Instrument Flying Knowledge

Front 1

How often does a VOR need to be checked for IFR flight?

Back 1

Must be checked within the last 30 days

Front 2

What are the alternate airport requirements?

Back 2

If from 1 hour before to 1 hour after your planned ETA, You need an alternate if the weather is forcated to be below
2000ft ceiling
3 miles vis

Hint 2

1-2-3 Rule

Front 3

If an alternate is required, what are the required minimums?

Back 3

If an IAP is published for that airport, alternate minimums specified in that procedure or, if none are specified, the following. minimums:
600 and 2 for Precision
800 and 2 for Non-precison
-If there is no Approaches, then field must be VFR

Hint 3

1-8 1-2-3 rule

Front 4

What is the definition of Ceiling?

Back 4

Lowest of Overcast, Broken or Obscured

Hint 4

1-9

Front 5

What is the difference between a Visual and a Contact approach?

Back 5

A Visual approach is initiated by ATC
A Contact approach is initiated by the pilot.

Hint 5

AIM 5-4-20, 5-4-22

Front 6

When Cleared to to execute a published side step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to execute this maneuver?

Back 6

As soon as the runway environment is clearly in sight

Front 7

When Being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, When may the pilot decend to published altitudes?

Back 7

Only when approach control clears the pilot for the approach.

Front 8

What action should be taken when approach control clears the pilot for an approach while being radar vectored and still on an unpublished route?

Back 8

Remain at the last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment.

Front 9

What action should be taken if vectored through an IFR approach course?

Back 9

Contact approach control and advise them that you are about to cross a final approach course

Front 10

If being radar vectored to a published instrument approach that specifies NO PT, the pilot should?
(i.e. do you execute the PT)

Back 10

Not execute a Procedure Turn unless specificly instructed to do so by ATC.

Hint 10

91.175

Front 11

When a approach procedure involves a procedure turn, what is the maximum speed that should be observed from first overheading the IAF throught the Procedure turn?

Back 11

200 Knots IAS

Hint 11

Aim 5-4-8

Front 12

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of prescribed visibility of RVR 16 when RVR is not reported?

Back 12

(1/4mile) RVR may be converted to ground visibility using legend 91.175

Hint 12

91.175

Front 13

When must a pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?

Back 13

If at DH, the runway visual references are not in sight or if pilot loses sight of them

Hint 13

91.175

Front 14

Under which condition may a pilot decend below DH or MDA when when using an ALSF-1 approach lighting system as primary visual reference for intended landing runway?

Back 14

Pilot may not decend below 100ft above TDZE unless either red terminating bars or red side row bars a distinctly visible.

Hint 14

91.175

Front 15

What are the test error limits when doing a VOR check?

Back 15

-Ground Check +- 4°
-VOT Test +- 4°
-Duel VOR Check within 4°
-Airborne Check +- 6°

Front 16

What is the standard instrument takeoff minimums (for hire)?

Back 16

1 sm visibility for aircraft with 1 or 2 engines.
1/2 sm visibility for aircraft with more than 2 engines.
-does not apply to part 91 flights

Front 17

How often does a Transponder need to be inspected?

Back 17

24 calendar months.

Front 18

How often does a Altimeter/Pitot Static need to be inspected?

Back 18

24 calendar months.

Front 19

How often does a Annual need to be inspected?

Back 19

12 calendar months.

Front 20

How often does a VOR need to be tested for IFR flight?

Back 20

30 days.

Front 21

What are the requirements for Special VFR Operations?

Back 21

-Special VFR clearance.
-1 sm ground vis for takeoff and landing.
-1 sm flight vis.
-Clear of clouds.
-Instrument rating and IFR aircraft required at night. Pilot and aircraft must be instrument current.

Front 22

When is an alternate not required?

Back 22

1-2-3 rule: When at the destination airport is better then
+- 1 hour of planned ETA.
2000' ceilings or greater and
3 miles vis or greater.

Front 23

What is a MSA?

Back 23

Minimum Sector Altitude
1,000' obstacle clearance within 25 miles of navaid.

Front 24

What is a MOCA?

Back 24

Minimum Obstruction Clearence Altitude:
Navigational reception within 22nm, obstacle clearance.

Front 25

What is a MVA?

Back 25

Minimum Vector Altitude.
At least 500' clearance during radar vectors.

Front 26

What is minimum IFR altitudes?

Back 26

-Except for takeoff and landing, never operate below published minimum altitudes (MEA, MOCA). A pilot may operate below MEA and at or above MOCA within 22nm of the VOR.
-If no minimum altitudes are published:
A) below 1000' above highest obstacle within 4nm.
B) below 2000 above highest obstacle within 4nm (in mountainous areas).

Front 27

Speed limits:
below 10,000 msl?

Back 27

250 kts.

Front 28

Speed limits:
At or below 2,500 AGL within 4nm of class C or D airspace.

Back 28

200 kts.

Front 29

Speed limits:
In class B airspace, special flight rules area or undrneath class B?

Back 29

200 kts

Front 30

Holding Speed limits:
MHA through 6,000' msl?

Back 30

200 kts.

Front 31

Holding Speed limits:
6001 to 14,000 msl?

Back 31

230 kts.

Front 32

Holding Speed limits:
Above 14,000' msl?

Back 32

265 kts

Front 33

Holding Speed limits:
All altitudes when depicted on a chart by icon?

Back 33

175 kts

Front 34

Holding Speed limits:
6001' to 14,000' msl when depicted on a chart by icon?

Back 34

210 kts

Front 35

Instruments/equipment required for day VFR flight (91.205)?

Back 35

G-as gauge
O-il pressure gauge
O-il temperature gauge
S-eat belts
E-LT
A-ltimeter
C-ompass
A-irspeed indicator
T-achometer

Hint 35

GOOSEACAT

Front 36

When is DME required?

Back 36

At flights above 24,000'msl.

Front 37

What are the components of an ILS?

Back 37

-Localizer
-Approach lights
-Glideslope
-Marker beacons

Front 38

Substitutes for Marker Beacons?

Back 38

- Compass locator or precision radar may substitute for an Outer or Middle Marker.
-DME, VOR, NDB or airport surveillance radar may substitute the Outer Marker if authorized in approach procedure.

Front 39

No Pilot may operate below DH or MDA unless?

Back 39

1)Must be in a position for normal decent and landing with normal manuevers
2)Flight visibility must not be less then the minimums for that approach.
3)Must have runway lights paint or pavement in sight.

Front 40

When must a pilot execute a missed approach?
91.175

Back 40

1)If arrived at the missed approach point and runway is not in sight.
2)If the pilot goes full scale deflection.
3)If during a circle to land, the pilot loses sight of the runway.
4)If the pilot busts MDA

Front 41

what are the Required IFR communications?

Back 41

-Any unforcasted weather conditions
-anything affecting the safty of flight
-loss of any navigational equipment
-Going missed and state intentions.
-Vacating an assigned altitude.
-change in altitude while VFR-on-top.
-unable to climb or decend 500'/min.
-change in airspeed of 5% or 10 kts, which ever is greater.
-time and altitude upon reaching a clearence limit or holding fix.
-leaving an assigned holding fix.

Hint 41

10 items

Front 42

What required IFR communications while in a non-radar environment?

Back 42

-time and altitude reaching a designated reporting point.
-final approach fix or outer marker inbound.
-change in ETA reaching next reporting point +- 3min.
-over points defining a direct route

Hint 42

4 items

Front 43

Lost Comms:
What route should you fly?

Back 43

A-ssigned
V-ectored
E-xpected
F-iled

Hint 43

AVEF

Front 44

Lost Comms:
What altitudes should you fly?

Back 44

Highest of:
M-EA
E-xpected
A-ssigned

Hint 44

MEA

Front 45

Lost Comms:
Leave the holding fix but to not arrive to FAF before?

Back 45

-Expected approach clearence time.
-ETA on flight plan.

Front 46

Light-Gun signals:
Seady red?

Back 46

Ground: STOP!

Flight: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

Front 47

Light-Gun signals:
Flashing Red?

Back 47

Ground: Taxi clear of runway in use
Flight: Airport unsafe-DO NOT LAND!

Front 48

Lost Comms:
What altitudes should you fly?

Back 48

Highest of:
M-EA
E-xpected
A-ssigned

Hint 48

MEA

Front 49

Lost Comms:
Leave the holding fix but to not arrive to FAF before?

Back 49

-Expected approach clearence time.
-ETA on flight plan.

Front 50

Light-Gun signals:
Seady red?

Back 50

Ground: STOP!

Flight: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

Front 51

Light-Gun signals:
Flashing Red?

Back 51

Ground: Taxi clear of runway in use

Front 52

Light-Gun signals:
Steady Green?

Back 52

Ground: Clear for Takeoff
Flight: Cleared to Land

Front 53

Light-Gun signals:
Flashing Green?

Back 53

Ground: Cleared to Taxi
Flight: Return to field for landing and expect steady green.

Front 54

Light-Gun signals:
Flashing White?

Back 54

Ground: Return to starting point.
Flight:N/A

Front 55

Light-Gun signals:
Alternating Red and Green

Back 55

USE EXTREME CAUTION!

Front 56

Normally, the course is 4nm wide, what is the width on the intermediate approach segment?

Back 56

2nm wide.

Front 57

What are the speed ranges for the different aircraft approach categories?
i.e. A, B, C, D, E

Back 57

A)<91kts
B)91-120
C)121-140
D)141-165
E)>161

Front 58

What is the circling minimum criteria for the aircraft approach catagories?

Back 58

A)1.3
B)1.5
C)1.7
D)2.3
E)4.5

Hint 58

357 23 45

Front 59

What is RNP?

Back 59

Required Navigational performance

Front 60

What is the test configuration for VMC?

Back 60

-Max gross weight.
-VMC Speed(red line)
-Critical engine windmilling
-5 Degrees of bank
-Takeoff power
-landing gear down
-flaps down
-cowl flaps open
-most rearward CG (because the arm is shorter, giving less effective rudder athority).