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144 Cards in this Set

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Prochaska, Norcross, and DiClemente’s (1994) transtheoretical model distinguishes between 10 different change processes and proposes that the most effective combination of processes depends on a client’s stage of change. For example, they recommend consciousness raising, supportive relationships, self re-evaluation, and emotional arousal as the optimal combination for clients in the __________ stage:
The transtheoretical model distinguishes between five stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.
a. Incorrect The optimal combination of change processes for clients in the maintenance stage is supportive (helpful) relationships, commitment, countering, environmental control, and social liberation.
b. Incorrect Conformity is not one of the stages of change identified by Prochaska, Norcross, and DiClemente.
c. Incorrect The most effective change processes for clients in the action stage are the same as those for clients in the maintenance stage (answer a).
d. CORRECT Prochaska, Norcross, and DiClemente recommend this combination of change processes for clients in the contemplation stage.
A practitioner of Beck's cognitive behavioral therapy works together with a therapy client to identify and test faulty interpretations. This process is referred to as:
A key feature of CBT is its collaborative approach.

In CBT, the therapist and client work collaboratively to reality test the client's cognitions. This approach is referred to as collaborative empiricism.
Research has shown that membership in a cohesive (versus noncohesive) group is associated with:
reduced absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity
Goal-setting theory, equity theory, and expectancy theory share in common which of the following:
a focus on peer (co-worker) influences on job performance
B the premise that behavior is motivated by its consequences
C the belief that feedback is a necessary condition of effort
D the assumption that human cognition affects behavior

The three theories are cognitive theories that view motivation and performance as directly linked to cognitive events.The cognitive event in goal-setting theory is the conscious acceptance of the goals; in equity theory it is self-other comparisons; and in expectancy theory it is beliefs related to effort/performance and performance/outcomes.
To determine the degree of association between pregnancy status (pregnant or not) and the number of items selected on a stress event checklist, you would use which of the following:
In this situation, you are correlating a variable representing a true dichotomy (pregnant versus not pregnant) with a variable representing a continuous scale of measurement (number of stress events).

The point biserial correlation coefficient is appropriate when one variable is a true dichotomy and the other is continuous.
The Pearson r is appropriate when:
both variables are measured on a continuous scale.
Spearman rho is appropriate when:
both variables are expressed in terms of ranks.
The biserial correlation coefficient is used when:
one variable is an artificial dichotomy (a continuous variable that has been artificially or arbitrarily dichotomized) and the other variable is continuous.

An example of an artificial dictomy is when a criterion cutoff score is assigned such as saying that 100 is a cutoff score and over that you pass and under you don't (this is artificial).
During the first therapy session with a husband and wife who are experiencing marital problems, a therapist requests that, during the next week, they identify things in their relationship that they want to continue. Most likely, this therapist is a practitioner of:
solution-focused therapy

The therapist has given the couple a task that will help them focus on the positive aspects of their relationship.In the context of solution-focused therapy, this assignment is an example of a "formula task." Its purpose is to help the couple identify positive aspects of their relationship that, in turn, can lead to solutions to their marital difficulties.
Clozapine (Clozaril) is sometimes preferable to chlorpromazine (Thorazine) as a treatment for Schizophrenia because it is less likely to produce:
extrapyramidal side effects

Clozapine is often beneficial for patients who have not responded to traditional antipsychotics. An advantage of clozapine and the other atypical antipsychotics is that they rarely cause movement disorders.

Clozapine may actually produce more anticholinergic effects than chlorpromazine. A danger of clozapine is that is can cause bone marrow suppression, which can lead to fatal agranulocytosis.
A "mixed standard scale" attempts to overcome halo, leniency, and similar rater biases by:
presenting statements describing job behaviors in a way that obscures their order-of-merit

Items are arranged in a non-hierarchal way, which supposedly helps reduce rater biases. A mixed standard scale includes a number of items that describe either good, average, or poor performance and require the rater to rate the ratee on each item as either +, 0, or -(indicating that the ratee performs better, equal to, or worse than the behavior described in the item).
Recent research has consistently confirmed a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). For example, brain imaging studies have most consistently linked this disorder to abnormalities in which of the following brain structures:
frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum

Even if you are unfamiliar with the research, knowing the functions of the major structures of the brain and the core symptoms of ADHD would have helped you recognize that the frontal lobes (which mediate higher-order functions) and the striatum and cerebellum (which are involved in motor activity) are the structures that have been linked to this disorder.
M complains of memory loss. An evaluation of M reveals impaired immediate memory, forced-choice recognition memory worse than chance, and a loss of information related to personal identity. These symptoms are most suggestive of:
malingered amnesia

here is no definitive way to distinguish malingered (faked) amnesia from other types. The best method is to look at the pattern of memory loss. The combination of symptoms listed in the question are most suggestive of malingering.
Which of the following is least characteristic of Huntington's chorea:

anxiety, depression, and mania

tics that increase with stress

dysarthric speech

apraxia, aphasia, and agnosia
apraxia, aphasia, and agnosia

Huntington's chorea is a form of subcortical dementia and, therefore, has symptoms that differ somewhat from Alzheimer's disease and other forms of cortical dementia.
a. Incorrect Emotional and personality changes are often the first signs of Huntington's chorea.
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of Huntington's.
c. Incorrect Dysarthric speech (speech with a distorted rate and rhythm) is a symptom of this disorder.
d. CORRECT These are symptoms of Alzheimer's disease and other cortical dementias.
A middle-aged man frequently experiences vivid and occasionally frightening hallucinations just as he's beginning to fall asleep. This condition is best described as:
hypnagogic hallucinations

Although hypnagogic hallucinations are not a DSM diagnostic category, they may occur in Narcolepsy, which is a DSM-IV disorder. They refer to vivid hallucinations that occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep.
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur:
during the transition from sleep to wakefulness. These also may be present in Narcolepsy.

Sleep Terror Disorder involves
an abrupt awakening from sleep and often begins with a panicky scream. It is not associated with vivid hallucinations.

Nightmare Disorder involves
frightening dreams that usually occur in the second half of the sleep period. The dreams are always frightening and are typically related to survival, security, or self-esteem.
A psychology intern considers her supervisor to be likeable, admirable, and accepting. As a consequence, the intern is open and responsive to her supervisor's comments and recommendations. In this situation, the intern is responding to her supervisor's:
Referent Power

You may have been able to identify this as the correct response by the process of elimination even if you didn't know that referent power stems from the individual's desire to identify with (or "be like") the influential person.
In this situation, the supervisor has become a "significant reference person" for the intern.
reward power
A person has reward power when he/she controls desirable rewards.
expert power
A person has expert power when he/she has superior knowledge or expertise.
legitimate power
A person has legitimate power when he/she has authority, status, or social position.
Studies looking at the impact of gender on reactions to crowding have found that:
women cope with crowding better than men do in laboratory settings but men cope with crowding better in residential settings
According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, emergence of the ability to create mental representations of reality occurs between the ages of:
18 to 24 months

Piaget proposed that the ability to form mental representations occurs at the end of the sensorimotor stage.

a. Incorrect From 4 to 8 months of age, the child is in the secondary circular reactions substage of the sensorimotor stage.

b. Incorrect From 8 to 12 months, the child is in the coordinated secondary circular reactions substage.

c. Incorrect From 12 to 18 months, the child is in the tertiary circular reactions substage.

d. CORRECT From 18 to 24 months, the child is in the mental representation substage, which is characterized by the development of the ability to form internal representations of objects and events. (Note that recent research indicates that deferred imitation and problem solving – which depend on mental representation – actually occur at a much earlier age than Piaget proposed.)
Which of the following individuals is at greatest risk for completed suicide:

a 64-year-old married man
B a 52-year-old divorced man

C a 76-year-old widowed woman
D a 48-year-old single woman
a 52-year-old divorced man

To choose the correct answer to this question, you would need to know that there is a strong relationship between completed suicide, gender, and marital status.

Although older men are at greater risk than younger men for suicide, the risk is also highly related to marital status with divorced and widowed men being at the highest risk.
Dementia resulting from long-term alcoholism:
affects visuospatial abilities more than verbal abilities
Research on attachment has shown that young victims of child abuse are most likely to exhibit which of the following attachment patterns:

Ainsworth distinguished between three attachment patterns (secure, insecure/ambivalent, and insecure/avoidant). Main later identified the disorganized/disoriented pattern. Main found that about 80% of maltreated children exhibit a disorganized/disoriented pattern of attachment.
The phenomenon known as "spontaneous recovery" confirms the hypothesis that the loss of a conditioned response represents which of the following:

After a classically-conditioned response is extinguished, the subsequent presentation of the conditioned stimulus often produces a weak conditioned response. For example, a dog's conditioned response of salivating to a bell will often, after it has been extinguished, reappear when the dog later hears the sound of a bell. This phenomenon is known as "spontaneous recovery." The fact that an extinguished conditioned response can reappear upon the reapplication of the conditioned stimulus suggests that the response is never lost or forgotten but is merely suppressed or inhibited.
When assessing the reliability and validity of a job selection test, your sample includes current employees who are all doing fairly well on the job. The nature of your sample will most likely have which of the following effects:
A it will inflate the reliability and validity coefficients
B it will deflate the reliability and validity coefficients
C it will inflate the reliability coefficient and deflate the validity coefficient
D it will deflate the reliability coefficient and inflate the validity coefficient
it will deflate the reliability and validity coefficients

A restriction in the range of scores has the effect of lowering the correlation coefficient. Since the reliability and validity coefficients are correlation coefficients, their magnitude will be adversely affected by a restriction in range.
When using the time-sampling technique:
an observation is made at prespecified intervals, and whether or not the behavior was occurring at that time is recorded. Time-sampling involves dividing a period of time into equal or random intervals and, at the end of each interval, making an observation and recording whether or not the behavior is occurring at that time.
partial-interval recording:
the behavior can be observed at any time during the interval to be recorded
An archetype:
is a universal thought form that is deposited in the mind when an experience has been constantly repeated for many generations. Numerous archetypes reside in the collective unconscious, including the archetypes of birth, death, the earth mother, and the wise old man.

According to Carl Jung, the psyche consists of a number of different, but interrelated, elements. For Jung, the major division in the psyche is between the personal unconscious and the collective (transpersonal) unconscious, with each containing unique elements.
At which stage in Erikson's model of psychosocial development does a person come to terms with his or her mortality?
integrity vs. despair
According to Aaron Beck's theory of depression, in response to a negative event, a depressed person is most likely to manifest an:
external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility

When faced with a negative event, a depressed individual is likely to exhibit a "control fallacy" (view him/herself as a hapless victim of fate) and personalization ("if anything goes wrong, it's my fault"). This paradox (an external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility) is one of the reasoning errors that contribute to depression.
A recent meta-analysis of the research on expressed emotion and relapse by Butzlaff and Hooley (1998) found that high levels of expressed emotion by family members:
may be somewhat more predictive of relapse for patients with a mood or eating disorder than for patients with schizophrenia.

R. L. Butzlaff and J. M. Hooley looked at studies investigating the impact of expressed emotion on outcomes for schizophrenia, mood disorders, and eating disorders and found that high expressed emotion by family members was more strongly predictive of relapse for mood and eating disorders than for schizophrenia, although all effect sizes for all three were significant. Specifically, they obtained weighted mean effect sizes for mood disorders, eating disorders, and schizophrenia of, respectively, .39, .51, and .31. Expressed emotion has been well-established as a predictor of relapse in patients with schizophrenia, and recent studies have linked it to negative outcomes for a number of other disorders.
The symptoms of numbness, weakness, tremor, and ataxia that characterize multiple sclerosis are due to:

Multiple sclerosis is due to a loss of myelin on nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord.
Anosognosia is best described as an impairment in:
Herzberg's two-factor theory predicts that, if a worker's job is redesigned so that she has less autonomy and responsibility but is also given a raise in salary, the worker will be:
neither satisfied nor dissatisfied

Herzberg's theory predicts that motivator factors produce satisfaction when they are present, while hygiene factors produce dissatisfaction when they are not adequate. Consequently, if the worker's job is redesigned so that it produces fewer motivator factors (e.g., less autonomy and responsibility) and more adequate hygiene factors (pay), the worker will be neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
A test has a standard deviation of 12, a mean of 60, a reliability coefficient of .91, and a validity coefficient of .60. The test's standard error of measurement is equal to:

To calculate the standard error of measurement, you need two pieces of information: the standard deviation of the test scores and the test's reliability coefficient.

The standard deviation of the test scores is 12 and the reliability coefficient is .91. To calculate the standard error, you multiple the standard deviation times the square root of one minus the reliability coefficient: 1 minus .91 is .09; the square root of .09 is .3; .3 times 12 is 3.6.
Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs, such as propranolol, are most effective for:
reducing the peripheral manifestations of anxiety such as palpitations, tachycardia, tremor, and sweating.

These drugs seem to exert their effects on the peripheral manifestations of anxiety. Through their effects on the physical manifestations of anxiety, these drugs can indirectly affect (reduce) the psychic experience of anxiety. However, their direct effects are on the peripheral manifestations.
Damage to the frontal lobes is least likely to have an adverse impact on:

A working memory
B planning ability
C self-awareness
D IQ test scores
IQ Test scores

Damage to the frontal lobes ordinarily does not have a significant impact on IQ test scores. Researchers believe this is because IQ tests primarily assess convergent thinking, and the frontal lobes are more involved in the mediation of divergent thinking.
Research on Total Quality Management suggests that, when it fails, this is often because:
the employees were not sufficiently involved in problem-solving and decision-making.

TQM is a theory of management that emphasizes customer satisfaction, employee involvement, and continuous change. Studies looking at TQM failures have found that, despite the goal of commitment to employee involvement, employees often do not participate fully in problem-solving and decision-making.
A 35-year old client has a history of relationship problems. Although he usually makes a good first impression, his friendships don't last very long. He attributes this problem to the fact that other people are jealous of what he has accomplished. The client has a great idea that will "revolutionize the field of telemarketing," but, so far, no one has recognized the potential importance of his contribution. He left his wife six months ago and spends very little time with his two-year old son. He has been busy "doing what he wants to do," which has included moving into an expensive condominium, buying a new sports car, and dating as many attractive women as possible. These characteristics are most suggestive of:
Narcissistic Personality Disorder
Probably the best way to reduce aggression in children is to:
teach alternative, nonaggressive responses

Not surprisingly, social skills training (which incorporates a variety of techniques) has been found to be most effective for reducing aggressive behavior. A key component of social skills training is teaching alterative ways for responding to anger-arousing situations.
Research using elicited imitation tasks (e.g., imitating a sequence of events such as removing a mitten from a puppet, shaking the mitten, and then replacing the mitten on the puppet) indicate that, for most infants, the onset of the ability to recall the past occurs:
between 6 and 12 months of age

There is physiological and behavioral evidence that the neural mechanisms required for long-term memory recall undergo significant development during the second half of the first year of life. In one study using the procedure described in this question, 75% of infants 6, 9, or 11 months of age imitated at least one action (e.g., removing the mitten) after a delay of 24 hours. [R. Barr et al., Developmental changes in deferred imitation by 6- to 24-month old infants, Infant Behavior and Development, 1996, 19, 159-170). The research has also found that, by 24 months of age, children are able to provide verbal evidence of long-term recall – i.e., are able to verbally report events that occurred 6 to 13 months earlier.
Your client, a 75-year old woman, is displaying symptoms of paranoia. Along with a supportive environment, the best treatment for this client would probably be:
Although it is necessary to avoid stereotypes when providing services to members of ethnic and racial minority groups, some generalizations are often made. For example, when working with Hispanic and Hispanic-American clients, it is important to keep in mind all of the following except:

A different levels of acculturation among Hispanics can influence their perceptions of and responses to therapy

B family therapy is often contraindicated because of the hierarchical nature of the Hispanic family

C behavioral and other active, problem-oriented therapies are usually more acceptable than insight-oriented therapies
D sex-roles tend to be demarcated clearly and are fairly rigid
family therapy is often contraindicated because of the hierarchical nature of the Hispanic family

Although Hispanic families do tend to be hierarchical, this does not preclude them from family therapy. In fact, family therapy is often the treatment-of-choice because of the close relationships between family members.
African-American adolescents who exhibit a "blended bicultural" behavioral pattern:
view themselves as equally American and ethnic or as more American

Biculturalism among African-American and Mexican-American adolescents was recently examined by J. S. Phinney and M. Devich-Navarro (Variations in bicultural identification among African-American and Mexican-American adolescents, Journal of Research in Adolescence, 1997, 7(1), 3-32). These investigators found that the adolescents in their sample exhibited one of three patterns: blended biculturalism, alternating biculturalism, or separated.
Phinney and Devich-Navarro refer to adolescents showing this type of pattern as what:

those who acknowledge their American heritage but are more strongly influenced by their ethnic background
alternating biculturalsim
Based on the research, the best conclusion that can be drawn about the impact of biological sex and gender-role identity on self-esteem is that:
gender role has a greater impact than biological sex, with androgyny being associated with the highest levels of self-esteem.

The study by Hall and Halberstadt and subsequent studies have generally confirmed that androgyny (which combines masculine and feminine characteristics and preferences) is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem in both boys and girls. Some studies have also found that masculinity, to a somewhat lesser degree, is associated with higher levels of self-esteem than femininity in both boys and girls.
Responsibility for the validity of information provided by an automated test scoring and interpretation service lies with:
the psychologist who uses the test scoring and interpretation service
Roe, Holland, and Brill share in common an emphasis on the role of ___________ in career choice:

Holland, for example, proposes that the best career choice is the career that provides a match between the individual's personality characteristics (e.g., conventional, artistic) and the characteristics of the work environment.
A student obtains a percentile rank of 84 on the verbal subtest of the McCarthy Scales of Children's Abilities. If the student's score had been one standard deviation higher, her percentile rank would have been approximately:

To answer this question, you must be know that, in a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 is equal to a raw score that is 1 standard deviation from the mean. (You could figure this out by knowing the areas under the normal curve i.e., about 68% of scores fall between those scores that are +1.0 and -1.0 standard deviation units from the mean, about 95% fall between +2.0 and -2.0 standard deviation units, and about 99% fall between +3.0 and -3.0 standard deviation units. A percentile rank of 84 is equivalent to the score that is one standard deviation above the mean (50 percent of scores fall below the mean and 34 percent between the mean and the score that is one standard deviation above the mean); a percentile rank of 97.5 is equivalent to the score that is 2.0 standard deviations above the mean (50 percent fall below the mean and 47.5 between the mean and the score that is two standard deviations above the mean). Therefore, even though the question does not state what the shape of the distribution of scores is, this is the best response.
A former therapy client calls you and expresses an interest in becoming friends. The former client suggests that you meet at a local restaurant for lunch. You remember that the client shared many of your interests, and that, at the time of therapy, you were aware that he/she was someone you would like to know better. As an ethical psychologist, you:
do not meet the client for lunch and explain why a friendship would not be in the client's best interests.

Most experts agree that friendships with former clients should be avoided since this sets up an unequal situation and precludes the possibility that the former client can return for therapy in the future.
A woman brings her five-year old son to therapy complaining that he always wants to wear his sister's clothes and prefers traditionally feminine activities and toys and playing with girls. She says he often says he wishes he didn't have a penis and gets very angry if anyone contradicts his belief that he's going to grow up to be a woman. His symptoms began when he was three years old. Based on these symptoms, the best diagnosis is:
Gender identity disorder involves a strong and persistent cross-gender identification, including discomfort about one's assigned sex and sometimes the insistence that one is of the opposite sex. Cross-dressing can occur, as long as it is not for the purpose of sexual excitement (in which case, Transvestic fetishism may be an appropriate diagnosis). Of these disorders, gender identity disorder is the only one that is characterized by a persistent cross-gender identification and the occurrence of cross-dressing in the absence of sexual gratification.
David Perry and his colleagues (1986) have looked at the cognitive mediators of aggression in children and have found that, in comparison to their nonaggressive peers, highly aggressive children:
are more likely to believe that aggression will reduce aversive treatment by others
A primary distinction between Freud and those psychologists who are collectively identified as "neo-Freudians" (e.g., Fromm, Horney, and Sullivan) is that the latter:
placed greater emphasis on the ego functions and the impact of social influences
A psychologist would use the Sickness Impact Profile to:
assess a patient's psychosocial and physical functioning related to pain or other illness.

The SIP consists of 136 items that assess the impact of illness on an individual's psychosocial and physical functioning in terms of 12 daily activities (e.g., eating, work, recreation).
Divergent thinking refers to the ability to think flexibly and consider a wide range of solutions. Divergent thinking is associated with:

Creativity is viewed as involving a number of attributes including divergent thinking, open-mindedness, unconventionality, and willingness to take risks. Sternberg distinguishes between three types of intelligence – analytic, creative, and practical. Divergent thinking is most associated with creative thinking.
Convergent (rather than divergent) thinking is associated with:
crystallized intelligence
Dr. Billings, a psychologist, asks a graduate student to help him with a research project. The student does most of the initial library research, administers the tests and interviews to subjects, and writes some of the article that Dr. Billings will submit to a professional journal. When the article is published, Dr. Billings should make sure that the graduate student is:
listed as a co-author

First authorship is reserved for the principal contributor, who in this case seems to be the psychologist. The graduate student has written some of the article and, therefore, should be listed as a co-author.
Dr. Bill sets his clients' fees on the basis of a "sliding scale" that is based on their current income. This practice is:
acceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code.

Sliding scale fees are not explicitly addressed in the Ethics Code. Sliding scale fees are generally considered acceptable as long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client.
Auditory localization in children:
has fully developed by about the end of the first year.

Infants exhibit some auditory localization during the first month of life but, between two and four months, there seems to be a loss of this ability. At four months, the ability returns, and by, one year, is completely (or almost completely) established. Auditory localization refers to the ability to orient toward the direction of a sound (i.e., by turning one's head toward the sound).
Ethel E., age 36, has just been offered a promotion at work. Although she wants the increase in salary and prestige of the new position, she is planning to turn down the job because it will require extensive speaking in front of large groups of employees. Ethel has avoided situations that require her to speak to groups for as long as she can remember because public speaking is a very embarrassing experience for her. Whenever she has to speak in front of others, she is extremely anxious, her heart races and her palms become sweaty, and she becomes preoccupied with the concern that she will forget what she has planned to say. Ethel’s symptoms are most suggestive of:
Social Phobia

f the disorders listed, Ethel’s symptoms come closest to those required for a DSM diagnosis of Social Phobia. Her symptoms are limited to a particular social situation (public speaking) and, from the information given, do not include unexpected panic attacks.
For a diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia:
Ethel would have to have experienced two or more unexpected panic attacks along with a fear of being in places “from which escape might be difficult (or embarrassing) or in which help may not be available” (DSM-IV-TR, 2000, p. 433).
Avoidant Personality Disorder
For this diagnosis, Ethel would have to exhibit “a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluations that … [began] by early adulthood and is present in a variety of contexts” (DSM-IV-TR, 2000, p. 718).
When Angie plays the slot machines in Atlantic City, she will be reinforced on the basis of:
the number of responses between reinforcers with the number varying unpredictably from trial to trial.

Angie will be reinforced on a variable ratio schedule, which is the intermittent schedule least vulnerable to extinction.
Depression has been linked to:
low levels of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine.

The catecholamine hypothesis attributes depression to deficits in norepinephrine and serotonin. Although depression has been most consistently linked with low levels of serotonin and norepinephrine, there is some evidence that some forms may be related to low levels of dopamine.
Terrie Moffitt distinguishes between life-course persistent and adolescent-limited antisocial behavior. In addition to age of onset and duration of symptoms, youth with these forms of antisocial behavior differ in terms of:
type of offenses
For individuals with Schizophrenia, the poorest prognosis is associated with:
male gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms
As defined by Minuchin, triangulation is a:
way for family members to avoid dealing with stress or conflict.

Triangulation is occurring when the parents are in conflict and both try to recruit a child to their side as a means of avoiding or reducing the conflict between them.
The midbrain is also known as the mesencephalon and is divided into two regions: the tectum and the tegmentum. The area of the brain referred to as the "midbrain" contains all of the following structures except:

A inferior colliculus

B superior colliculus

C substantia nigra

D mammillary bodies
Mamillary Bodies

The mammillary bodies are part of the hypothalamus and are located in the diencephalon which, along with the telencephalon, make up the forebrain.
The inferior colliculus:
is part of the tectum and is involved in audition.
The superior colliculus:
is also part of the tectum and mediates vision.
The substantia nigra:
is located in the tegmentum and is part of the brain’s sensorimotor system.
A sudden loud noise would elicit which of the following reflexes from a one-month old infant:
The Moro reflex occurs in response to either a loud noise or being dropped.
From the perspective of DSM-IV-TR, Transsexualism:
is one manifestation of Gender Identity Disorder

Transsexualism is not considered a distinct disorder but, instead, a manifestation of Gender Identity Disorder which is associated with different characteristics across different ages.
a physical intersex condition:
In the presence of an intersex condition (e.g., androgen insensitivity syndrome), a diagnosis of Gender Identity Disorder NOS is made. As noted above, Transsexualism is subsumed under the diagnosis Gender Identity Disorder, which requires the absence of a physical intersex condition.
Which of the following is true about the standard error of the mean:
it decreases as sample size increases
D. W. Sue (1978) describes "worldview" in terms of two independent dimensions -- locus of control and locus of responsibility. From this perspective, an Anglo-American therapist with an internal local of control and internal locus of responsibility is most likely to experience problems when working with an African-American client who has an:
Internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility

D. W. Sue and D. Sue discuss this issue in Counseling the culturally different, New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1999. They conclude that an IC-ER worldview is likely to "pose the most difficult problems for the IC-IR white therapist" (p. 180) because the client is likely to challenge the therapist's authority, view the therapist as part of the "Establishment that has oppressed minorities" (p. 181), be reluctant to self-disclose, and prefer adopting an active role in the therapy process.
When working with a Japanese client in therapy, during the first session, you decide that your primary goals are to normalize the client's problems and instill a sense of hope. According to Sue and Zane (1987), these goals are:
Gift giving is an important ritual in interpersonal relations in Asian cultures, but Sue and Zane feel that, in therapy, it is useful for other minority clients as well, especially for reducing premature termination from treatment. In therapy, giving can take several forms including normalization of the client's problems and instillation of hope.
Gerstmann's Syndrome is characterized by:
dysgraphia, finger agnosia, acalculia, and right-left disorientation
To evaluate the effects of a behavioral intervention for reducing the self-injurious behaviors of a 5-year-old boy with Autism in different settings, you would use which of the following single-subject designs:
multiple baseline
As defined by Piaget, egocentrism during the preoperational stage of cognitive development is a manifestation of:

Piaget described centration as a primary limitation of the preoperational stage. It involves an inability to focus on more than one aspect of a situation or object at a time. Piaget believed that egocentrism is a form of centration – i.e., young children cannot take into account their own point of view and the point of view of another person at the same time.
Horizontal decalage:
refers to the inability to transfer one type of conservation to another (e.g., the conservation of substance to weight or volume).
Transductive thinking:
is characteristic of the preoperational stage. However, as defined by Piaget, it refers to reasoning characterized by a tendency to move from one particular case to another particular case without taking the general into account (e.g., I had bad thoughts about my mom; she got sick; therefore, my thoughts made her sick).
Primary circular reactions:
are characteristic of babies between the ages of 1 and 4 months and involve the repetition of pleasurable actions.
Research investigating the effects of normal aging on memory has found that:
episodic memory is affected more than semantic and procedural memory.

Episodic (autobiographical) memories show more decline with increasing age than either semantic (fact) memories or procedural (skill) memories.
Recent research on visual imagery has linked it to which of the following structures of the brain:
The ___ scale of the MMPI-2 consists of 64 items that were answered in the deviant (scored) direction by less than 10% of the standardization sample. A high score on this scale suggests carelessness in responding, malingering, or an attempt to look bad:

The lie (L) scale contains items that most people would agree with. A high score indicates a desire to present oneself in a favorable light. A high K scale score indicates defensiveness.
A 60-year old man with Korsakoff's Syndrome would most likely have difficulty:
remembering what he watched on TV last night

As noted above, this disorder affects the ability to form new memories. Consequently, the man would have trouble recalling anything he has done in the recent past. Korsakoff's Syndrome involves profound anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia for events that occurred after the onset of the disorder.

Short-term memory is intact, but the individual is unable to transfer information from short-term to long-term memory.
According to Sherif's social judgment theory, a person's "latitude of acceptance" is greatest when:
the person has low ego-involvement with the target issue.

The likelihood that a person will be persuaded by an argument that is the opposite of his/her position is maximized when the position advocated by the argument is within the person's latitude of acceptance. The size of the latitude of acceptance is affected by several factors including the person's ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the argument--low ego-involvement is associated with a larger latitude of acceptance.
Sherif's social judgment theory:
predicts that a person's susceptibility to persuasion can be described in terms of three "zones"--latitude of acceptance, latitude of non-commitment, and latitude of rejection.
Transformational leaders:
induce followers to transcend self-interest for the sake of the organization.

Transformational leaders motivate workers to achieve transcendental goals that go beyond each worker's immediate self-interests.
A message is likely to be most persuasive when:
the listener is in a good mood and the message is in the listener's latitude of acceptance
When using the split-half method to estimate the reliability of a speed test:
the resulting reliability coefficient will overestimate the reliability of the test.

Internal consistency reliability is generally not used to assess the reliability of speed tests because it produces a spuriously high reliability coefficient. For the exam, be sure to remember that split-half and other forms of internal consistency reliability overestimate the reliability of a speed test.
In their reformulation of the learned helplessness model of depression, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989):
de-emphasize the role of attributions and emphasize the role of hopelessness
According to Fiedler’s contingency model, leadership is most effective when the leader’s style (task- or person-oriented) matches:
degree of situational control.

Fiedler’s contingency model predicts that task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the situation is extreme – that is, when the leader has either low or high situational control, while person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. As defined by Fiedler, situational control is determined by three factors: leader-member relations, task-structure, and leader position power.
Research has demonstrated that recall of a particular piece of information is greater after five hours of sleep than after five hours of wakeful activity. This finding tends to discredit which of the following theories of forgetting:
memory trace decay.

These findings suggest that memory loss is more than a simple decay of memory traces since a similar amount of decay should have occurred regardless of whether subjects slept or engaged in another activity.
Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to agree that the learning of a behavior can be the result of observation alone but that the performance of the behavior depends on several factors including the characteristics of the setting and the learner's expectations about the outcomes of performing the behavior:
According to Bandura's observational (social) learning theory, learning can occur without being evident.
is associated with the generative learning model, which proposes that learners generate meaning by building relationships between previous learning and experience with new or unfamiliar experiences.
In his theory of career development, Donald Super uses which of the following to pictorially depict the various roles that a person participates in during the course of his/her life:
Super uses five figures to illustrate and integrate aspects of career development. The Life Career Rainbow illustrates the various roles people play (e.g., student, parent, worker).
Our eyes have near and distance focal points. As part of the normal aging process, we are most likely to experience which of the following:
our near focal point will move away from our eyes.

Presbyopia is a vision condition that occurs when the near focal point moves away from the eye, which makes it difficult to focus on close objects.
Specific Phobia, Blood-Injection-Injury Type:
People with Specific Phobia, Blood-Injection-Injury Type experience fear in response to "seeing blood or an injury or receiving an injection or other invasive medical procedure" (DSM-IV-TR, p. 445). The onset of this disorder is most often in childhood (and usually prior to age 10). Fainting in response to feared stimuli is characteristic of this type of Specific Phobia. The DSM notes that "fears of blood and injury have particularly strong familial patterns" (p. 447). According to the DSM, 55 to 70% of people with this disorder are females.
The clients in advocacy consultation are:
members of a disenfranchised group
A person with damage to the hippocampus and adjacent areas in the temporal lobes will most likely demonstrate which of the following:
inability to form long-term memories about facts and events.

The effects of lesions in these areas of the brain were demonstrated in the case of H.M. who exhibited profound impairments in the ability to consolidate declarative memories (i.e., following ablation of these areas to control H.M.'s epilepsy, he was unable to form new memories of facts and events).
The hippocampus and adjacent areas in the temporal lobe are involved in memory.
George Kelly is associated with:
Personal Construct Therapy

Personal Construct Therapy (also known as "constructive alternativism") is based on the premise that people construe (construct) their own experiences. His approach was very influential in the development of narrative-constructivist approaches to therapy.
The __________ is best described as the "gateway to memory" because of its involvement in the storage of new information:
Damage to the hippocampus is associated with memory impairments, especially impairments in retaining recently-acquired information.
The hypothalamus and memory:
is most associated with the maintenance of the body's internal balance (homeostasis).
The thalamus:
relays sensory messages to the cortex.
The reticular activating system (RAS):
is involved in arousing the cortex and screening incoming information.
From the perspective of attachment theory, a therapy client's transference is a manifestation of:
an internal working model.

From the perspective of attachment theory, transference occurs when a client inaccurately perceives the client-therapist relationship in terms of internal working models that developed in infancy. Secure attachments often result in positive transferences, while insecure attachments underlie negative transferences.
A parent decides to use time-out to reduce her son's misbehavior by having him sit in the corner for ten minutes each time he misbehaves. The boy quickly learns, however, that, if he whines while in the corner, his mother shortens the length of the time-out period. In this situation, the mother's willingness to shorten the time-out period is being controlled by:
escape conditioning.

The mother's behavior is being maintained by negative reinforcement, which is also known as escape conditioning.
Especially in the early stages of the disorder, Alzheimer's Disease shares several characteristics with Korsakoff's Syndrome. Specifically, both disorders are characterized by:
anterograde amnesia that affects declarative memories but not procedural memories
From the perspective of Cross' Nigrescence/Ethnic Identity Development (EID) Model, change in the direction of greater racial or ethnic awareness is:
due to one or more events that increase the salience of race
When working as a student intern, a psychologist must:
let a client know that he/she is a student intern and provide the client with the supervisor's name
Research on the etiology of Tourette's syndrome has linked it to excessive activity of dopamine receptors in the:
caudate nucleus
In a police department, the usual rotating 8-hour shift of the officers is replaced by a fixed 12-hour compressed shift. Most likely, this change will have which of the following effects:
increase satisfaction but have little or no effect on productivity.

This is the best overall conclusion and the one that was reached in a recent meta-analysis of research on the compressed work week. A good generalization is that innovative work schedules have a greater impact on attitudes than on productivity (especially objective measures of productivity).
A behavioral therapist is using positive reinforcement to increase a desired behavior. After the behavior is well-established, the psychologist switches from a continuous schedule of reinforcement to an intermittent one. This technique is referred to as:

Thinning involves reducing reinforcement; for example, from a continuous to an intermittent schedule.
Fading refers to the gradual removal of prompts, not reinforcements.
On Holland's Self-Directed Search, the frequency with which an examinee's code occurred in the standardization sample is referred to as:

A detailed score report for the SDS provides information on consistency, differentiation, and commonness. Commonness indicates the degree to which an examinee's code occurred in the standardization sample (i.e., the percent of people in the sample who obtained the same code).
Consistency on Holland's Self-Directed Search refers to?
Consistency refers to the distance between the examinee's first two code letters on the RIASEC hexagon. When the first two code letters are adjacent in the hexagon, the individual's consistency is high.
Congruance on Holland's Self-Directed Search refers to?
Congruence refers to the degree of match between a person's personality (as measured by the SDS) and the characteristics of a particular job or career.
As predicted by the Taylor-Russell tables, the incremental validity of a selection test that has a validity coefficient of .50 will be the greatest when:
the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50

A test with even a low or moderate validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).
A distribution of test scores is normally-shaped and has a mean of 100 and standard error of measurement of 5. For an examinee who obtains a score of 103 on the test, the 68% confidence interval is:
98 to 108

To calculate the 68% confidence interval, one standard error is added to and subtracted from the examinee's test score. Adding and subtracting 5 (the standard error) to and from the examinee's score of 103 produces a confidence interval that ranges from 98 to 108.
In a scatterplot, the regression lines for a test for two different groups of examinees differ substantially in terms of slope. This suggests that the test has:
differential validity

A test has differential validity when it has different validity coefficients for different groups, which is what is suggested by different regression line slopes in a scatterplot.
Factorial validity
Factorial validity refers to the degree to which a test or test item correlates with factors that it would be expected to correlate with in a factor analysis.
Convergent validity
Convergent validity refers to the degree to which a test correlates with measures of the same or a similar construct.
Divergent validity
Divergent validity refers to the degree to which a test does not correlate with measures of an unrelated construct.
The slope of a regression line and criterion validity:
The slope of a regression line for a test is directly related to the test’s criterion-related validity: The steeper the slope, the greater the validity.
Dr. Best is attempting to set the optimal cutoff score for a new screening device designed to identify people at risk for drug abuse. Using the data he collected when establishing a criterion-related validity, he finds that lowering the cutoff score on the screening device:
increases the number of true and false positives
"Positives" are individuals who are identified by a predictor as having the attribute being assessed – in this case, people who are at risk for drug abuse. Lowering the predictor cutoff increases the number of (true or false) positives.
Lowering the predictor (screening device) cutoff score increases the number of "positives" and decreases the number of "negatives."
Advantages of Multiple regression analysis
It eliminates the need for a two-stage analysis involving a global significance test that is followed, when appropriate, by "fine grain" significance tests.

It is not limited to categorical (or categorized continuous) variables.

It enables the researcher to determine if entering additional independent variables affects the dependent variable beyond the effects found for previously entered variables.
A worker whose job consists primarily of handling customer complaints will be happier if she blames the customer's problems on:
external, unstable, and specific factors

This is the best answer since external, unstable, specific attributions are the exact opposite of those associated with depression. It also seems logical that one will experience a better sense of self-efficacy if the problems of customers are controllable and changeable, which they would be if they are due to external, unstable, and specific factors. Attribution theory has been applied to the learned helplessness model of depression, and studies looking at the attributions of depression people indicate that they tend to make internal, stable, global attributions, especially of negative events.
The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in:
synthesis of protein and fats

The rough portion of the endoplasmic reticulum plays a role in the synthesis of protein, while the smooth portion is involved in the synthesis of fats.
In Ainsworth's "strange situation," a one-year old shows little distress when her mother leaves the room and ignores her when she returns. Most likely, this mother is:
impatient or overstimulating

Research by Ainsworth and her colleagues found that babies exhibiting insecure/avoidant attachment often have mothers who tend to be either very impatient and nonresponsive or, alternatively, overstimulating.
Jerome Kagan has related the basic temperament quality of inhibition (degree of approach or withdrawal in new situations) to:
CNS reactivity

Infants with a high degree of behavioral inhibition also exhibit high CNS activity (especially in the amygdala and hypothalamus) in new situations.
Craik and Lockhart's (1972) levels of processing model of memory:
implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal

According to the levels of processing model, the semantic level is the deepest level of processing and produces the best recall. Elaborative rehearsal involves encoding material semantically (in terms of meaning).
Chaining, which is believed to account for the acquisition of complex behaviors, involves the association of responses such that each response acts as a secondary reinforcer and as a discriminative stimulus for the following response. The final reinforcer (the reinforcer that is delivered at the end of the "chain") is a primary reinforcer.
D.R.O (differential reinforcement for other behaviors), in which the target behavior is decreased by reinforcing all behaviors except the target behavior
Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior.
As described by Krumboltz (1996), career counseling involves:
instilling an attitude of self-development in the individual so that he/she can adapt to changing work requirements in the future.

Krumboltz's theory does not focus on matching individual characteristics to the characteristics of the job or organization. Instead, he argues that the purpose of career counseling is to help the individual develop attitudes and skills that will enable him/her to adapt to changing work requirements.
Research on job satisfaction suggests that it:
is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes.

This best summarizes the results of research on job satisfaction. It appears that job satisfaction is directly related to the tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable characteristic. People with negative affect tend to be dissatisfied with work; people with positive affect tend to be satisfied.
For Salvador Minuchin, "psychosomatic families" (e.g., those in which asthma, diabetes, or anorexia threaten the life of one child) are most likely to be characterized by which of the following:
weak boundaries between family members and limited opportunities for individual autonomy
The "catecholamine hypothesis" predicts that drugs which _______________ will alleviate depression:
increase norepinephrine levels

MAO inhibitors and other drugs that increase levels of norepinephrine in the brain have been found to decrease depressive symptoms. This lends support to the catecholamine hypothesis. The catecholamine hypothesis links depression to low levels of norepinephrine.