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50 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
When the body is in the anatomical
position, the thumbs point
1. medially
2. laterally
3. anteriorly
4. posteriorly
laterally
A person lying on his/her back is in what position?
1. Prone
2. Erect
3. Supine
4. Lateral recumbent
Supine
The physical and chemical breakdown of the food we eat is called
1. digestion
2. metabolism
3. anabolism
4. catabolism
digestion
The transfer of fluids across the plasma membrane of a cell from an area of lower
concentration to an area of higher concentration is a process known as
1. infusion
2. diffusion
3. perfusion
4. osmosis
osmosis- The tendency of a fluid, usually water, to pass through a semipermeable membrane into a solution where the solvent concentration is higher, thus equalizing the concentrations of materials on either side of the membrane.
Homeostasis is defined as
1. control of bleeding
2. absorption, storage, and use of food products
3. self-regulated control of the body’s internal environment
4. the power of voluntary movement
Self-regulated control of the body’s internal environment
That portion of a cell containing all the genetic material important in the cell’s reproduction is called the
1. plasma membrane
2. nucleus
3. cytoplasm
4. reticulated endothelium
nucleus
What type of tissue is known as the lining tissue of the body?
1. Connective
2. Areolar
3. Sebaceous
4. Epithelial
The lining tissue of the body is called epithelium.
The secretion of digestive fluids and the absorption of digested foods and liquids is
the chief function of which tissue?
1. Columnar
2. Osseus
3. Sercus
4. Squamous
In the digestive system, the chief function of columnar tissue is the secretion of digestive fluids and the absorption of nutrients from digested foods.
Because this tissue is continuous throughout the body, if an infection were
allowed to spread, it could reach every area of the body by moving through which of
the following tissues?
1. Areolar
2. Adipose
3. Osseous
4. Fibrous
Adipose
Which of the following are the two most prominent mineral elements of bone?
1. Ossein and calcium
2. Phosphorus and calcium
3. Sodium and phosphorus
4. Periosteum and ossein
Phosphorus and calcium-Bone is made up of inorganic mineral salts (calcium and phosphorus being the most prevalent) and an organic substance called ossein.
The bones of the wrist are classified as which of the following bones?
1. Long
2. Short
3. Flat
4. Irregular
Short bones-wrist and ankle bones
Bones of the cranium include which of the following?
1. Maxilla
2. Occipital
3. Atlas and axis
4. All of the above
Occipital
The appendicular skeleton is composed of the bones of the
1. skull and vertebral column
2. thorax and vertebral column
3. pelvis and thorax
4. upper and lower extremities
The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the upper and lower extremities.
The upper three ribs on each side are known as which of the following types of
ribs?
1. True
2. False
3. Floating
4. Sternal
The first seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs.
The head of the humerus is called the
1. scapula
2. acetabulum
3. glenoid fossa
4. epicondyle
glenoid fossa
The innominate bone is composed of three parts that are united in adults to form a
cuplike structure called the
1. glenoid fossa
2. acetabulum
3. symphysis pubis
4. obturator foramen
In children these three parts are separate bones, but in adults they are firmly united to form a cuplike structure, called the acetabulum, into which the head of the femur fits.
The prominences easily felt on the inner and outer aspects of the ankle are called
1. medial and lateral malleolus
2. medial and lateral condyles
3. greater and lesser tuberosities
4. greater and lesser trochanters
medial and lateral malleolus
Bones that develop within a tendon are known as which of the following?
1. Condyloid
2. Sesamoid
3. Vermiform
4. Falsiform
Bones like the patella that develop within a tendon are known as sesamoid bones.
Moving an extremity away from the body is called
1. flexion
2. extension
3. abduction
4. adduction
Abduction—moving an extremity away from the body.
The act of straightening a limb is known as
1. flexion
2. extension
3. abduction
4. adduction
Extension—straightening or unbending, as in, traightening the forearm, leg, or fingers.
The primary function of the muscles includes all of the following EXCEPT
1. providing heat during activity
2. maintaining body posture
3. producing red blood cells
4. providing movement
3. producing red blood cells
The ability of muscles to regain their original form when stretched is known as
1. contractiblity
2. elasticity
3. extensibility
4. tonicity
Muscles are also capable of stretching when force is applied (extensibility) and regaining their original form when that force is removed (elasticity).
Actin and myosin are the two protein substances involved in
1. muscle recovery
2. muscle nourishment
3. muscle contraction
4. rigor mortis
In the contraction stage, two protein substances (actin and myosin) react to provide energy through the breakdown of glycogen into lactic acid.
Which of the following properties describes the ability of muscles to respond to a stimulus?
1. Contractility
2. Irritability
3. Extensibility
4. Tonicity
All muscles respond to stimulus. This property is called excitability or irritability.
If a generally sedentary person in less than good physical condition enters a marathon with intent to complete the race, which of the following outcomes can he/she be expected to encounter?
1. If the day is cool, there will be no significant risk
2. Any physical deficiency can be overcome with a carbohydrate-rich diet before the race
3. If stretching exercises are performed before the race, he/she will be ok
4. He/she runs the risk of muscle damage
He/she runs the risk of muscle damage
Intramuscular injections are frequently given in which of the following muscles?
1. Trapezius
2. Pectoralis majoris
3. Deltoid
4. All of the above
Deltoid
Intramuscular injections are usually given in which of the following muscles?
1. Quadriceps
2. Sartorius
3. Gastrocnemius
4. Gluteus maximus
Gluteus maximus
The body’s primary thermo-regulatory action is a function of dilating and contracting blood vessels and the
1. stratum germinativum
2. sweat glands
3. sebaceous glands
4. melanin
sweat glands
The total blood volume in the average adult is in what ranges?
1. 3 to 4 liters
2. 4 to 5 liters
3. 5 to 6 liters
4. 6 to 7 liters
Total blood volume of the average adult is 5 to 6 liters.
A decreased red blood cell (RBC) count could be the result of a medical condition
affecting the
1. compact bone
2. periosteum
3.
4. red marrow
Red marrow is one of the manufacturing centers of red blood cells and is found in the articular ends of long bones and in cancellous tissue.
Blood of the average female adult contains (a) how many million RBCs per (b) what
unit?
1. (a) 4.5 (b) mm3
2. (a) 6.0 (b) cm3
3. (a) 4.5 (b) 1
4. (a) 4.5 (b) low power field
Women have fewer red cells, 4.5 million per cubic millimeter.
A white blood cell (WBC) count of 18,000 may indicate what condition?
1. Leukocytosis
2. Normalcy
3. Infection
4. Vetiligo
Normal WBC count is 6,000 to 8,000 per cubic millimeter, although the number of white cells may be 15,000 to 20,000 or higher during infection. When white cells are undermanned, more are produced, causing an,increase in their number and a condition known as leukocytosis.
In an accident victim suffering from a fibrinogen deficiency, the rescuer may have difficulty performing which of the actions
listed below?
1. Controlling hemorrhage
2. Immobilizing a fracture
3. Supporting respiratory function
4. Reducing a dislocation
Controlling hemorrhage a proteins, fibrinogen, contributes to coagulation.
In addition to preventing excessive blood loss, the formation of a blood clot serves
which, if any, of the following purposes?
1. To convert fibrinogen into blood serum to aid healing
2. To form the foundation for new tissue growth
3. To manufacture leukocytes
4. None of the above
To form the foundation for new tissue growth "A clot also serves as a network for the growth of new tissues in the process of healing."
The valves of the heart include all of the following EXCEPT
1. atrial
2. mitral
3. tricuspid
4. pulmonary
Tricuspid valve
Mitral, or bicuspid, valve
Pulmonary valve
Aortic valve
Oxygenated blood is carried by which of the following vein(s)?
1. Inferior vena cava
2. Superior vena cava
3. Portal
4. Pulmonary
The left atrium receives the oxygenated blood from the lungs through four pulmonary veins and pumps it to the left ventricle past the mitral valve.
The contraction phase of the heart is
1. systole
2. tension
3. diastole
4. active
Contraction of the heart is called systole or “the period of work.” Relaxation of the heart is called diastole or “the period of rest.”
The pulse pressure is the difference between which of the following measurements?
1. Venous and arterial pressure
2. Resting and active pulse rate
3. Arterial and ventricular pressure
4. Systole and diastole
The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is known as pulse pressure.
The venous system that carries digested materials from the intestinal tract is called the
1. portal
2. pulmonary
3. abdominal
4. pelvi
The portal system consists of the veins that drain venous blood from the abdominal part of the digestive tract—the spleen, pancreas, and gallbladder, but not the lower rectum—and deliver it to the liver.
Lymph nodes participate in all of the following functions EXCEPT
1. manufacture of white blood cells
2. filtration of bacterial debris
3. production of hormones
4. collection of large protein molecules
manufacture of white blood cells
Windpipe is another term for
1. nares
2. larynx
3. trachea
4. pharynx
The trachea, or windpipe, begins at the lower end of the larynx and terminates by dividing into the right and left bronchi.
The primary muscle of respiration is known as the
1. pleura
2. alveolus
3. diaphragm
4. mediastinum
The diaphragm is the primary muscle of respiration.
Of the following nerves, which, if any, controls the larynx during the process of
breathing?
1. Phrenic
2. Intercostal
3. Vagus
4. None of the above
The nerve that controls the diaphragm is called the phrenic nerve; the nerve that controls the larynx is the vagus nerve; and the
nerves that control the muscles between the ribs are the intercostal nerves.
A nerve cell, or neuron, is composed of all of the following EXCEPT a/an
1. synapse
2. axon
3. cyton
4. dendrite
The neuron is composed of dendrites, a cyton, and an axon.
The impulse receptors of a nerve are called
1. dendrites
2. Schwann cells
3. ganglia
4. neurons
The dendrites are thin receptive branches, and vary greatly in size, shape, and number with different types of neurons. They serve as receptors, conveying impulses toward the cyton.
The space through which a nerve impulse passes from one neuron to another is called
a/an
1. myelin sheath
2. synapse
3. axon
4. ganglion
myelin sheath
Balance, coordination of movement, and harmony of motion are functions of what
part of the brain?
1. Cerebral cortex
2. Cerebellum
3. Pons
4. Temporal lobe
The cerebellum is concerned chiefly with bringing balance, harmony, and coordination to the motions initiated by the cerebrum.
Circulation and respiration are controlled primarily from what area of the brain?
1. Medulla oblongata
2. Pons
3. Cerebellum
4. Cerebrum
In the medulla oblongata are the centers for the control of heart action, breathing, circulation, and other vital processes such as blood pressure.
The meninges, membrane layers covering of the brain and spinal cord, are composed
of all of the following EXCEPT the
1. dura mater
2. pia mater
3. arachnoid
4. foramen magnum
The dura mater is the strong
outer layer; the arachnoid membrane is the elicate middle layer; and the pia mater is the vascular inner-most layer that adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
In what part of the body is cerebral spinal fluid produced?
1. Ventricles of the brain
2. Spinal cord
3. Meninges
4. Medulla oblongata
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by a plexus, or network, of blood vessels in the central ventricles of the brain.