage of prenatal development:

A) the 3 germ layers arise
B) the zygote travels down from the fallopian tube and begins the process of cell division and growth
C) cephalo-caudal growth begins
D) age of viability exists
B

Feedback: During the germinal period, the zygote travels down from the fallopian tube and begins the process of cell division and growth. During the embryonic period, the 3 germ layers arise and cephalo-caudal growth begins. During the fetal period, the age of viability exists.
Which of these syndromes is NOT sex-linked?

A) Sickle-cell anemia
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) XYY syndrome
A

Feedback: Klinefleter, Turner and XYY syndromes are all common abnormalities that are sex linked
Which phrase best defines a teratogen?

A) A life-support system that protects the fetus
B) An agent that stimulates the formation of organs
C) An abnormality in infants of alcoholic mothers
D) An environmental factor that produces birth defects
D

Feedback: Any environmental substances or conditions that contribute to birth defects are called teratogens.
Sue was watching a cartoon that had some violent scenes in it. She then goes outside and tries to mimic the aggression. This is an example of which theory?

A) Psychoanalytic theory
B) social learning theory
C) cognitive theory
D) ecological theory
B
The infant Michael has been classified as having a slow-to-warm-up temperament. Is it possible to predict what Michael’s personality will be like when he reaches his teen years?

A) No, infant temperament is not predictive of later personality
B) Yes, he will most probably be anxious
C) Yes, he will most probably be shy
D) Yes, he will most probably be very cautious
A

Feedback: Although temperament is apparent in the first months of life, as the person develops, the social context and the individual's experiences increasingly influence the nature and expression of temperament.
Johnny is playing with some cars. Mike is also playing with cars. The two boys are not interacting while engrossed in their play. This is an example of which type of play?

A) solitary play
B) parallel play
C) cooperative play
D) associative play
B
According to Vygotsky, children’s private speech is

A) Not useful
B) Egocentric
C) Nonsocial
D) Used for self-guidance
D
Ten-month-old Kerry, who had formed an attachment to her mother, has come with her mother to visit great-grandmother. According to attachment theory, when Kerry leaves her mother’s side and goes exploring into another area of great-grandmother’s living room, she should feel

A) autonomous and self-confident
B) bored and restless
C) curious and daring
D) fearful and anxious
D

Feedback: Infants show attachment through proximity seeking behaviors and contact maintaining behaviors. Kerry may be fearful and anxious during her exploration without her mother present.
Drew is in the sixth substage of Piaget’s stages of sensorimotor intelligence. Consequently, when he sees his sister running into another room to hide his favorite toy, Drew will

A) Cry in distress but not look for the toy
B) Go into the other room and search with the conviction that toy’s don’t just disappear when they’re out of sight
C) Look for it only briefly and then give up
D) Stare blankly at the place where he last saw the toy and then turn his attention to something else
B

Feedback: During the 6th substage of sensorimotor development, toddlers begin to anticipate and solve simple problems by using mental combinations before they act since they've already achieved object permanance. Drew exhibits this by going into the other room and searching for the object.
Which of the following is an example of the rooting reflex

A) When a baby’s cheek is touched with a finger, the baby turns its head to face the finger
B) In response to the sudden sensation of falling, the baby first flings arms and legs to the sides, and then brings the arms in toward the body in a hugging motion
C) When a finger is placed in the palm of a baby’s hand, the baby gasps the finger tightly
D) When a finger is placed in a baby’s mouth, the baby begins sucking
A

Feedback: The rooting reflex helps babies find a nipple by causing them to turn their heads and start to suck when something brushes against their cheek.
Sandra realizes that her favorite toy, a musical carousel, remains the same even though it looks different when her father picker her up and she sees it from above. Sandra has achieved

A) Depth perception
B) Habituation
C) Object constancy
D) Object permanence
C

Feedback: Object permanence is the realization that objects exists when they cannot be seen. Habituation is a process that a particular stimulus becomes so familiar that responses are no longer present.Depth perception is the ability for infants to perceive danger and not move forward as shown by the visual cliff study. Object constancy is the ability of a toddler to recognize a object regardless of its view.
Three-year-old Jacqueline’s pediatrician is preparing to give her a shot when Jacqueline bolts out of the examining room and hides behind the receptionist’s desk in the outer office. If her mother subscribes to the authoritarian style of childrearing, which of the following would she most likely do?

A) Acknowledge Jacqueline’s feelings, help her to understand why the shot is necessary, and gently, but decisively, take her back to the examining room
B) Pick Jacqueline up and carry her screaming into the doctor’s examining room
C) Promise to take her to the toy store and buy her a new doll right after she goes back in to get her shot
B
Which of the following is an example of a young child’s script for going to bed?

A) “Last night there was a monster in my closet.”
B) “I brush my teeth, read my story, and go to sleep.”
C) “I want to read a story tonight before I go to bed.”
D) “Can I stay up late?”
B
A child is said to be egocentric during which of Piaget’s developmental stages?

A) Sensorimotor
B) Concrete operational
C) Formal operational
D) Preoperational
D
Ricky wants to paint his fingernails. His ____ is most likely to discourage this behavior.

A) Father
B) Teacher
C) Sister
D) Mother
A
Because he has recently achieved object permanence, Scott will now be able to

A) Categorize objects by function
B) Add and subtract
C) Search for an object that rolled out of sight
D) Understand that a round object contains the same amount of material when it is flattened into a pancake
C
Which parental childrearing style exerts a high degree of control but is also responsive to the child’s thoughts and feelings?

A) Authoritarian
B) Authoritative
C) Permissive-indifferent
D) Permissive-indulgent
B
Which of the following is true about the newborn's visual acuity?

A) Her peripheral vision is fully developed
B) Her vision for near objects is better than her vision for far objects
C) Her visual acuity is around 20/30
D) Her vision is better when she’s staring at stationary objects than when she’s tracking moving objects
B

Feedback: Vision is the least developed sense at birth. Newborns are nearsighted because binocular vision does not develop until approximately 14 weeks.
Two-year-old Peter liked to tug on his dog’s tail. One day, he tried to pull the cat’s tail and the cat scratched him. After that, Peter knew that only some tails are safe to pull on. Peter has undergone the process known as

A) Classical conditioning
B) habituation
C) accomodation
D) assimlilation
C

Feedback: classical conditioning is the process by which 2 stimuli generate 1 response.Habituation is the process where a particular stimulus becomes so familiar that responses are not longer present. Assimilation is Piaget's term for the inclusion of new information into already existing categories or schemas. Accomodation is Piaget's term for the process of shifting usual modes of thinking or schemas in order to encompass new information.
If her parents encourage little Tanya to ask questions, to use her imagination and giver her freedom to choose some activities, according to Erikson, they are encouraging

A) Initiative
B) Identity
C) Generativity
D) Industry
A
Which of the following toddlers is employing a gross motor skill?

A) Angelo, who is sitting on the rug and methodically picking up every piece of lint and examining it
B) Edward, who is creeping backwards down the stairs on all fours
C) Erica, who is looking at a pop-up book and laughing uproariously
D) Stuart, who is licking the melting ice cream off the sides of a cone
B

Feedback: Fine motor skills include abilities that require more precise, small movements, such as picking up a coin or using a crayon. Gross motor skills are abilities such as running and climbing that demand large movements.
The Moro reflex is likely to be exhibited by a one-month old if

A) A bottle is placed in his mouth
B) The bottom of his foot is stroked
C) His father gently touches his cheek
D) His brother slams the door
D

Feedback: The moro or the startle reflex occurs when infants are startled by loud noises.
Of the following, who is most likely to abuse his child?

A) John Paul, who didn’t have children until he and his wife were in their late 30s
B) Joel, whose baby is passive and quiet
C) Emilio, who is a graduate student and works part time
D) Ted, who is unemployed
D
A strong desire to do things for yourself, to master the physical and social environment and to be competent and successful is called:

A) independent
B) self control
C) aggression
D) autonomy
D

Feedback: Erikson described the term autonomy as the desire toddlers have to rule their actions and bodies. Children show a strong push for exploring their world and asserting their will.
The term used to describe a personality with a complete blending of male and female traits is called:

A) bisexual
B) homosexual
C) androgynous
D) heterosexual
C

Feedback: Bisexual, homosexual, and heterosexual are all terms to describe sexual partner preferences. Androgynous refers to a balance in personality traits between both male and female qualities.
According to Ainsworth, an infant who displays anger and avoidance of the caregiver is showing which type of attachment:

A) disorganized
B) secure
C) resistant
D) avoidant
C

Feedback: A secure attachment is one in which the infant attempts to be close to their caregiver and yet explore their environment. Avoidant attached children engage in very little interaction with their mother and they show no apparent stress when she leaves or returns. Disorganized attachments are characterized by an inconsistent mixture of behavior towards the mother, such as avoiding her just after seeking to be close to her.
Which of Baumrind’s four parenting styles makes demands on the child with little nurturance?

A) authoritarian
B) permissive
C) authoritative
D) strict
A

Feedback: Being strict is a characteristic authoritarian parenting, but it's not one of Baumrind's parenting styles. Authoritative is a style of child rearing in which the parents set limits and provide guidance but are also willing to listen to the child's ideas and make compromises. Permissive parents allow their children to do anything they choose; they rarely punish, guide or control their children
The greatest influence on a child’s language development is:

A) talking with peers
B) watching TV
C) learning phonics
D) talking with adults
D

Feedback: Language is strongly influenced by interaction among parent and child. Talking with peers, watching TV, and learning phonics may influence language development, but it's not the strongest factor.
Chomsky’s term for a child’s innate set of mental structures that aid children in language learning is called:

A) LB- learned behavior
B) LAD-language acquisition device
C) RO-repeat often
D) ZPD-zone of proximal development
B

Feedback: Vygotsky is associated with the ZPD. RO and LB are not phrases associated with a developmental theorist.
A toddler that points and says “Doggy!” instead of saying “look there is a doggy over there!” ~ “Doggy!” is an example of a:

A) phoneme
B) holophrase
C) motherese discussion
D) babble
B

Feedback: A babble is a repetition of certain syllables. Phonomes are beginning sounds.Motherese is a special from of language between parents and children called "baby talk".
Which type of play behavior occurs children observe others in playing but do not participate but are interested in the other children’s play?

A) Unoccupied behavior
B) solitary play
C) onlooker behavior
D) parallel play
C

Feedback: With unoccupied behavior, children observe others at play but do not participate ~ they may stand in one spot or perform random movements. In solitary play, children play alone with toys that are different than others near them & there is no effort to interact. During parallel play, children play with the same toys as others near them but play independently.
Freud’s psychosexual stages deal with intrinsic drives while Erikson’s psychosocial stages cover the _____________________

A) total person
B) family members
C) lifespan
D) environmental factors
C

Feedback: Erikson's psychosocial theory covers the entire lifespan taking into consideration the person, their family, and environmental factors.
According to Freud, boys who lust for their mothers and fear castration by their fathers experience:

A) anal fixation
B) oral fixation
C) electra complex
D) oedipal complex
D

Feedback: Oral and anal fixations result from being "stuck" in the oral and anal psychosexual stages of development. An electra complex involves girls developing feelings for their fathers.
Inadequate amounts of food over long periods of time which cause muscular deterioration is called:

A) marasmus
B) kwashiorkor
C) Vitamin A deficiency
D) poor nutrition
A

Feedback: Kwashiorkor is a disease resulting from protein-calorie deficiency in children. Poor nutrition can cause nutrient deficiencies.
The ability to associate information from one sensory modality with information from another is concept of:

A) cross-modal perception
B) intermodal perception
C) categorization
D) object permanence
B

Feedback: Cross modal perception is the ability to use perceptual information from one sensory system to "imagine" something in another sensory system. Object permanence is the understanding that objects and people continue to exist even when they cannot be seen. Categorization refers to the perception of certain characterisitcs into specific groups.
Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding vision and hearing of babies:

A) vision is the least developed sense at birth
B) hearing is more developed than vision at birth
C) babies are born with binocular vision
D) rhythmic sounds can sooth and put an infant to sleep
C

Feedback: Babies are not born with binocular vision. Binocular vision means the ability of using both eyes & does not develop until approximately 14 weeks.
The visual cliff tests the infants:

A) breathing patterns
B) eye sight
C) balance
D) depth perception
D

Feedback: The visual cliff experiment tests the infants perception of depth.
Which of Freud’s psychosexual stages of development occurs during early childhood?

A) oral stage
B) genital stage
C) phallic stage
D) latency stage
C

Feedback: The oral stage occurs in infants from birth to 1 year old. The latency stage occurs in children from 7-11 years old during the "school years". The genital stage occurs in adolescence and continues on into adulthood.
Which of the following reflexes are important for development but not necessary for survival?

A) breathing reflex
B) sucking reflex
C) moro reflex
D) rooting reflex
C

Feedback: The breathing, sucking and rooting reflexes are necessary for survival.
Gender schemas are defined as:

A) standards of behavior and attitudes appropriate for males and females
B) knowledge of one’s gender
C) females who are confused about their identity
D) understanding that gender is stable and stays the same despite superficial changes in appearance.
A

Feedback: Gender identity is the knowledge of one's gender. Gender constancy is the understanding that gender is stable and stays the same despite superficial changes in appearance. Identity is a separate issue than gender.
Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development contends that young children learn most from activities slightly _______________ their competence.

A) behind
B) beyond
C) under
D) within
B

Feedback: Vygotsky suggests that a zone of proximal development fosters cognitive growth slightly beyond their competence.
Piaget’s stage that involves language development, a limited world view, and the inability to generalize is:

A) sensorimotor
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational
B

Feedback: The sensorimotor stage allows infants to understand the world through senses and motor abilities. In the concrete operational stage, the child understands and applies logical operations to help interpret experiences rationally rather than intuitively. Formal operational is characterized by abstractions and hypothetical conceptions.
Watching television shows with lots of violence can lead to __________ behavior in children:

A) aggressive
B) empathetic
C) lazy
D) sleepy
A

Feedback: According to social learning theory principles, watching violence on TV can lead to aggressive behavior in children due to modeling and immitation.
Making new information part of an existing schema is:

A) assimilation
B) accomodation
C) new schema
D) acceleration
A

Feedback: Accomodation is Piaget's term for the process of shifting or enlarging usual modes of thinking or schemas, in order to encompass new information. A schema is Piaget's term for a general way of thinking about or interacting with ideas and objects in the environment. Acceleration refers to the speed of learning.
Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence includes:

A) deficits, intelligence, creativity
B) hope, needs, intelligence
C) analytical, creative, practical
D) practical, hopefulness, strengths
C

Feedback: Sternberg's theory of intelligence includes types of processing skills contributing to successful intelligence. They are analytical, creative, and practical.
A child who is in first grade has messy handwriting, does not know the alphabet and is easily distracted during class. He has difficulty sitting still for more than a few minutes at a time and his parents describe him as very fidgety. These findings are characteristic of which childhood problem?

A) Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B) dyslexia
C) dyscalculia
D) dysgraphia
A

Feedback: Dyslexia is a disability in reading. Dyscalculia is a great difficulty in math. Dysgraphia is a disorder of written expression.
What is the greatest predictor of suicide risk for adolescents?

A) talk of suicide
B) drug use
C) a previous attempt
D) a relationship break-up
C

Feedback: Talk of suicide, drug use, and a relationship break-up may all be factors in adolescent suicide. A previous suicide attempt is the greatest predictor of suicide risk.
In gym class, sixteen-year-old Ida is concerned that she does everything just right because she believes everyone will be scrutinizing her performance. Ida’s concern is indicative of

A) a distorted body image
B) an imaginary audience
C) a personal fable
D) metacognition
B

Feedback: Metacognition is the concept of thinking about one's thoughts. Personal fable is when adolescents imagine their own lives as heroic or mythical. Body image is a person's mental conception and their attitude toward their physical appearance. As part of their egocentrism, adolescents often create an imaginary audience in which they fantasize how others will react to their appearance and behavior.
Identity diffusion represents a(n)

A) Failure to achieve a stable identity
B) Identity that is based on parental goals
C) Identity that is based on a false self
D) Temporary postponement of adult commitments
A

Feedback: Identity achievement occurs when adolescents attain their new identity through establishing his/her own goals and values by abandoning some of those set by parents and society. Moratorium is a temporary postponement of adult commitments. Identity foreclosure is the identity based on parental goals. Identity diffusion typically has few commitments to goals or values & they are unable to achieve a stable identity.
At their high school graduation, four seniors were discussing their future plans. Which one of them appears to be in moratorium as far as identity is concerned?

A) Donna, who said, “At first, I thought it was a bad idea when my father suggested I come to work at his real estate firm. But the more I thought about it, the better I liked it.”
B) Laura, who said, “I’ve wanted to work as a hair stylist ever since my grandmother bought me that doll with the hair that grows when I was three. Some day, I’m going to have my own beauty parlor.”
C) Marian, who said, “I’m glad I don’t have to think about going out to look for a job. I’m going to love staying at home and being a new wife and mother.”
D) Vicky, who said, “I envy all of you. You’re so sure of what you want to do with your life. All I know is I want a career and not just a job. That’s why I decided to go to college. I hope I’ll find something that will really spark my interest.”
D

Feedback: Moratorium is a postponement process of finding a mature identity. An example of moratorium is college because it requires young people to sample a variety of academic areas before concentrating in any one. Vicky's college plan is an example of moratorium in identity development.
Lee has reached Kohlberg’s highest stage of moral development; he now bases his decisions on

A) Society’s rule and regulations
B) Individual human rights
C) Universal principles that he believes in
D) Ethics of market exchange
C

Feedback: Preconventional morality is based on avoiding punishments and getting rewards. Conventional morality emphasizes social rules and law & order. Postconventional morality places emphasis on moral principles and unversal ethical principles.
Of the following, which plays an important role for both social learning theory and psychoanalytic theory of development?

A) subconscious
B) internal conflict
C) childhood experiences
D) biological factors
C

Feedback: Principles of psychoanalytic theory include subconscious, internal conflict, biological factors, and childhood experiences. Of these principles, childhood experiences is the only factor that would pertain to social learning theories as well.
Sarah is currently taking courses in several different academic departments and doing volunteer work to help identify and develop her interests. She also spends a lot of time thinking about her values and goals but has not yet chosen a career path. Sarah’s identity status is referred to as:

A) identity achievement
B) identity diffusion
C) moratorium
D) identity foreclosure
C
Compared to a concrete operational child, a formal operational thinker tends to

A) Approach problems haphazardly
B) Hold and combine several ideas in his mind at once
C) Latch onto a single solution or reason
D) Rely on memory of past experiences when solving problems
B

Feedback: A concrete operational thinker can reason logically about things and events they perceive. They can focus on one aspect of a problem and think more objectively. A formal operational thinker can build several theories about philosophy, love, and morality all at once.
Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences details 7 types of intelligence. A child who relates well to feelings of others has which type of intelligence?

A) spatial
B) interpersonal
C) mathematical
D) linguistic
B

Feedback: Linguistic intelligence is communicatation through language; Logical-mathematical involves solving problems & analysis; Spatial means to perceive and arrange objects in a situation.
Six-year-old Nathan has just resolved his Oedipus complex by repressing the sexual feelings that he has had for his mother. According to Freud, what will Nathan do next to squash his disappointment?

A) Find a six year old girlfriend instead
B) Focus on becoming skillful or competent in some area
C) Swear off women for good
D) Try to be as much like his mother as he can
B

Feedback: After Nathan resolves his oedipal issues in the phallic stage, he moves into the latency phase where his sexual needs are quiet. At this time, Nathan will put his psychic energy into conventional activities like school work and sports.
The stage of formal operations is characterized by

A) the application of logical thought to concrete objects and situations
B) abstract thought and hypothetical problem solving
C) the ability to conserve
D) the development of transductive reasoning
B

Feedback: The ability to conserve, the development of transductive reasoning, and the application of logical thought to concrete objects and situations are characteristics of Piaget's concrete operational stage of cognitive development.
The adolescent identity crisis refers to a period:

A) Of confusion during which youth are choosing between attachment and autonomy
B) When adolescents are actively making decisions about who they want to be
C) When adolescents actively avoid commitment to ideas or occupations
D) Of intense turmoil and stress that lasts a short time and determines an adolescent’s identity status
B

Feedback: According to Erikson, the identity crisis refers to the period of adolescence when the search for "finding themselves" or identity is the primary task.
The ability to “think about thinking” is called:

A) metacognition
B) mnemonics
C) reorganization
D) rehearsal
A

Feedback: Mnemonics are memory aids including storage and retrieval strategies. Rehearsal is a memory technique involving repetition of the material to be remembered. Metacognition is the ability to "think about thinking."
A period of making decisions about important issues, such as “who am I and where am I going?” is a(n):

A) self-definition
B) identity crisis
C) diffusion status
D) foreclosure status
B

Feedback: Diffusion status is characterized by few commitments to goals or values. Foreclosure status is characterized by a premature formation of identity by accepting parental goals without exploring alternatives. An identity crisis is part of Erikson's psychosocial stage of development. Adolescents try to figure out "who I am?".
Which of the following adolescents will report the least positive body image?

A) Sharon, an early maturing girl
B) Theo, an early maturing boy
C) Janelle, a girl who is maturing on time
D) Sonya, a late maturing girl
A

Feedback: Early and late maturation will affect thoughts of body image. Girls that develop early have a much harder time. Boys have a harder time when they develop late.
Which term is used to described children’s emerging awareness and control of their intellectual skills and abilities?

A) intelligence quotient
B) metacognition
C) preoperational thought
D) trust
B

Feedback: The intelligence quotient is an individual's mental age divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100. Preoperational thought is Piaget's term for the second period of cognitive development in which children are unable to grasp logical concepts such as conservation or classification. Trust is part of Erikson's 1st stage of psychosocial development when the infant experiences the world as a secure place where basic needs are met.
An adolescent peer group with approximately 15-30 members is called a

A) gang
B) crowd
C) clique
D) group
B

Feedback: A crowd is a type of adolescent peer group with about 15-30 members. A clique is a type of adolescent peer group with about 3-9 members.
Erikson’s industry versus inferiority stage corresponds with which of Freud’s developmental stages?

A) Oral
B) Oedipal complex
C) latency
D) phallic
C

Feedback: The oral stage corresponds to Erikson's trust vs. mistrust.The phallic stage corresponds to Erikson's initiative vs. guilt. The oedipal conplex is not a psychosexual stage but a concept within the phallic stage.
Jack, who thinks of himself as a real “softie”, pretends that he’s tough and unfeeling whenever he’s with the guys from the football squad. With his other friends, Jack pretends that he’s politically conservative even though, in reality, he thinks of himself as a liberal. Because Jack engages in these false self behaviors as a way to experiment with different roles, it’s likely that he

A) is not happy with his true self
B) is psychologically happy
C) is unable to distinguish between his false selves and his true self
D) has high levels of positive support from his parents
B

Feedback: In an attempt to impress others, testing a new role or seek approval, teens may act out a “False self”. This “false self” allows teens acting the opposite of their core being by testing new roles, and seeking approval from others. This ability indicates good psychological growth & happiness.
Nancy is protesting against the recent enactment of the death penalty in her home state. She feels that it is immoral for the government to decide who should live and who should die. Nancy is functioning at Kohlberg’s _____ level.

A) concrete
B) conventional
C) postconventional
D) preconventional
C

Feedback: Concrete is not one of Kohlberg's stages of moral development. Preconventional principles place emphasis on avoiding punishments and getting rewards. Conventional emphasizes social rules and law & order. Postconventional morality is the highest level emphasizing universal ethical principles such as the death penalty.
In studying personality and social development, learning theorists have given attention to each of the following except

A) Positive reinforcement
B) genetics
C) observational learning
D) imitation and modeling
B

Feedback: Learning or behavioral theorists explain personality and social development in terms of observational learning, imitation & modeling, and reinforcement. The role of genetics does not have a place in learning theories.
Difficulty in learning school subjects such as reading, writing or math despite a normal intelligence and the absence of sensory or motor disabilities is called:

A) low abilities
B) mental retardation
C) a learning disorder
D) attention deficit disorder (ADD)
C

Feedback: Attention deficit disorder (ADD) is a problem which a child has great difficulty concentrating for more than a few moments at a time. Mental retardation is someone who scores below 70 on an IQ test.
Your friend Janet is the mother of an obese ten-year-old girl. When she turns to you for advice on helping her daughter to lose weight, you correctly advise her to

A) Eliminate all snack foods, candy and soft drinks from the girl’s diet
B) Forget about losing the weight and just teach the child to accept and love herself as she is
C) Participate with the child in her efforts to exercise and diet
D) Try a low calorie crash diet with the goal of losing five pounds a week
C

Feedback: Obese children need emotional support as well as help in losing weight. Changes in family patterns in addition to the child's food intake are essential to effective treatment. Parents can help overweight children by joining in their efforts not only for support, but for good modeling too.
Water from one of two identical full glasses is poured into a taller glass of a different shape. Which child will know that the taller glass contains the same amount of water as the shorter glass? A child at the:

A) concrete operational stage who hears the procedure described verbally
B) preoperational stage who hears the procedure described verbally
C) concrete operational stage who observes the procedure
D) preoperational stage who observes the procedure
C

Feedback: Children thinking at the preoperational level of cognitive development are not able to grasp the concept of conservation either by verbal cues or sight.Children at the concrete operational level are able to get concepts of conservation only while viewing the actual procedure.
The key to formal operational thinking is the ability to think about concepts

A) Concretely
B) Sensory
C) Symbolically
D) Abstractly
D

Feedback: The ability to think abstractly is the key to formal operational thought. Symbolic thinking is part of preoperational thought. Sensory & motor skills are characteristic for the sensorimotor stage. Concrete operational thought is the ability to apply logic to concrete situations.
Sydney calls her best friend Alisha in a panic. She has a date with Jason, someone she has wanted to date for months, but now she has a blemish on her forehead, which she knows Jason (and everyone else) will notice. This is an example of the:

A) Imaginary audience
B) personal fable
C) false-belief syndrome
D) invincibility fable
A

Feedback: A personal fable represents an egocentric idea in which teens believe they are destined for great accomplishments. Invincibility fable is another egocentric idea in which adolescents believe they are "immune" from normal troubles and dangers. A false-believe syndrome is not a technical term.
An elementary age child might learn by chunking items together. This process is called:

A) rehearsal
B) recognition
C) recall
D) insight
A

Feedback: Recall is the ability to retrieve information with or without cues. Recognition is the ability to correctly identify items previously experienced when they appear again. Insight is not a term typically associated with memory.
Tommy understands that his father can also be a son and a brother all at the same time. This suggests that Tommy is in the _______ stage.

A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational
C

Feedback: Tommy is thinking in the concrete operational stage because he can think objectively and reason logically about the roles of his father. Sensorimotor development relates to infants exploring the world through their senses and motor skills. Preoperational thought relates to thinking symbolically & on only one perspective. Formal operational thought relates to adolescents and adults who can think abstractly & hypothetically about concepts.
Competent adolescent development is most likely to happen when adolescents have parents who:

A) Display authoritative ways of dealing with problems and conflict
B) Display authoritarian ways of dealing with problems and conflict
C) Insist that their adolescents learn to resolve problems and conflict on their own
D) Develop more flexible boundaries and learn to become friends with their children
A

Feedback: Research has shown that the autoritative parenting style leads to competent adolescent development more than authoritarian or permissive styles.
A 14 year old acts responsibly, makes decisions independently, and accepts the consequences of inappropriate behavior. The parents of this adolescent probably relied most upon which parenting style?

A) authoritarian
B) permissive
C) restrictive
D) authoritative
D

Feedback: Children of authoritative style parents are found to be the best adjusted and more self-controlled, self-reliant, and socially competent.
At the children’s parade, Ellen was put in charge of handing out the flags. Even though she knew that all the flags were the same size before she gave them out, because one of the boys was much taller than any of the others, Ellen thought that his flagpole was now a different length than anyone else’s. Ellen is apparently unable to understand

A) Conservation of length
B) Conservation of mass
C) Conservation of volume
D) Classification
A

Feedback: Conservation is the understanding that changing the shape or appearance of objects doesn't change their amount. Rolling out a ball of clay into a thin rope is an example of conservation of mass. Conservation of volume is demonstated usually with pouring equal amounts of liquid into different sized containers. Classification is the concept that objects can be organized in terms of categories. Conservation of length is the correct answer.
According to David Elkind, what is one form of adolescent egocentrism?

A) excessive self-esteem
B) fear of risk taking
C) use of concrete operations
D) imaginary audience
D

Feedback: Elkind's forms of adolescent egocentrism include: imaginary audience, personal fable, invincibility factor, and foundling fantasy.
Carol Gilligan’s theory of moral development emphasizes the importance of which factor?

A) interpersonal communication and relationships
B) the rules of society
C) the rights of individuals
D) the individual’s level of cognitive development
A

Feedback: Gilligan's theory emphasizes the concept of interdependence. Interdependence involves long-term commitments and interpersonal attachments.
Jessica’s parents have never “forced” their opinions on her, and have always allowed her to try anything she wanted to because they did not want to put any limits on her development. Based on the research, we would expect Jessica to experience identity:

A) Achievement
B) Moratorium
C) Foreclosure
D) Diffusion
D

Feedback: Diffusion status is seen most frequently in teenagers who have experienced rejection or neglect from detached, "indifferent" or uncaring parents.
Asked whether they ever had doubts about their religion, four students gave the following answers. Which of these students has arrived at identity achievement?

A) Kristin: “Oh, I don’t know. It really doesn’t bother me. I figure one’s about as good as another.”
B) Joe: “No, not really. Our family is pretty much in agreement about these things.”
C) Alicia: “Yes, I guess I’m going through that right now. How can there be a God with so much evil in the world?”
D) Phil: “Yeah, I even started wondering if God existed. I’ve pretty much resolved that by now, though.”
D

Feedback: Identity achievement occurs when adolescents attain their new identity through a process of self-exploration of goals and values. Kristin would characterized by identity diffusion. Joe would be an example of foreclosure. Alicia is in the process of identity achievement but not completed yet; she is still in the exploration stage.
After escorting Roger and Rita to the hospital, where Rita gave birth to a boy, Officer Davis gave Roger a ticket for not coming to a complete stop at a stop sign prior to the time he escorted them. Officer Davis is functioning at Kohlberg’s

A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 4
D) Stage 6
C

Feedback: Kohlberg's stage 4 includes abiding by laws for the society. Stage 1 refers to obeying rules in order to avoid punishment. Stage 2 refers to obeying rules to obtain rewards. Stage 6 is the abiding of ethical principles
In Piaget’s concrete operational stage, a child’s thinking becomes:

A) egocentric
B) irreversible
C) reversible and flexible
D) focused on the here and now
C

Feedback: Egocentric & irreversible thought and the thinking based on the here and now are all components of Piaget's preoperational thought.
Aaron is aware of his thinking and understands that he uses certain strategies to help him remember. These skills demonstrate:

A) memory
B) mnemonics
C) metacognition
D) abstract reasoning
C

Feedback: Memory involves the process of encoding, storing, and retrieiving. Mnemonics is one of the actually strategies used for remembering. Abstract reasoning is a characteristic of formal operational thought.
A pacifist who is thrown in jail for refusing to obey the draft laws because he believes that killing is morally wrong is at what stage of moral development?

A) preconventional
B) conventional
C) concrete
D) postconventional
D

Feedback: Concrete is not a stage of moral development. Preconventional morality involves avoiding punishments & gaining rewards. Conventional morality revolves around social standards and beginning moral values. Postconventional morality is the highest stage in moral reasoning involving universal ethical principles.
As a typical teenager, Vanessa is more likely to go to her parents than to her peers for advice on

A) What to wear to the prom
B) Which boys to date
C) Which CD’s to buy
D) Which foreign language to study in high school
D

Feedback: Adolescents tend to discuss academic, vocational, religious and ethical topics with their parents and peer relation issues with their friends.
Ever since he was five years old, his father had been telling Eddie that some day he would come to work with him in his furniture store. But when he finished high school, Eddie told his father that he decided to go to culinary school and become a chef instead. Eddie’s identity status is

A) Foreclosed
B) identity achieved
C) identity diffused
D) moratorium
B

Feedback: If Eddie would have decided to work in the furniture store with his father, this would be an example of foreclosed. Moratorium is a pause in identity formation that allows people to explore before making final choices. Identity diffusion status is someone who has never gone through an identity crisis nor made commitments.
Adriane is an architect. According to Howard Gardner’s theory of intelligence, which type of intelligence would Adriane have?

A) spatial
B) mathematical
C) kinesthetic
D) naturalist
A

Feedback: An architect would possess a spatial intelligence because it involves perceiving and arranging objects in a situation. Mathematical includes analysis & solving problems. Kinesthetic revolves around body movements. Naturalist was later added as the 8th distinct intelligence by Gardner representing ability to recognize and classify plants & animals.
A teacher gives a group of 7 year olds some sticks of varying length. At this age, the children will

A) Put them in order from shortest to longest, using an orderly plan
B) Attempt to order them by height, but will make many mistakes and take a long time to correct them
C) Put them in a completely random order and not attempt to correct mistakes
D) Not understand the task
A

Feedback: 7 year old children thinking at the concrete operational level will know that differences between similar objects can be measured. Seriation is the term that refers to the arrangement of items. The sticks will be layed out from shortest to longest or vice-versa using a plan.
Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence includes all of the following abilities EXCEPT:

A) analytical
B) creative
C) motivational
D) practical
C

Feedback: Sternberg's intelligence theory includes analytical, creative, and practical abilities.
Authoritarian parents are most likely to have adolescents experiencing identity:

A) Achievement
B) Moratorium
C) Foreclosure
D) Diffusion
C

Feedback: Since authoritarian parents do not give their children freedom to make their own choices, many adolescents experience identity foreclosure and have not gone through the identity crisis need to obtain identity achievement.
Isaac is interested in school. He reads a lot and likes to do experiments. Assuming normal development, according to Erik Erikson’s theory, Isaac is in which stage?

A) Autonomy vs. shame/doubt
B) Initiative vs. guilt
C) Industry vs. inferiority
D) Identity vs. role confusion
C

Feedback: Autonomy vs. shame & doubt relates to toddlerhood; Initiatve vs. guilt pertains to preschoolers wanting to take on adult like activities. Identity vs. role confusion relates to adolescents establishing "who they are?"Industry vs. Inferiority is the developmental crisis of Issac at this time.
Which one of these teens is exhibiting the personal fable?

A) Anthony, who thinks that everyone will notice the new pimple that sprouted on his forehead
B) Rick, who wants to be just like his father, the best basketball player the school ever had
C) Derek, who drives 80 miles/hour on residential streets because he thinks it is fun
D) Steve, who thinks he will be President of the United States
D

Feedback: Anthony's adolescent egocentrism is an example of the imaginary audience. Derek's example is of the invincibility factor. Steve's idea that he'll be a US President is an example of a personal fable.
With considerable practice, eight-year-old George has become the best swimmer in his whole elementary school. Erikson would say that George is developing a sense of

A) Competitiveness
B) Industry
C) Initiative
D) Integrity
B

Feedback: Erikson's crisis of industry vs. inferiority involves children trying to master whatever skills are valued for their culture. They develop views of themselves as either competent or incompetent. Erikson's term for competence is industry.
Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence includes:

A) deficits, intelligence, creativity
B) hope, needs, intelligence
C) analytical, creative, practical
D) practical, hopefulness, strengths
C

Feedback: Sternberg's theory of intelligence includes types of processing skills contributing to successful intelligence. They are analytical, creative, and practical.
A child who is in first grade has messy handwriting, does not know the alphabet and is easily distracted during class. He has difficulty sitting still for more than a few minutes at a time and his parents describe him as very fidgety. These findings are characteristic of which childhood problem?

A) Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B) dyslexia
C) dyscalculia
D) dysgraphia
A

Feedback: Dyslexia is a disability in reading. Dyscalculia is a great difficulty in math. Dysgraphia is a disorder of written expression.
What is the greatest predictor of suicide risk for adolescents?

A) talk of suicide
B) drug use
C) a previous attempt
D) a relationship break-up
C

Feedback: Talk of suicide, drug use, and a relationship break-up may all be factors in adolescent suicide. A previous suicide attempt is the greatest predictor of suicide risk.
In gym class, sixteen-year-old Ida is concerned that she does everything just right because she believes everyone will be scrutinizing her performance. Ida’s concern is indicative of

A) a distorted body image
B) an imaginary audience
C) a personal fable
D) metacognition
B

Feedback: Metacognition is the concept of thinking about one's thoughts. Personal fable is when adolescents imagine their own lives as heroic or mythical. Body image is a person's mental conception and their attitude toward their physical appearance. As part of their egocentrism, adolescents often create an imaginary audience in which they fantasize how others will react to their appearance and behavior.
Identity diffusion represents a(n)

A) Failure to achieve a stable identity
B) Identity that is based on parental goals
C) Identity that is based on a false self
D) Temporary postponement of adult commitments
A

Feedback: Identity achievement occurs when adolescents attain their new identity through establishing his/her own goals and values by abandoning some of those set by parents and society. Moratorium is a temporary postponement of adult commitments. Identity foreclosure is the identity based on parental goals. Identity diffusion typically has few commitments to goals or values & they are unable to achieve a stable identity.
At their high school graduation, four seniors were discussing their future plans. Which one of them appears to be in moratorium as far as identity is concerned?

A) Donna, who said, “At first, I thought it was a bad idea when my father suggested I come to work at his real estate firm. But the more I thought about it, the better I liked it.”
B) Laura, who said, “I’ve wanted to work as a hair stylist ever since my grandmother bought me that doll with the hair that grows when I was three. Some day, I’m going to have my own beauty parlor.”
C) Marian, who said, “I’m glad I don’t have to think about going out to look for a job. I’m going to love staying at home and being a new wife and mother.”
D) Vicky, who said, “I envy all of you. You’re so sure of what you want to do with your life. All I know is I want a career and not just a job. That’s why I decided to go to college. I hope I’ll find something that will really spark my interest.”
D

Feedback: Moratorium is a postponement process of finding a mature identity. An example of moratorium is college because it requires young people to sample a variety of academic areas before concentrating in any one. Vicky's college plan is an example of moratorium in identity development.
Lee has reached Kohlberg’s highest stage of moral development; he now bases his decisions on

A) Society’s rule and regulations
B) Individual human rights
C) Universal principles that he believes in
D) Ethics of market exchange
C

Feedback: Preconventional morality is based on avoiding punishments and getting rewards. Conventional morality emphasizes social rules and law & order. Postconventional morality places emphasis on moral principles and unversal ethical principles.
Of the following, which plays an important role for both social learning theory and psychoanalytic theory of development?

A) subconscious
B) internal conflict
C) childhood experiences
D) biological factors
C

Feedback: Principles of psychoanalytic theory include subconscious, internal conflict, biological factors, and childhood experiences. Of these principles, childhood experiences is the only factor that would pertain to social learning theories as well.
Sarah is currently taking courses in several different academic departments and doing volunteer work to help identify and develop her interests. She also spends a lot of time thinking about her values and goals but has not yet chosen a career path. Sarah’s identity status is referred to as:

A) identity achievement
B) identity diffusion
C) moratorium
D) identity foreclosure
C
Compared to a concrete operational child, a formal operational thinker tends to

A) Approach problems haphazardly
B) Hold and combine several ideas in his mind at once
C) Latch onto a single solution or reason
D) Rely on memory of past experiences when solving problems
B

Feedback: A concrete operational thinker can reason logically about things and events they perceive. They can focus on one aspect of a problem and think more objectively. A formal operational thinker can build several theories about philosophy, love, and morality all at once.
Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences details 7 types of intelligence. A child who relates well to feelings of others has which type of intelligence?

A) spatial
B) interpersonal
C) mathematical
D) linguistic
B

Feedback: Linguistic intelligence is communicatation through language; Logical-mathematical involves solving problems & analysis; Spatial means to perceive and arrange objects in a situation.
Six-year-old Nathan has just resolved his Oedipus complex by repressing the sexual feelings that he has had for his mother. According to Freud, what will Nathan do next to squash his disappointment?

A) Find a six year old girlfriend instead
B) Focus on becoming skillful or competent in some area
C) Swear off women for good
D) Try to be as much like his mother as he can
B

Feedback: After Nathan resolves his oedipal issues in the phallic stage, he moves into the latency phase where his sexual needs are quiet. At this time, Nathan will put his psychic energy into conventional activities like school work and sports.
The stage of formal operations is characterized by

A) the application of logical thought to concrete objects and situations
B) abstract thought and hypothetical problem solving
C) the ability to conserve
D) the development of transductive reasoning
B

Feedback: The ability to conserve, the development of transductive reasoning, and the application of logical thought to concrete objects and situations are characteristics of Piaget's concrete operational stage of cognitive development.
The adolescent identity crisis refers to a period:

A) Of confusion during which youth are choosing between attachment and autonomy
B) When adolescents are actively making decisions about who they want to be
C) When adolescents actively avoid commitment to ideas or occupations
D) Of intense turmoil and stress that lasts a short time and determines an adolescent’s identity status
B

Feedback: According to Erikson, the identity crisis refers to the period of adolescence when the search for "finding themselves" or identity is the primary task.
The ability to “think about thinking” is called:

A) metacognition
B) mnemonics
C) reorganization
D) rehearsal
A

Feedback: Mnemonics are memory aids including storage and retrieval strategies. Rehearsal is a memory technique involving repetition of the material to be remembered. Metacognition is the ability to "think about thinking."
16. A period of making decisions about important issues, such as “who am I and where am I going?” is a(n):

A) self-definition
B) identity crisis
C) diffusion status
D) foreclosure status
B

Feedback: Diffusion status is characterized by few commitments to goals or values. Foreclosure status is characterized by a premature formation of identity by accepting parental goals without exploring alternatives. An identity crisis is part of Erikson's psychosocial stage of development. Adolescents try to figure out "who I am?".
Which of the following adolescents will report the least positive body image?

A) Sharon, an early maturing girl
B) Theo, an early maturing boy
C) Janelle, a girl who is maturing on time
D) Sonya, a late maturing girl
A

Feedback: Early and late maturation will affect thoughts of body image. Girls that develop early have a much harder time. Boys have a harder time when they develop late.
Which term is used to described children’s emerging awareness and control of their intellectual skills and abilities?

A) intelligence quotient
B) metacognition
C) preoperational thought
D) trust
B

Feedback: The intelligence quotient is an individual's mental age divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100. Preoperational thought is Piaget's term for the second period of cognitive development in which children are unable to grasp logical concepts such as conservation or classification. Trust is part of Erikson's 1st stage of psychosocial development when the infant experiences the world as a secure place where basic needs are met.
An adolescent peer group with approximately 15-30 members is called a

A) gang
B) crowd
C) clique
D) group
B

Feedback: A crowd is a type of adolescent peer group with about 15-30 members. A clique is a type of adolescent peer group with about 3-9 members.
Erikson’s industry versus inferiority stage corresponds with which of Freud’s developmental stages?

A) Oral
B) Oedipal complex
C) latency
D) phallic
C

Feedback: The oral stage corresponds to Erikson's trust vs. mistrust.The phallic stage corresponds to Erikson's initiative vs. guilt. The oedipal conplex is not a psychosexual stage but a concept within the phallic stage.
Jack, who thinks of himself as a real “softie”, pretends that he’s tough and unfeeling whenever he’s with the guys from the football squad. With his other friends, Jack pretends that he’s politically conservative even though, in reality, he thinks of himself as a liberal. Because Jack engages in these false self behaviors as a way to experiment with different roles, it’s likely that he

A) is not happy with his true self
B) is psychologically happy
C) is unable to distinguish between his false selves and his true self
D) has high levels of positive support from his parents
B

edback: In an attempt to impress others, testing a new role or seek approval, teens may act out a “False self”. This “false self” allows teens acting the opposite of their core being by testing new roles, and seeking approval from others. This ability indicates good psychological growth & happiness.
Nancy is protesting against the recent enactment of the death penalty in her home state. She feels that it is immoral for the government to decide who should live and who should die. Nancy is functioning at Kohlberg’s _____ level.

A) concrete
B) conventional
C) postconventional
D) preconventional
C

Feedback: Concrete is not one of Kohlberg's stages of moral development. Preconventional principles place emphasis on avoiding punishments and getting rewards. Conventional emphasizes social rules and law & order. Postconventional morality is the highest level emphasizing universal ethical principles such as the death penalty.
In studying personality and social development, learning theorists have given attention to each of the following except

A) Positive reinforcement
B) genetics
C) observational learning
D) imitation and modeling
B

Feedback: Learning or behavioral theorists explain personality and social development in terms of observational learning, imitation & modeling, and reinforcement. The role of genetics does not have a place in learning theories.
Difficulty in learning school subjects such as reading, writing or math despite a normal intelligence and the absence of sensory or motor disabilities is called:

A) low abilities
B) mental retardation
C) a learning disorder
D) attention deficit disorder (ADD)
C

Feedback: Attention deficit disorder (ADD) is a problem which a child has great difficulty concentrating for more than a few moments at a time. Mental retardation is someone who scores below 70 on an IQ test.
Your friend Janet is the mother of an obese ten-year-old girl. When she turns to you for advice on helping her daughter to lose weight, you correctly advise her to

A) Eliminate all snack foods, candy and soft drinks from the girl’s diet
B) Forget about losing the weight and just teach the child to accept and love herself as she is
C) Participate with the child in her efforts to exercise and diet
D) Try a low calorie crash diet with the goal of losing five pounds a week
C

Feedback: Obese children need emotional support as well as help in losing weight. Changes in family patterns in addition to the child's food intake are essential to effective treatment. Parents can help overweight children by joining in their efforts not only for support, but for good modeling too.
Water from one of two identical full glasses is poured into a taller glass of a different shape. Which child will know that the taller glass contains the same amount of water as the shorter glass? A child at the:

A) concrete operational stage who hears the procedure described verbally
B) preoperational stage who hears the procedure described verbally
C) concrete operational stage who observes the procedure
D) preoperational stage who observes the procedure
C

Feedback: Children thinking at the preoperational level of cognitive development are not able to grasp the concept of conservation either by verbal cues or sight.Children at the concrete operational level are able to get concepts of conservation only while viewing the actual procedure.
The key to formal operational thinking is the ability to think about concepts

A) Concretely
B) Sensory
C) Symbolically
D) Abstractly
D

Feedback: The ability to think abstractly is the key to formal operational thought. Symbolic thinking is part of preoperational thought. Sensory & motor skills are characteristic for the sensorimotor stage. Concrete operational thought is the ability to apply logic to concrete situations.
Sydney calls her best friend Alisha in a panic. She has a date with Jason, someone she has wanted to date for months, but now she has a blemish on her forehead, which she knows Jason (and everyone else) will notice. This is an example of the:

A) Imaginary audience
B) personal fable
C) false-belief syndrome
D) invincibility fable
A

Feedback: A personal fable represents an egocentric idea in which teens believe they are destined for great accomplishments. Invincibility fable is another egocentric idea in which adolescents believe they are "immune" from normal troubles and dangers. A false-believe syndrome is not a technical term.
An elementary age child might learn by chunking items together. This process is called:

A) rehearsal
B) recognition
C) recall
D) insight
A

Feedback: Recall is the ability to retrieve information with or without cues. Recognition is the ability to correctly identify items previously experienced when they appear again. Insight is not a term typically associated with memory.
Tommy understands that his father can also be a son and a brother all at the same time. This suggests that Tommy is in the _______ stage.

A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational
C

Feedback: Tommy is thinking in the concrete operational stage because he can think objectively and reason logically about the roles of his father. Sensorimotor development relates to infants exploring the world through their senses and motor skills. Preoperational thought relates to thinking symbolically & on only one perspective. Formal operational thought relates to adolescents and adults who can think abstractly & hypothetically about concepts.
Competent adolescent development is most likely to happen when adolescents have parents who:

A) Display authoritative ways of dealing with problems and conflict
B) Display authoritarian ways of dealing with problems and conflict
C) Insist that their adolescents learn to resolve problems and conflict on their own
D) Develop more flexible boundaries and learn to become friends with their children
A

Feedback: Research has shown that the autoritative parenting style leads to competent adolescent development more than authoritarian or permissive styles.
A 14 year old acts responsibly, makes decisions independently, and accepts the consequences of inappropriate behavior. The parents of this adolescent probably relied most upon which parenting style?

A) authoritarian
B) permissive
C) restrictive
D) authoritative
D

Feedback: Children of authoritative style parents are found to be the best adjusted and more self-controlled, self-reliant, and socially competent.
At the children’s parade, Ellen was put in charge of handing out the flags. Even though she knew that all the flags were the same size before she gave them out, because one of the boys was much taller than any of the others, Ellen thought that his flagpole was now a different length than anyone else’s. Ellen is apparently unable to understand

A) Conservation of length
B) Conservation of mass
C) Conservation of volume
D) Classification
A

Feedback: Conservation is the understanding that changing the shape or appearance of objects doesn't change their amount. Rolling out a ball of clay into a thin rope is an example of conservation of mass. Conservation of volume is demonstated usually with pouring equal amounts of liquid into different sized containers. Classification is the concept that objects can be organized in terms of categories. Conservation of length is the correct answer.
According to David Elkind, what is one form of adolescent egocentrism?

A) excessive self-esteem
B) fear of risk taking
C) use of concrete operations
D) imaginary audience
D

Feedback: Elkind's forms of adolescent egocentrism include: imaginary audience, personal fable, invincibility factor, and foundling fantasy.
Carol Gilligan’s theory of moral development emphasizes the importance of which factor?

A) interpersonal communication and relationships
B) the rules of society
C) the rights of individuals
D) the individual’s level of cognitive development
A

Feedback: Gilligan's theory emphasizes the concept of interdependence. Interdependence involves long-term commitments and interpersonal attachments.
Jessica’s parents have never “forced” their opinions on her, and have always allowed her to try anything she wanted to because they did not want to put any limits on her development. Based on the research, we would expect Jessica to experience identity:

A) Achievement
B) Moratorium
C) Foreclosure
D) Diffusion
D

Feedback: Diffusion status is seen most frequently in teenagers who have experienced rejection or neglect from detached, "indifferent" or uncaring parents.
Asked whether they ever had doubts about their religion, four students gave the following answers. Which of these students has arrived at identity achievement?

A) Kristin: “Oh, I don’t know. It really doesn’t bother me. I figure one’s about as good as another.”
B) Joe: “No, not really. Our family is pretty much in agreement about these things.”
C) Alicia: “Yes, I guess I’m going through that right now. How can there be a God with so much evil in the world?”
D) Phil: “Yeah, I even started wondering if God existed. I’ve pretty much resolved that by now, though.”
D

Feedback: Identity achievement occurs when adolescents attain their new identity through a process of self-exploration of goals and values. Kristin would characterized by identity diffusion. Joe would be an example of foreclosure. Alicia is in the process of identity achievement but not completed yet; she is still in the exploration stage.
After escorting Roger and Rita to the hospital, where Rita gave birth to a boy, Officer Davis gave Roger a ticket for not coming to a complete stop at a stop sign prior to the time he escorted them. Officer Davis is functioning at Kohlberg’s

A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 4
D) Stage 6
C

Feedback: Kohlberg's stage 4 includes abiding by laws for the society. Stage 1 refers to obeying rules in order to avoid punishment. Stage 2 refers to obeying rules to obtain rewards. Stage 6 is the abiding of ethical principles.
In Piaget’s concrete operational stage, a child’s thinking becomes:

A) egocentric
B) irreversible
C) reversible and flexible
D) focused on the here and now
C
Feedback: Egocentric & irreversible thought and the thinking based on the here and now are all components of Piaget's preoperational thought.
Aaron is aware of his thinking and understands that he uses certain strategies to help him remember. These skills demonstrate:

A) memory
B) mnemonics
C) metacognition
D) abstract reasoning
C

Feedback: Memory involves the process of encoding, storing, and retrieiving. Mnemonics is one of the actually strategies used for remembering. Abstract reasoning is a characteristic of formal operational thought.
A pacifist who is thrown in jail for refusing to obey the draft laws because he believes that killing is morally wrong is at what stage of moral development?

A) preconventional
B) conventional
C) concrete
D) postconventional
D

Feedback: Concrete is not a stage of moral development. Preconventional morality involves avoiding punishments & gaining rewards. Conventional morality revolves around social standards and beginning moral values.
Postconventional morality is the highest stage in moral reasoning involving universal ethical principles.
As a typical teenager, Vanessa is more likely to go to her parents than to her peers for advice on

A) What to wear to the prom
B) Which boys to date
C) Which CD’s to buy
D) Which foreign language to study in high school
D

Feedback: Adolescents tend to discuss academic, vocational, religious and ethical topics with their parents and peer relation issues with their friends.
Ever since he was five years old, his father had been telling Eddie that some day he would come to work with him in his furniture store. But when he finished high school, Eddie told his father that he decided to go to culinary school and become a chef instead. Eddie’s identity status is

A) Foreclosed
B) identity achieved
C) identity diffused
D) moratorium
B

Feedback: If Eddie would have decided to work in the furniture store with his father, this would be an example of foreclosed. Moratorium is a pause in identity formation that allows people to explore before making final choices. Identity diffusion status is someone who has never gone through an identity crisis nor made commitments.
Adriane is an architect. According to Howard Gardner’s theory of intelligence, which type of intelligence would Adriane have?

A) spatial
B) mathematical
C) kinesthetic
D) naturalist
A

Feedback: An architect would possess a spatial intelligence because it involves perceiving and arranging objects in a situation. Mathematical includes analysis & solving problems. Kinesthetic revolves around body movements. Naturalist was later added as the 8th distinct intelligence by Gardner representing ability to recognize and classify plants & animals.
A teacher gives a group of 7 year olds some sticks of varying length. At this age, the children will

A) Put them in order from shortest to longest, using an orderly plan
B) Attempt to order them by height, but will make many mistakes and take a long time to correct them
C) Put them in a completely random order and not attempt to correct mistakes
D) Not understand the task
A

Feedback: 7 year old children thinking at the concrete operational level will know that differences between similar objects can be measured. Seriation is the term that refers to the arrangement of items. The sticks will be layed out from shortest to longest or vice-versa using a plan.
Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence includes all of the following abilities EXCEPT:

A) analytical
B) creative
C) motivational
D) practical
C

Feedback: Sternberg's intelligence theory includes analytical, creative, and practical abilities.
Authoritarian parents are most likely to have adolescents experiencing identity:

A) Achievement
B) Moratorium
C) Foreclosure
D) Diffusion
C

Feedback: Since authoritarian parents do not give their children freedom to make their own choices, many adolescents experience identity foreclosure and have not gone through the identity crisis need to obtain identity achievement.
Isaac is interested in school. He reads a lot and likes to do experiments. Assuming normal development, according to Erik Erikson’s theory, Isaac is in which stage?

A) Autonomy vs. shame/doubt
B) Initiative vs. guilt
C) Industry vs. inferiority
D) Identity vs. role confusion
C

Feedback: Autonomy vs. shame & doubt relates to toddlerhood; Initiatve vs. guilt pertains to preschoolers wanting to take on adult like activities. Identity vs. role confusion relates to adolescents establishing "who they are?"Industry vs. Inferiority is the developmental crisis of Issac at this time.
Which one of these teens is exhibiting the personal fable?

A) Anthony, who thinks that everyone will notice the new pimple that sprouted on his forehead
B) Rick, who wants to be just like his father, the best basketball player the school ever had
C) Derek, who drives 80 miles/hour on residential streets because he thinks it is fun
D) Steve, who thinks he will be President of the United States
D

Feedback: Anthony's adolescent egocentrism is an example of the imaginary audience. Derek's example is of the invincibility factor. Steve's idea that he'll be a US President is an example of a personal fable.
With considerable practice, eight-year-old George has become the best swimmer in his whole elementary school. Erikson would say that George is developing a sense of

A) Competitiveness
B) Industry
C) Initiative
D) Integrity
B

Feedback: Erikson's crisis of industry vs. inferiority involves children trying to master whatever skills are valued for their culture. They develop views of themselves as either competent or incompetent. Erikson's term for competence is industry.
Americans are less likely to value Gardener’s _______ intelligence and that helps to explain why many middle-aged people do not engage in sports or regularly exercise.

A) Logical-mathematical
B) Kinesthetic
C) spatial
D) interpersonal
B

Feedback: Kinesthetic intelligence involves body movements such as sports, dancing, and exercise.
________ displays the most advanced process of cognition.

A) Postformal thought
B) Adult moral reasoning
C) Dialectical thought
D) Cognitive flexibility
C

Feedback: Some theorists consider dialectical thought the most advanced form of cognition.In daily life, dialectical thinking involves the constant integration of one’s beliefs and experiences with all the contradictions and inconsistencies they encounter.
By Cartell’s definition, which type of intelligence declines with age?

A) fluid
B) crystallized
C) short term
D) long term
A

Feedback: Fluid intelligence declines with age. Crystallized intelligence accumulates with age. Long & short term are concepts more commonly used for memory.
Satisfaction with work itself is a(n):

A) unpaid bonus
B) lifetime goal
C) intrinsic reward
D) extrinsic reward
C

Feedback: Extrinsic rewards are “external” such as money and prestige. Intrinsic rewards come from “within” such as satisfaction and self esteem.
When the term is used correctly, menopause is the

A) Beginning of a dramatic change in women’s reproductive system
B) Process of a dramatic change in women’s reproductive system
C) Ending of a dramatic change in women’s reproductive system
D) Total cessation of estrogen production in middle-aged women
C

Feedback: Menopause is the dramatic change for women due to the cessation of ovulation and menstuation.
Compared with formal operational thought, postformal thought is characterized by being able to

A) Dismiss contradictory thought
B) Deal with relative and subjective knowledge
C) Choose between alternatives
D) Reduce the number of problems that one considers
B

Feedback: Relativism is a characteristic of post formal thought. It is an understanding that one’s own perspective is only one of many potentially valid views of reality and knowledge is not fixed or absolute.
Male menopause

A) Is a sudden drop in reproductive ability
B) Is a sudden drop in hormonal levels
C) Is a decrease in libido
D) does not exist
D

Feedback: There are no abrupt changes in men comparable to menopause. There is no such thing as male menopause.
Exercise can lead to decreases in all except

A) blood pressure
B) metabolism
C) LDL cholesterol
D) weight
B

Feedback: Exercise will increase metabolism. Exercise will lead to decreases in weight, LDL cholesterol, and blood pressure.
Expertise is

A) Applying intelligence to everyday activities
B) Specialized experience in specific areas
C) Genetically determined
D) More common because it can be taught
B

Feedback: As people get older, they may become “experts” in the specialized types of intelligence/skills they choose to develop.
Expertise is least likely related to:

A) time
B) genetics
C) practice
D) training
B

Feedback: As people get older, they may become experts in specific types of intelligence/skills they "choose" to develop. Since it's a choice, genetics is less likely to be a factor.
According to Erik Erikson, the most important task in early adulthood is

A) Forging an identity
B) Separating from one’s parents
C) Achieving academic or career success
D) Developing close personal relationships
D

Feedback: Erikson's developmental task of early adulthood is intimacy vs. isolation. Developing close personal relationships is considered intimacy.
Shondra has just gone through a divorce and in the first year she will be most likely to

A) Become less productive at work
B) Find her social circle has shrunk
C) Exhibit promiscuous sexual behavior
D) Be much more comfortable in social situations
B

Feedback: Effects of divorce on personal level especially during the 1st year include: hurt feelings for both parties, a drop in social circle of friends, hostile feelings, and feelings of doubt, fear & loss.
Lisa writes for a local newspaper and is really good a intellectual puzzles, so she would probably test high in

A) general intelligence
B) fluid intelligence
C) crystallized intelligence
D) Practical intelligence
B

Feedback: Someone high in fluid intelligence is quick and creative with words, numbers and intellectual puzzles. Lisa is an example of someone with high fluid intelligence. The size of vocabulary, knowledge of mathmatical formulas, and long term memory for dates are indications of high crystallized intelligence.
How do men and women compare on morbidity and mortality rates?

A) Men have higher morbidity and mortality rates
B) Women have higher morbidity and mortality rates
C) Men have higher morbidity rates and women have higher mortality rates
D) Women have higher morbidity rates and men have higher mortality rates
D

Feedback: Morbidity is the number of persons sickened by specific diseases. There is a higher rate in women. Mortality is the number of deaths due to specific diseases. Mortality rates are higher for men.
Which of the following is more typical of female friendships than of male friendships?

A) Shared activities
B) Shared achievements
C) Greater self-disclosure
D) Being near someone
C

Feedback: Male friendships are based on common interests and shared activities.Female friendships tend to be more emotional and intimate; Female friendships are also based on shared confidences & help during stressful times.
Remaining single as an adult challenges inaccurate assumptions. Which of these assumptions is accurate by today’s standards?

A) being single is a result of poor social skills
B) single people are less attractive
C) single people are religious
D) living single is a choice
D

Feedback: Many singles "choose" the single life as a way of enjoying intimate relationships wahile avoiding possible constraints and problems of marriage. They may not want to feel trapped or bored.
Who is most often left to care for an aging parent?

A) the adult daughter
B) the adult son
C) a medical professional
D) a sibling
A

Feedback: Caring for adult children brings added stress to middle aged parents. The burden of responsibility usually falls on the adult daughter to take care of elderly parents.
An eating disorder in which the person is obsessed by thought of an unattainable image of “perfect” thinness is:

A) obesity
B) anorexia nervosa
C) bulimia nervosa
D) depression
B

Feedback: Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder engages in episodes of binging and purging. Obesity is considered to be body weight more than 20% greater than average. Depression is sometimes a causal factor for eating disorders.
All of the following are “big five” personality dimensions except:

A) openness to experience
B) neuroticism
C) generativity
D) extroversion
C

Feedback: Generativity is not one of the big five personality traits. Generativity is the process in which adults seek to be productive through work or child rearing.
In a dual career marriage you are most likely to find:

A) role buffering
B) role overload
C) marital equity
D) all of the above
D

Feedback: Role buffering, role overload, and marital equity are likelihoods in a dual career marriage.
_______ intelligence is the idea that intelligence is one basic trait that underlies all cognitive abilities.

A) General
B) Fluid
C) Crystallized
D) Postformal
A

Feedback: Charles Spearman was the theorist who believe there is a general intelligence which he called "g". He believed the idea that intelligence is one basic trait that underlies all cognitive abilities.
As we age, our level of ______ intelligence increases, and our level of ______ intelligence decreases.

A) General; fluid
B) Fluid; crystallized
C) crystallized; fluid
D) Crystallized; general
C

Feedback: Fluid intelligence is defined as the abillities involved in acquiring new knowledge and skills. Crystallized intelligence is the accumulation of knowledge and skills based on education and experience. Fluid intelligence decreases gradually as we age. Crystallized intelligence increases over the years.
In their friendship, it is unlikely that Jim and Dave would

A) Solve a practical problem
B) Talk about their new computers
C) Discuss their health
D) Tease each other about their baseball abilities
C

Feedback: Male friendships are based on common interests and shared activities less disclosure than women. It is less likey they would discuss their health issues with one another.
In the work place, many women and minority workers experience the ____________, which halts promotion and undercuts their power at a certain managerial level.

A) glass ceiling
B) generativity
C) affirmative action
D) patriarchal terrorism
A

Feedback: The term "glass ceiling" refers to an invisible barrier experienced by many women in male dominated occupations that halts promotions.
We could distinguish Stephen, an expert chess player, from Darrell, who is a novice, because Darrell is more likely than Stephen to do what when determining his moves?

A) Use his accumulated experience
B) Process information automatically
C) Have better strategies and short-cuts
D) Use set patterns
D

Feedback: In addition to being more experienced, Experts are better thinkers than novices in many ways. Experts are more intuitive and flexible and use better strategies to perform whatever task is required. Their cognitive processes are more specialized and automatic since little conscious thought is required. Novices rely on formal procedures and rules to guide them.
Regarding intelligence in middle age:

A) Crystallized intelligence increases, while fluid intelligence begins to decline
B) Fluid intelligence increases, while crystallized intelligence begins to decline
C) Both crystallized and fluid intelligence increase
D) Both crystallized and fluid intelligence begin to decline
A

Feedback: Fluid intelligence begins to decline as people age whereas crystallized intelligence accumulates with age.
Which type of thought has been characterized as relativistic and integrative in nature?

A) concrete operational
B) post formal
C) preoperational
D) sensorimotor
B

Feedback: Sensorimotor, preoperational, and concrete operational are stages of Piaget's cognitive development. None of these stages are relativistic and integrative in nature.
James is in computer sales, coaches soccer, is head of the Neighborhood Watch group, goes cycling with his club and could best be described as high in:

A) neuroticism
B) openness
C) extroversion
D) conscientiousness
C

Feedback: Extroversion: tendency to be outgoing, assertive, and active. Conscientiousness: tendency to be organized, deliberate, and conforming.Neuroticism: tendency to be anxious, moody, and self-punishing.Openness: tendency to be imaginative, curious, and artistic
What usually happens to hearing in middle adulthood?

A) females and males both experience very little hearing loss
B) females and males both experience the same amount of hearing loss
C) males experience more hearing loss than women
D) females experience more hearing loss than males do
C

Feedback: Hearing typically becomes less acute after age 20 and declines gradually. This hearing loss is more common in men that women.
______ is to outgoing as ______ is to curiosity.

A) Extroversion; openness
B) Openness; conscientiousness
C) Extroversion; agreeableness
D) Openness; extroversion
A

Feedback: Extroversion: tendency to be outgoing, assertive, and active Agreeableness: tendency to be kind & helpfulConscientiousness: tendency to be organized, deliberate, and conformingNeuroticism: tendency to be anxious, moody, and self-punishingOpenness: tendency to be imaginative, curious, and artistic
The climacteric indicates the end of __________

A) night sweats
B) sexual activity
C) reproductive capability
D) incontinence
C

Feedback: The climacteric refers to the various biological and psychological changes that accompany menopause, which is the end of reproductive capability.
A person between the ages of 40 and 59 is going to have most difficulty:

A) Reading a wall chart at the eye-care professional’s office
B) Reading street signs
C) Reading a newspaper
D) Watching television at a distance
C

Feedback: Although visual acuity declines in the early 50's, an partial exception is nearsightedness. People can often see distant objects better in middle adulthood than they could as young adults.
How does Levinson describe adulthood?

A) a long, stable period
B) process of continuous change
C) rapid changes between stable periods
D) stable periods alternating with transitional periods
D

Feedback: Levinson believed adulthood was a time of stable and transitional periods.
Grandparents who live on the next street and see their grandchildren every day are defined as:

A) involved
B) remote
C) compassionate
D) independent
A

Feedback: Remote – grandparents are distant; Involved – active in everyday life of grandchildren; live near grandchildren; Companionate – mutually enjoyed activities with grandchildren; no discipline; free to choose time and type of activities. There is no independent type of grandparent relationship.
Middle-aged adults have been described as the “sandwich” generation because:

A) They are now responsible for taking care of grandchildren, including preparing their meals, while their adult children are at work
B) As retirees, they now spend more time at home and are able to eat together as a couple
C) They face the demands of caring for both their children and their elderly parents
D) It is now up to them to pass on family traditions to their children and grandchildren
C

Feedback: Family ties across the generations are particularly important for those in the middle-aged generation, because they are the “generation in the middle” between aging parents and adult children ~ referred to as the sandwich generation.
Divorce in middle age is usually more difficult because of:

A) finances
B) loss of self-esteem
C) family disruption
D) role overload
B

Feedback: Self-esteem issues make divorce in middle age more difficult.
Erik Erikson believed that the primary crisis of the early adult years is:

A) Autonomy vs. shame/doubt
B) Identity vs. role confusion
C) Intimacy vs. isolation
D) Generativity vs. stagnation
C

Feedback: Autonomy vs. shame & doubt refers to toddlers. Identity vs. role confusion pertains to adolescents. Generativity vs. stagnation is the task of middle adulthood.
According to Erikson, a middle-aged individual who fails to acquire a sense of generativity is likely to develop which of the following?

A) neuroticism
B) despair
C) role strain
D) stagnation
A

Feedback: Without a sense of generativity, life seems empty and purposeless. Erikson said this would lead to stagnation.
Which statement best describes research findings regarding personality traits, such as neuroticism and openness, through adulthood?

A) personality traits are generally stable over the life span
B) personality traits usually change dramatically as a function of an adult’s experiences
C) there is a greater stability of personality traits in childhood than in adulthood
D) there is more variation of personality traits in late adulthood than in early adulthood
A

Feedback: The Big Five personality traits remain constant during adulthood.
With each year from 20 to 40, all the body systems gradually become less efficient. This decrease in efficiency is called:

A) homeostasis
B) senescence
C) organ reserve
D) infertility
B

Feedback: When senescence begins to occur Homeostasis takes increasingly longer to reach. Homeostasis is referred to as the state of equilibrium of the body as a result of body organ systems adjusting to internal/external stimuli.In addition to less efficient homeostatic functioning, there is also a decrease in organ reserve. Organ reserve is the extra capacity that each organ has for responding to stressful events.Infertility: is defined as the inability to conceive a child after 1 year or more without contraception.
Which stage does Valliant add to Erikson’s description of human development during early adulthood?

A) career consolidation
B) early adult transition
C) keeping the meaning
D) post formal thought
A

Feedback: Valliant was another adult developmental theory that expanded on Erikson’s stages. There were 2 stages: career consolidation (early adulthood) & keeping the meaning vs. rigidity (middle adulthood)
________ grandparents are less likely to be found in the US today than through most of the 20th century.

A) Remote
B) Involved
C) Companionate
D) Traditional
B

Feedback: With remote grandparenting, grandchildren regard grandparents with respect and the grandparents are regarded as patriarch/matriarch. Grandparents are living distant from grandchildren. Involved grandparents are active in everyday lives of grandchildren. They tend to live near grandchildren. Involved grandparents are common among immigrants. Involved grandparents are less likely to be found in the US today than through most of the 20th century.Companionate describes mutually enjoyed activities with grandchildren. There is no discipline & they are free to choose time and type of activities.
The “big five” personality factors:

A) Showed different patterns of development during middle adulthood
B) Became the “big three” as adults matured
C) Go through a series of developmental stages
D) Remain relatively stable during the middle adult years
D

Feedback: The Big Five personality traits remain constant during adulthood.
Which is NOT a component of Sternberg’s triangular theory of love?

A) passion
B) choice
C) intimacy
D) decision/commitment
B

Feedback: Passion, intimacy, and decision/commitment are components of Sternberg's theory of love.
Toni is helping to take care of her elderly mother and is helping her daughter, who is newly divorced. It could be best said that she

A) Is in a midlife crisis
B) Represents the sandwich generation
C) Is feeling overburdened
D) Has to prioritize better
B

Feedback: Toni is the “generation in the middle” between aging mother and adult daughter. She is considered the Sandwich Generation ~ a generation squeezed between the needs of 2 adjacent generations.
Cross-sectional research on fluid and crystallized intelligence supports which conclusion?

A) fluid intelligence peaks during young adulthood
B) crystallized intelligence peaks during young adulthood
C) fluid intelligence first declines in late adulthood
D) crystallized intelligence first declines in middle adulthood
A

Feedback: Fluid intelligence peaks during young adulthood & then begins to decline in middle adulthood. Crystallized intelligences continues to increase throughout adulthood.
Fiona, an artist, loves to travel to new places, try new foods, wear outrageous clothes and her personality structure would be best classified as:

A) openness
B) extroversion
C) agreeableness
D) conscientiousness
A

Feedback: Extroversion: tendency to be outgoing, assertive, and active. Agreeableness: tendency to be kind & helpful. Conscientiousness: tendency to be organized, deliberate, and conforming. Openness: tendency to be imaginative, curious, and artistic
June experiences great satisfaction through nurturing, guiding and teaching skills to her children. According to Erik Erikson, June is dealing successfully with which psychological task?

A) Industry vs. inferiority
B) Identity vs. confusion
C) Intimacy vs. isolation
D) Generativity vs. stagnation
D

Feedback: Erikson described the basic task in middle adulthood as Generativity vs. Stagnation. This is the need to be productive in some meaningful way usually through work or parenthood; if not, life seems empty and without purpose.
Martha is a jail guard who does not like to travel, worries about finances and has few friends. She most likely fits into which category of personality traits?

A) openness
B) neuroticism
C) conscientiousness
D) agreeableness
B

Feedback: Martha would not be extroverted or have tendencies of openness. Although Martha may be agreeable or conscientious, it is most likely she's considered to be neurotic. Neuroticism: tendency to be anxious, moody, and self-punishing.
A 60 year old man runs a 100-yard dash and feels very short of breath. This never happened to him 20 years ago. This reflects which common physiological change that occurs with aging?

A) lower hormone levels
B) less cardiovascular efficiency
C) declining agility
D) slower neural conduction
B

Feedback: Because endurance depends on the amount of oxygen supplied, poeple can't generally perform as much hard activity in middle adulthood as they can in young adulthood due to a decline in cardiovascular efficiency.
“Wear and tear” theories of aging emphasize

A) the comparison of the human body to a machine that wears out as a result of constant use.
B) The limited number of times that cells can divide
C) An increase in genetic errors as cells divide
D) Genetic programming
A

Feedback: Wear and tear theories about aging states that the human body wears out merely by being lived in and by being exposed to environmental stressors. It sees the human body as a machine that wears out over time.
Dylan watched his father suffer for a year before dying of cancer. Now Dylan wants to be sure that his father retains control over any decisions made concerning how, when and under what circumstances life-sustaining treatments will be used or withheld in the case of his own final illness. To ensure this, Dylan should prepare for his father a:

A) living trust
B) living will
C) last will and testament
D) medical power of attorney
B

Feedback: A medical power of attorney is a legal document by which a person authorizes another to make life or death decisions. Dylan's father isn't stating that he wants Dylan to be in control of decisions. Dylan's father want to have a say in the course of treatment for his illness. He needs a living will. A living will is an advance directive signed by a person indicating that the person doesn't wish extraordinary measures to be used to sustain life in the case of a terminal illess.
___________is one of the most serious stresses a person can undergo.

A) Death of a spouse
B) Moving to an active adult community
C) Retirement
D) Remarriage
A

Feedback: Although retirement, remarriage, and moving are stressors, the most serious stresses a person experiences is the death of a spouse.
Abnormally high blood pressure, sometimes accompanied by headaches and dizziness is called:

A) hypertension
B) a stroke
C) atherosclerosis
D) glaucoma
A

Feedback: Glaucoma is an increase of pressure within the eyeball that can result in damage and gradual loss of vision. Atherosclerosis is the hardening of the arteries.
The order of the stages of dying as proposed by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross are:

A) Denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance, depression
B) Anger, denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance
C) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
D) Anger, bargaining, acceptance, depression, denial
C

Feedback: Although patients may not follow these stages in order, Kubler-Ross proposed that the order of the stages are: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
Gertrude is seventy five years old. If Erik Erikson’s theory of personality is correct, which of the following would be of most concern to Gertrude?

A) What is the enduring meaning of my life?
B) What can I do to help younger people?
C) How can I become less lonely?
D) What can I do to increase the time that I have left?
A

Feedback: "What is the enduring meaning of my life?" is the developmental task of integrity during late adulthood according to Erikson. "What can I do to help younger people?" is an example of generativity (middle age). "How can I become less lonely?" is an example of intimacy vs. isolation (young adults). "What can I do to increase the time I have left?" is not one of Erikson's crises.
In performing an autopsy on a patient who had shown steady mental deterioration before his death, from memory loss to complete disorientation, a physician finds some brain cells clumped together in tangles, while others are shrunken. The patient most likely had _______.

A) aging-related senility
B) Parkinson's disease
C) Pick's disease
D) Alzheimer's disease
D

Feedback: The leading cause of cognitive decline is Alzheimer's Disease. It involves a progressive deterioration of brain cells. Autopsies have revealed a characteristic pattern of damaged areas that look like bits of braided yarn. Some other causes of cognitive decline include: Parkinson’s disease-lack of dopamine (neurotransmitter) which aids in smooth, coordinated movements; Pick’s disease- atrophy of frontal & temporal lobes of brain which results in personality & intellect changes.
Widowers are more likely than widows to

A) remain single
B) interact with family members
C) experience loneliness
D) have better financial resources
D

Feedback: Widows experience more financial stresses but they tend to widen social network for support. Widowers experience more problems with their health, have better financial resources, and are more likely to remarry than widows.
Older adults are in the final crisis of development according to Erikson. It’s the stage of:

A) integrity vs. despair
B) identity vs. role confusion
C) initiative vs. guilt
D) generativity vs. stagnation
A

Feedback: Identity vs. role confusion occurs during adolescence. Initiative vs. guilt occurs during the preschool years. Generativity vs. stagnation occurs during middle adulthood.
Which of the following is a true statement about marriages or partnerships in late life?

A) Older women are more likely than older men to date and remarry
B) Older couples report less pleasure and more conflict in their relationships than do middle-aged couples
C) Most older couples report that they no longer have sex
D) Married elders who have a disability receive most of their care and assistance from their spouse
D

Feedback: Older men are more likely to date and remarry; Older couples report more pleasure in their relationships; Older couples still have sexual intercourse; Married elders receive most of their care from their spouse.
Which of the following is NOT typical of hospice care?

A) Make every effort to prolong life
B) Bring pain under control
C) Help dying patients face death in a psychologically healthy way
D) Include the dying individual’s family
A

Feedback: Hospice is a philosophy which involves helping the dying patients face death in a psychologically healthy way, managing pain & making the patient as comfortable as possible, and including the patient's family in the dying process. No efforts to prolong life are a part of the Hospice movement.
An individual who was concerned about the effects of aging caused by free radicals would be advised to eat a diet _______.

A) That is high in antioxidants such as vitamins C and E and beta carotene
B) That includes the daily recommended servings of whole grain breads and cereals
C) That minimizes all forms of sugar
D) That uses vegetarian sources of protein
A

Feedback: Research has explored the effects of dietary substances of vitamins C and E on reducing the effects of free radicals.
According to Erikson, an individual who fails to achieve ego integrity will experience which of the following?

A) A sense of inferiority
B) Boredom and stagnation
C) Guilt
D) Feelings of hopelessness and despair
D

Feedback: Erikson's theory in late adulthood is integrity vs. despair. People either feel that their lives have had meaning and look back on past experiences with a sense of integrity or they despair at their past and dread the future.
Those who adopt a disengagement theory of aging believe that:

A) As older adults slow down, they gradually withdraw from society
B) The more active adults are, the less likely they will age
C) The more active adults are, the more satisfied they will be
D) Reduced social interaction leads to decreased satisfaction with life
A

Feedback: Activity theory states that the more active adults are, the healthier & more satisfied they will be because reduced social interaction leads to decreased satisfaction with life. Disengagement theory believes there is a mutual withdraw from the older adult and society.
The _______ theory of aging states that people age because inside their cells normal metabolism produces unstable oxygen molecules that ricochet around the cells, damaging DNA and other cellular structures.

A) free-radical
B) cellular clock
C) wear and tear
D) Hayflick limit
A

Feedback: The wear and tear theory proposes that as we use our bodies, we wear them out, just as a machine wears out with extended use. The Hayflick limit and the cellular clock are the same, it states there are only a set number of times a cell can divide. Free radicals are atoms that have unpaired electrons due to metabolic processes that may interrupt normal cell functioning; these free radicals aid to cell damage.
In Western societies, a widely prevalent attitude that overvalues youth and degrades older people is refered to as:

A) stereotypes
B) discrimination
C) ageism
D) egocentrism
C

Feedback: Ageism is the word used to describe this attitude of indifference and neglect to older adults.
Which of the following is the theoretical proposition that the lifespan of any species is subject to a genetically preprogrammed limit to the number of times cells have the capacity to replicate themselves?

A) wear and tear theory
B) free radicals theory
C) the Hayflick limit
D) error catastrophe
C

Feedback: The Hayflick Limit refers to the “cellular clock” in which there are only a set number of times a cell can divide. The lifespan is limited to genetics. It stops after approximately 50 divisions.
Which of the following sensory system changes is most likely to be treated with medicine?

A) glaucoma
B) visual acuity
C) cataracts
D) detached retina
A

Feedback: Glaucoma can often be treated with medication. Cataracts can be removed through laser surgery. Visual acuity can be increased with corrective lenses.
Active euthanasia is

A) Not administering a prescribed drug that would help keep the patient alive
B) Letting the patient die naturally
C) The intentional administration of a lethal drug dose by medical personnel to the dying patient
D) Allowing the dying patient to decide when painkilling drugs should be administered
C

Feedback: Active euthanasia is the process of taking positive steps to bring about another person's death such as an intentional adminstration of a lethal drug dose. Passive euthanasia is the process of withholding or disconnecting life sustaining equipment so that death can occur naturally. Not administering a prescribed drup that would help keep the patient alive would be an example.
Most older people ________.

A) are senile
B) are helpless and dependent
C) are healthy, productive, and able
D) have a disability
C

Feedback: The ageism stereotypes assert that in old age people are senile, helpless & dependent, and have a disability. In actuality, most people in late adulthood are healthy, productive and able.
___________is the processing component through which your current, conscious mental activity occurs; It has 2 functions to store and process information.

A) sensory register
B) knowledge base
C) working memory
D) control processes
C

Feedback: The sensory register stores incoming sensory information for a split second after it is received, allowing it to be selectively processed by other components of the system. The knowledge base consists of one’s long term storehouse of information and memories. Control processes include memory strategies used to retain information in the knowledge base, retrieval strategies for reaccessing that information on a later occasion, and rule of thumb thinking that aids in problem solving.
The most significant status change of later adulthood is:

A) retirement
B) empty nest
C) poverty
D) remarriage
A

Feedback: One of the primary tasks of older adulthood is adjusting to retirement. Empty nest, remarriage and poverty all require adjustment, but they are not considered the most significant status change during later adulthood.
__________is the study of death.

A) social gerontology
B) thanatology
C) euthanasia
D) bereavement
B

Feedback: Social gerontology is the study of old age. Euthanasia is the idea of mercy killing. Bereavement is the process of adjusting to life without a loved one.
Which of the following is the symptom most closely associated with Alzheimer’s disease?

A) manic behavior
B) sensory impairment
C) loss of memory
D) loss of reflexes
C

Feedback: Alzheimer's disease is the most common form of dementia, characterized by gradual deterioration of memory.
A 23-year old patient is terminally ill. After a long struggle, she realizes that death is inevitable and begins to make preparations for her funeral and burial. This patient is most likely in which of Kubler-Ross’ stages of dying?

A) acceptance
B) bargaining
C) denial
D) depression
A

Feedback: Denial is the refusal to believe it could happen. Bargaining is the process of making deals with god or medical authority. Depression is the upset & sadness associated with dying. Acceptance is the final stage where piece of mind is achieved.
The goal of palliative care in hospice is to manage:

A) nutrition
B) pain
C) disease
D) families
B

Feedback: The main aim of Hospice is to manage pain of all sorts (physical, mental, social, and spiritual)
Hospice is a

A) hospital
B) old age home
C) philosophy
D) treatment
C

Feedback: Hospice is a philosophy that involves care, counseling, support, and other assistance for dying people and their families.
Disconnecting life support equipment to allow death to occur is called:

A) passive euthanasia
B) assisted suicide
C) active euthanasia
D) natural death
A

Feedback: Passive euthanasia is the process of disconnecting life sustaining equipment so that death can occur naturally. Active euthanasia is the process of taking positive steps to bring about another person's death. Assisted suicide is a way to provide a terminally ill patient with the means to end his/her life.
Which of the following is accurate with regard to Western attitudes and behaviors regarding death?

A) most people now die at home
B) historically, death was an unfamiliar event for most people
C) denial and avoidance of the subject is common
D) none of the above
C

Feedback: In earlier historical periods, death was a familiar event. It usually occured at home with family members caring for the dying person until the end. In Western societies today, most people die in hospitals with medical staff attending to their needs. Denial and avoidance of death is a common characteristic.
Memories of remote or historical events are called:

A) working memory
B) secondary memory
C) tertiary memory
D) old age memory
C

Feedback: Working memory is the processing component through which your current, conscious mental activity occurs. Secondary is the long-term memory and tertiary is the remote memory.
Many adults in late adulthood experience ____________________ which is a stress reaction experienced by people who lose several friends or loved ones during a short period of time.

A) bereavement overload
B) anticipatory grief
C) chronic grief
D) none of the above
A

Feedback: Chronic grief is a pathological mourning process in which the person never overcomes the grief. Anticipatory grief is the process of emotionally preparing yourself for the death of a loved one, as in cases of prolonged terminal illness.
________ is a common mechanism in which the person simply refuses to see or accept reality. This can greatly interfere with coping of the reality of death.

A) Depression
B) Acceptance
C) Anger
D) Denial
D

Feedback: Anger: the person asks "why me?"; Depression is the upset & sadness surrounding death. Acceptance is the last stage of death in which piece of mind is achieved.
How each person copes with late adulthood is in much the same way as he/she coped with earlier periods of life is an example of the ___________theory.

A) activity
B) disengagement
C) psychosocial
D) continuity
D

Feedback: According to Disengagement theory, late adulthood is a time when the individual and society mutually withdraw from each other. Activity theory states that the more active the elderly are and the more roles they play, the greater their life satisfaction and the longer their life. Erikson's psychosocial theory spans the course of life and has developmental crises along the way. The continuity theory is a type of psychosocial theory believeing that each person copes with late adulthood in much the same way as he/she coped with earlier periods of life; the “self” and how we behave towards each other is maintained as we age.
Which of the following is NOT a stage of mourning:

A) shock
B) recovery
C) despair
D) crying
D

Feedback: Shock, despair, longing to being with the deceased are all phases of mourning. Crying occurs during the mourning period but it's not a distinct stage.
Which biological theory of aging holds that all human genes are programmed to produce changes that bring about death?

A) cross-linkage theory
B) endocrine theory
C) Hayflick theory
D) wear-in-tear theory
C

Feedback: Further evidence for programmed senescence is found in the Hayflick theory. It’s a “cellular clock” in which there are only a set number of times a cell can divide. The lifespan is limited to genetics.
Many people become more responsive to nature, and have a higher appreciation of expressive and creative pursuits. This is referred to as:

A) self-actualization
B) life review
C) aesthetic sense
D) generativity
C

Feedback: A Life review is putting life into perspective, a review of accomplishments & failures. Self-actualization is the ultimate goal of human development according to humanistic theory; A self-actualized person has fulfilled his/her potential to the maximum. Generativity is part of Erikson's theory in which adults seek to be productive through work or parenthood.
The process of putting life in perspective occurs in which of Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development?

A) autonomy vs. shame & doubt
B) integrity vs. despair
C) intimacy vs. isolation
D) generativity vs. stagnation
B

Feedback: The process of putting one's life in persective occurs during late adulthood during Erikson's final stage of integrity vs. despair. Autonomy vs. shame & doubt occurs during toddlerhood. Intimacy vs. isolation occurs during early adulthood. Generativity vs. stagnation occurs during middle adulthood.
During a long terminal illness, the family experiences:

A) anticipatory grief
B) bereavement overload
C) chronic grief
D) recovery
A

Feedback: Anticipatory grief is the emotional preparation of the death of a loved one. Bereavement overload is a stress reaction experienced by people who lose several friends or loved ones during a short period of time. Chronic grief is a pathological mourning process in which the person never overcomes the grief. Recovery is the last phase of mourning; can lasts months or even years
One of the major criticisms of the stages of dying identified by Kubler-Ross is that:

A) there are too many stages in her theory
B) there are not enough stages in her theory
C) not everyone goes through the stages in the order she describes
D) she does not adequately suggest how people try to cope with each stage
C

Feedback: Although the stages in Kubler-Ross' theory are common reactions to death, they are not universal and only a few go through the stages in the specified order.
How is “grief” best defined?

A) a change in status and role
B) the burial rituals used in a culture
C) an abnormal reaction to death
D) an emotional response to loss
D

Feedback: Grief is a normal reaction to death. It's an emotional response to loss.