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69 Cards in this Set

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When partial seizures originate in the temporal lobe, symptoms are most likely to include:
a sense of déjà vu

Typical symptoms of seizure activity in the temporal lobe are a change in perception, a sudden alteration in emotions (e.g., fear, sadness, happiness), and/or a sense of déjà vu.
Constructional and dressing apraxia are most often caused by lesions in the:
right parietal lobe

Constructional apraxia is characterized by an inability to copy complex geometric figures, while dressing apraxia involves inattention to one side of the body when dressing (most often the left side of the body). Both are most frequently caused by lesions in the right parietal lobe. (Note that, while constructional and dressing apraxia have been observed in patients with damage in certain areas of the frontal lobes, they are most often caused by damage to the right parietal lobe.)
Severe deficits in remotely acquired semantic knowledge are most likely due to damage to the:
temporal lobes.

Impairments in semantic memory have been linked to damage to the hippocampus and certain areas of the temporal lobe, especially the anterolateral temporal lobe.
Super’s (1980) model of career development distinguishes between five stages:
growth (ages 4-13), exploration (14-24), establishment (ages 25-44), maintenance (ages 45-65), and disengagement (ages 65+)
According to Super’s lifespan model of career development, a major task of the ________ stage is to update one’s skills through training:

During the maintenance stage, the primary tasks are staying competitive with younger workers by obtaining necessary training and developing plans for retirement
A primary task of the final disengagement phase according to Super:
is to gradually separate from paid employment.
A primary task for the initial growth stage according to Super:
is to develop an understanding of the meaning and purpose of work.
A primary task for the exploration stage according to Super:
The tasks of the exploration phase include becoming aware of one’s abilities and interests and learning about the different types of work.
According to Fiedler’s contingency model, which of the following is most important for maximizing a supervisor’s ability to effectively lead his or her employees:
the leader has good relationships with his/her employees

Of the three situational characteristics, Fiedler considered leader-member relations to be most critical. According to Fiedler, factors that affect the quality of the relationship between the leader and members are the degree to which the leader perceives members to be similar to him/her and trusts and respects them and the degree to which members like, trust, and respect the leader and are loyal to him/her.
When a psychologist is asked to assess an individual’s mental capacity for legal reasons, the most important factor to evaluate is:
the “person-environment fit”

As a general rule, an assessment for mental capacity will attempt to answer the following question: “Do this person’s abilities match the demands of the situation he/she is facing?” In other words, is there a person-environment fit?
Which of the following best describes current views regarding the use of drugs to treat delirium in older adults:
haloperidol is effective but should be administered initially at a low dose and then gradually increased if necessary.

The benzodiazepines are a treatment-of-choice in some cases of delirium (e.g., when it is caused by alcohol or sedative-hypnotic withdrawal), but they are not ordinarily administered in conjunction with haloperidol.
When taken as a treatment for depression, the average onset of the therapeutic effects of the SSRI’s (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) is ________ after beginning to take the drug:
two to four weeks.

Individuals usually experience a substantial improvement in depressive symptoms within two to four weeks after beginning to take an SSRI (although, for some patients, the full therapeutic effects may not be evident for up to six to eight weeks).
The Global Deterioration Scale
is a measure of cognitive functioning that is useful for assessing individuals with Alzheimer’s dementia or other type of primary degenerative dementia.
The Trail Making Test
is a measure of motor speed, visual attention, and cognitive flexibility.
The Neuropsychiatric Inventory Questionnaire (NPI-Q)
is a screening test for dementia.
According to Gottman’s (1994) cascade theory of marital dissolution, which of the following factors contributes most to a lasting marriage:
the couple’s ability to resolve conflicts.

He proposes that the key to an enduring marriage is the maintenance of balance between positive and negative interactions, with positive interactions exceeding negative interactions at a ratio of at least 5:1.
Researchers have found that individuals are often willing to agree that vague descriptions of them – such as those presented in horoscopes – accurately describe their personal characteristics. Why?
The Barnum effect (also known as the Forer effect) predicts that people tend to accept vague or general descriptions of themselves as accurate. The Barnum effect has been attributed to a number of factors including gullibility, wishful thinking, and a confirmation bias.
Research suggests that when the Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) is used as a screening instrument for Alzheimer’s dementia with African-American adults, it tends to result in a disproportionate number of:
false positives
According to the “hostile attribution bias” (Crick & Dodge, 1994; Dodge, 1980):
aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous actions of peers as intentionally hostile.

According to the hostile attribution bias, aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous behaviors of peers as intentionally hostile and, therefore, to react to those peers with aggressive, hostile behaviors. The hostile attribution bias is believed to be due to deficits in social information processing.
In research, probands (also known as index cases) are the first individuals who are brought to the attention of the investigator – i.e., the people who are manifesting the disease or other characteristic of interest.
If an alpha error is equivalent to a false positive, then a beta error is equivalent to a:
false negative

In decision theory, a false positive occurs when a predictor indicates an effect (e.g., a diagnosis) when, in fact, there is none – e.g., the predictor tells you that you have a disease when you don’t have it. Therefore, a false positive is similar to an alpha (Type I) error in inferential statistics. In contrast, a false negative occurs when a predictor indicates no effect (e.g., an absence of a diagnosis) when, in fact, there is an effect – e.g., the predictor says you do not have a disease when you do have it. Therefore, a false negative is similar to a beta (Type II) error in inferential statistics. Alpha is the probability of making a Type I error, which refers to concluding that the null hypothesis is false when it is actually true; while beta is the probability of making a Type II error, which refers to concluding that the null hypothesis is true when it is actually false.
To determine the degree of association between number of hours studied and score on the EPPP for a sample of 50 licensure candidates, you would use which of the following bivariate correlation coefficients:
The Pearson product moment correlation coefficient (Pearson r) is the appropriate correlation coefficient when both variables are measured on a continuous scale.
Spearman rho
is used to correlate two variables that are measured in terms of ranks.
The phi coefficient
is used to determine the correlation between two dichotomous variables.
The point biserial correlation coefficient
is appropriate when one variable is continuous and the other is a true dichotomy.
Compared to fetal alcohol syndrome, the condition known as fetal alcohol effects:
is associated with less severe physical defects.

FAE is more common than FAS. Symptoms of FAE include retardation of intrauterine growth, minor congenital abnormalities, attention and learning deficits, and behavioral difficulties. It is also caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol and symptoms are largely irreversible.
Perseveration (the inability to stop a behavior once it begins) has been linked to:
lesions in certain areas of the frontal lobes.
Lisa Baumgartner’s longitudinal research (2001) identified a six-phase process for incorporating a diagnosis of HIV/AIDS into one’s identity. The final phase in this process is:

Baumgartner describes the incorporation of an HIV/AIDS diagnosis as a transformational learning process. Her research found that the final phase of this process involves incorporating the HIV/AIDS diagnosis into one’s identity and balancing one’s HIV/AIDS status with other life activities, commitments, etc. The six phases are: diagnosis, post-diagnosis turning point, immersion, post-immersion turning point, integration, and disclosure (which occurs throughout the other five stages)
Post-concussional syndrome (PCS)
refers to a constellation of somatic and psychological symptoms associated with head trauma, especially mild head trauma. Symptoms include headache, dizziness, fatigue, impaired memory and concentration, depression, irritability, visual impairment, and sleep disturbances.

Although the etiology of PCS continues to be debated, the experts generally agree that it has both physiological and psychological origins. Psychological factors that contribute to PCS include the individual’s subjective interpretation of the injury, premorbid personality characteristics, desire for secondary gain, and access to social support.

It most commonly occurs in cases of mild traumatic brain injury (with up to 50% of people with mild brain injury having symptoms of PCS) and is rare in cases of moderate to severe brain injury and most with it recover fully within 3-6 months
Olfaction is mediated by several structures of the brain:
The orbitofrontal cortex contains the secondary and tertiary olfactory cortical areas and is involved in the conscious perception of odors; while the amygdala plays an important role in olfactory memory.

Olfaction is mediated by several structures of the brain including the amygdala, limbic cortex (pyriform and entorhinal cortex), and the orbitofrontal cortex.

The _________ is to the conscious perception of odors as the __________ is to olfactory memory: orbitofrontal cortex; amygdala
To be consistent with the requirements of the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Procedures, when it is determined that a selection procedure is having an adverse impact, an employer must:
validate that the procedure is job-related.

n employer can show that continued use of the selection procedure is a business necessity by demonstrating that (a) the measure is valid by establishing its relationship to successful job performance and (b) there are no alternate methods that would have less adverse impact.
refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify people with the disease from the pool of people with the disease. It is calculated using the following formula: true positives/(true positives + false negatives).
refers to probability that a test will correctly identify people without the disease (in this case, injection phobia) from the pool of people without the disease. It is calculated with the following formula: true negatives/(true negatives + false positives)
The positive predictive value
is the probability that a person identified by the test as having the disease actually has the disease. It is calculated with the following formula: true positives/(true positives + false positives).

The negative predictive value is the probability that a person identified by the test as not having the disease doesn’t actually have the disease. The following formula is used to calculate the negative predictive value: true negatives/(true negatives + false negatives).
The F ratio
is calculated by dividing the mean square between by the mean square within. Mean square between is a measure of treatment effects plus error, while mean square within in a measure of error only.

A treatment effect is suggested when the numerator of the F ratio (mean square between) is larger than the denominator (mean square within) – i.e., when the F value is greater than +1.0.
is used to increase diversity and reduce adverse impact in the workplace. When using this technique, a range of test scores that are considered equivalent for selection purposes are specified and other job-related and/or diversity factors are then used to select among applicants who obtain scores within that range.
When a test’s reliability coefficient is equal to 0, the standard error of measurement for the test is:
equal to the test’s standard deviation.

The formula for the standard error of measurement indicates that, when the reliability coefficient is 0, the standard error of measurement equals the test’s standard deviation times the square root of one minus zero, which equals the standard deviation of the test.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by:
inadequate intake or absorption of thiamine.

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is characterized by ataxia, abnormal eye movements (opthalmoplegia), and confusion and is caused by s caused by a thiamine deficiency, often as the result of chronic alcoholism.
Who would have the least effects of difficulties adjusting to a step parent and at what age?
younger, male.

The studies have generally shown that younger children have less trouble adjusting to a stepparent than do older school-age children and adolescents. In addition, while research on the impact of the child’s gender on adjustment to a stepparent is not entirely consistent, most studies have found that girls have more adjustment problems than boys do or, alternatively, that gender does not have a substantial impact on adjustment.
Regular use of morphine can quickly result in the development of tolerance and dependence. When this occurs, abrupt cessation of the drug produces a withdrawal syndrome that is characterized by:
Common withdrawal symptoms include flu-like sx such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal and muscle cramps, runny nose and eyes, chills, and insomnia.
Early Sx of Multiple Sclerosis
Visual problems (e.g., blurred or double vision) are common early symptoms of MS. Heat intolerance and Problems related to bladder control are early sx.

About 50% of people with MS develop some type of cognitive dysfunction, most often related to memory (especially memory for recent events). While some of these individuals experience cognitive problems in the early stages of the disorder, the majority do not do so until they have had the disease for a long time.
Proactive and Retroactive Interference:
Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information hinders the ability to recall information learned more recently; while retroactive interference occurs when information acquired more recently hinders the ability to recall previously acquired information.
During the first session with a new client, a solution-focused therapist will:
help the client identify and describe therapy goals in concrete, positive terms.

Stating goals in positive concrete (behavioral) terms helps the client recognize when he/she is accomplishing his/her goals and has been found to be a good predictor of outcome in solution-focused therapy.
Which of the following best describes the memory loss associated with Amnestic Disorder due to a General Medical Condition:
The disorder always involves some degree of anterograde amnesia but may or may not involve retrograde amnesia.

According to the DSM-IV-TR, “the ability to learn and recall new information is always affected in an amnestic disorder, whereas problems remembering previously learned information occur more variably, depending on the location and severity of the brain damage” (2000, p. 172).
To calculate an effect size (Cohen’s d), you need:
the means of the experimental and control groups

Cohen’s d indicates the magnitude of the effect of a treatment in terms of the difference between the means of the experimental (treatment) and control (no treatment) groups. It is calculated by subtracting the mean of the control group from the mean of the experimental group and dividing the result by a pooled standard deviation or by the control group standard deviation.
The arcuate fasciculus
connects Wernicke’s area to Broca’s area.
The precentral gyrus
is located in the frontal lobe and contains the motor cortex.
The cingulate gyrus
is part of the limbic system and is involved in the processing and formation of emotions.
The ability to identify the correct meaning of an unfamiliar word in a sentence from the context in which it is appears is referred to as:
semantic bootstrapping

Semantic refers to “meaning,” and semantic bootstrapping is a term used in the field of psycholinguistics to describe how children infer the meaning of an unfamiliar word in a sentence based on the meaning of the other words and their arrangement in the sentence.
The onset of stranger anxiety varies somewhat from child to child but, for most children, begins when the child is between ___________ months of age:
7 to 9

Although some children experience stranger anxiety when they are as young as six months of age, most children do not do so until seven to ten months of age.
Congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the second-most common cause of mental retardation after Down Syndrome. In additional to cognitive impairments, it is most likely to cause which of the following:
hearing and visual impairments

Approximately 10% of infants infected with CMV show symptoms at birth, and about 10 to 15% of infants who are asymptomatic at birth develop symptoms during the first few years of life. Common symptoms include some degree of mental retardation and hearing and visual impairments. CMV is a type of herpes virus. Although infection with CMV during adulthood usually produces no or mild symptoms, infection during prenatal development or birth can be life-threatening.
Certain aspects of memory are more likely than others to be adversely affected during the early stages of Alzheimer’s dementia, especially:
Deficits in episodic memory are the most obvious memory deficits in the early stages of Alzheimer’s dementia.
Impairments in working memory are evident in the early stages of Alzheimer’s dementia. Deficits in certain aspects of semantic memory are usually evident in the early stages of Alzheimer’s dementia and become more severe and widespread as the disease progresses.

Procedural memory is not substantially affected by mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, although it may show impairments in the later stages.
When using in vivo exposure with response prevention:
the CS is presented repeatedly without the US

The assumption underlying the use of in vivo exposure as a treatment for anxiety is that anxiety is a classically-conditioned response in which the anxiety-arousing stimulus (the conditioned stimulus) attained its anxiety-arousing properties by being paired in the past with a stimulus that naturally produced anxiety (the unconditioned stimulus). In vivo exposure involves extinguishing the classically conditioned anxiety response by repeatedly exposing the person to the conditioned stimulus (CS) without the unconditioned stimulus (US).
When using the DSM, _______ is used to record physical or biological factors that are relevant to understanding or treating a client’s mental disorder:
Axis III

General medical conditions (conditions due to physical or biological factors) that are relevant to an Axis I or Axis II disorder are coded on Axis III.
Axis IV
Environmental and psychosocial factors relevant to the Axis I or Axis II disorder are coded on Axis IV.
Axis V
Axis V is used to indicate the client’s overall level of functioning.
Axis II
Personality disorders and mental retardation are coded on Axis II.
The presence of which of the following symptoms is most supportive of a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of delirium:
clouding of consciousness

A disturbance in consciousness is a diagnostic criterion for delirium; and “clouding of consciousness” is a term that is often used to describe this disturbance.
Which of the following is least likely to be an early sign of dementia due to HIV disease:

a forgetfulness
b psychomotor slowing
c depression
d aphasia

In contrast to Alzheimer’s dementia, dementia due to HIV disease is rarely associated with aphasia.
Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by:
fluent output, impaired repetition, poor comprehension
Broca's aphasia is characterized by:
nonfluent output, poor repetition, intact comprehension
__________ was introduced in the 1970s as a method for measuring regional cerebral blood flow using radioactive isotopes.

SPECT (single proton emission computed tomography) is used to assess regional cerebral blood flow.
Erik Erikson coined the term:
Erikson was the first major theorist to elucidate the notion of an adolescent identity crisis and is credited with coining the term.
Stanley Hall
Coined the term "adolescent storm and stress"
Petit mal (absence) seizures appear to have their origin in which area of the brain:
According to McGuire's notion of "inoculation," you are less likely to be persuaded by an argument against your opinion if:
you've heard the argument and refutations of that argument before
Ebbinghaus was one of the first investigators to systematically study memory. In his studies, Ebbinghaus used himself as a subject and memorized lists of nonsense syllables. Results of his research indicated that:
rote learning of syllables tends to lead to rapid forgetting
Craik and Lockhart's (1972) levels of processing model of memory:
implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal

According to the levels of processing model, the semantic level is the deepest level of processing and produces the best recall. Elaborative rehearsal involves encoding material semantically (in terms of meaning).
According to __________ "consistency paradox," while most people view behavior as being relatively stable over different situations, the empirical research has found it to be quite variable.
Walter Mischel's

The most recent version of Mischel's theory views apparent inconsistencies in behavior across situations as the result of an interaction between relatively stable personality dispositions, cognitive-affective processes, and situational characteristics.