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170 Cards in this Set

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Diseases caused by pneumococcus?

Otitis otitis media and bronchitis




serious illnesses - pneumonia, meningitis and septicaemia

How does invasive pneumococcal disease present in children vs adults?

Invasive pneumococcal disease in adults usually occurs as pneumonia, vs children who usually get bacteraemia.

T/F




Invasive pneumococcal disease is a notifiable disease?

True since 2001

What is the most common communicable disease contributing to premature death in ATSI populations?

Pneumonia




Hospitalisation is 4-8 x more common in ATSI populations

Who is funded for pneumococcal vaccination (outside childhood vaccinations)?




What are the recommendations?

ATSI > 50 (2 vaccinations)


ATSI 15-49 with high risk condition (3 vaccinations)


- Current smoker, ETOH related disease, chronic disease such as CHF, CKD, COPD, diabetes






23cPPV


Single vaccination --> revaccination @ 5 yrs --> 2nd revaccination @ further 5 yrs or 50yrs whichever is later

Who is recommended to have the influenza vaccination?


Funding?


Guidelines

Recommendation - ALL >15 yrs, or >6 months with chronic illness (although the immunisation website says all > 6 months)


Funding - Free vaccine


- >65 yrs


- All > 6 months with chronic disease


- Pregnant women


- All ATSI > 15 yrs; ATSI 6 month - 5 yrs


- Health workers


- Annual vaccination prior to winter

Effect of influenza on ATSI populations?

High risk group




4 times more likely to be admitted to hospital




Accounted for 13% of deaths

Effect of influenza vaccination?

Protects against disease and its complications in up to 70% of those vaccinated

Treatment of influenza?

Neuraminidase inhibitors - NIs


- Oseltamivir (oral) - tamiflu + Zanamivir (inhaled - Both approved for use in AUS for the treatment/prevention** Flu A/B


- Needs to be started within the first 24-30hrs, no effect following 2 days.


- Effect - shortens symptoms by 1-3 days


**Prevention in high risk patients during pandemics

Vaccinations for ATSI Children by Age group (in addition to the normal schedule)?

0-5


- Pneumococcal - additional booster 12-18 months - high risk areas


- Hep A - 2 doses 6 months apart over 12 months - high risk areas


- Influenza




10-15


- Routine only




15+


- Pneumococcal - if high risk


- Influenza

Vaccinations for older Australians ?

Over 65


- Annual Influenza


- Pneumococcal


- Also advised to have dTpa if not had one in the last 10 yrs but this is not funded






ATSI > 50


- Annual Influenza


- Pneumococcal




71-79 yr - Varicella catch up program


- Zostavax single vaccination until 2021

Vaccination/s due at birth?

Hep B only


- Greatest benefit within 24 hrs, must be within 7 days




Infants also get Vit K to prevent ICH

Vaccination/s due at 2 months?

3 VACCINATIONS



1. hepB-DTPa-Hib-IPV


- Hep b


- dTpa - diptheria, tetnus, acellular pertussis (whooping cough)


- Hib - type b - Haemophilus influenzae


- Inactivated polio




2. Pneumococcal conjugate - 13vPCV




3. Rotavirus - oral

Vaccination/s due at 4 months ?

3 VACCINATIONS




1. hepB-DTPa-Hib-IPV


- Hep b


- dTpa - diptheria, tetnus, acellular pertussis (whooping cough)


- Hib - type b - Haemophilus influenzae


- Inactivated polio




2. Pneumococcal conjugate - 13vPCV




3. Rotavirus - oral

Vaccination/s due at 6 months?

3 VACCINATIONS




1. hepB-DTPa-Hib-IPV


- Hep b


- dTpa - diptheria, tetnus, acellular pertussis (whooping cough)


- Hib - type b - Haemophilus influenzae


- Inactivated polio




2. Pneumococcal conjugate - 13vPCV




3. Rotavirus - oral

Vaccination/s due at 12 months?

2 VACCINATIONS




1. Hib - MenC


- Haemophilus Influenzae B + Meningococcal B




2. MMR


- Measles, mumps rubella

Vaccination/s due at 18 months?

2 VACCINATIONS




1. DTPa


- Diptheria, tetnus, acellular pertussis




2. MMRV


- Measles, mumps, rubella, varicella

Vaccination/s due at 4 years?

1 VACCINATION + Catch up if required




1. DTPa-IPV


- Diptheria, tetnus, acellular pertussis, inactivated poliomyelitis




Catch up - MMRV - if not given at 18 months (MMR + varicella combo)

Vaccinations covered by school programs?

10-15 yrs of age




Varicella


HPV - all adolescents 12-13 yrs


DTPa

Who receives additional pneumococcal vaccinations as children?

Medically at risk children at 12 month + 4 years


- 13vPCV booster




ATSI


- 12-18 months (13vPCV) in high risk areas


- >15 yrs (23vPPV) - medically at risk

Define CKD.

Kidney damage = pathological abnormality - blood tests, urine tests, imaging




or




GFR < 60




Persisting for > 3 months

What are the stages of CKD?

6 Stages




1 - Kidney damage with normal or increased GFR > 89




2 - Kidney damage with mildly reduced GFR 60-89




3 - Moderately reduced eGFR


- 3A - 45-59


- 3B - 30-44




4 - Severely reduced GFR 15-29


5 - Kidney failure - < 15 or dialysis

What is the rate of CKD in ATSI vs non-ATSI?

10x increased CKD

Which of the following are T/F?




1. Reduced GFR and raise albumin excretion are independent risk factors for mortality.


2. Mortality from CKD is from the cardiovascular risks.


3. People with CKD are more likely to die from IHD or CVA than develop end stage CKD.


4. Low levels of microalbuminuria are not associated with increased stroke morbidity.

1.True


2. True


3. True


4. False - increased cardiovascular and stroke risk

Which of the following are true/false?




1. eGFR calculations are validated for ATSI populations.


2. eGFR varies with illness, diet, extremes of weight


3. Patients should be tested for proteinuria instead of albuminuria as this is more sensitive


4. Albumin is the main protein excreted in all forms of renal failure

1. False


2. True


3. False - albuminuria is more sensitive and the recommended screening test


4. False - this is not true in causes of tubulointerstitial disease or myeloma

Define Microalbuminuria




+ Macroalbuminuria

Microalbuminuria - 30-300mg/24hr




Macroalbuminuria - >300mg /24hr

A urinary dipstick rules out microalbuminuria




T/f?

False - rules out macroalbuminuria only




and positive tests should be confirmed with laboratory methods

What is a convenient method for assessing urinary protein?

First morning urine - stop sample




ACR - albumin creatinine ratio


Or


PCR - protein creatinine ratio

What are normal ACR levels?

Males <2.5mg/mmol




Females <3.5 mg/mmol




Above these levels --> micro/macroalbuminuria

What factors may increase albumin excretion in the urine and hence make ACR/24 urinary albumin inaccurate?

Urinary tract infections


Acute febrile illness


High dietary protein


Heart failure


Recent heavy exercise


Some drugs


Menstruation or vaginal discharge

Define an abnormal ACR measurement.

At least 2 elevated levels in a 3 month period


>2.5 Males; >3.5 Females






Ie a single test should be repeated

When is primary screening for CKD recommended?




Which tests?

1. 18-29 years - without RFs -->Screen for CKD RFs - Obesity, DM, HTN, Smoking, F.Hx @ annual health assessment




2. 18-29 years w/ risk factors --> eGFR + Urine ACR (if high - repeat 1-2x over the next 3 months)




3. All > 30 years --> eGFR + ACR




Frequency --> 2. + 3. --> 2nd yearly screening (more frequently if high CVD risk)

What are primary prevention strategies to reduced CKD?

Weight loss/healthy weight/healthy diet


Regular exercise


Diabetes screening and management


HTN screening and management


Smoking cessation


Limit salt intake




Maternal health promotion strategies


Prevention of streptococcal infections in childhood

Secondary prevention strategies for CKD?

Patients with ACTIVE CKD




1. Quit smoking


2. Reduced excess weight


3. Regular exercise


4. Restrict Na intake 100mmol/day (6g salt)




THERAPY


- ACEI/ARB - for BP management and protein excretion


- Statin - reduce CVD endpoints

What are the goals of secondary prevention of CKD?

Slow progression of disease


Reduced CVD endpoints

T/F




Combination of an ACEI + ARB may enhance BP lowering effects but may worsen kidney outcomes.

True

When to refer patients with CKD?

Referral to a NEPHROLOGIST




- Stage 4/5


- Persisting albuminuria ACR>30


- Declining eGFR > 5 in 6 months (average of at least 3 measurements)


- CKD + Elevated BP that is not at target despite at least 3 agents


- Unexplained anaemia <100 + eGFR<60

Advise patients taking ACEI/ARB + diuretic to avoid which meds?

NSAIDS - except low dose aspirin

When should an ACEI or ARB be started in patients with CKD?

CKD + Albuminuria - regardless of BP


CKD + DM - " "




target <140/90 but lower <130/80 if albuminuria present






A statin should also be considered

Diagnosis of osteoporosis?

DEXA (dual energy x ray aborptiometry) - bone mineral density testing.




T score - compare to 30 yo




T <-2.5 = osteoporosis


T -1.5 to -2.5 = osteopaenia

Prevalence of osteoporosis in over 60's ?

Very common




Females 27%




Males 11%

Life time risk for females and males for a minimal trauma fracture > 60 yrs?

Females 56%


Males 26%

Risk factors for Osteoporotic fractures ?

Female double the lifetime risk of males


Previous fracture


Worse DEXA score


Falls history doubles risk

Risk factors for developing glaucoma?

INCREASED RISK


- Family history - first degree relatives


- Caucasian and asian patients >50 yrs


- African patients >40 yrs




HIGH RISK


>50yrs +


- Diabetes


- Myopia


- Long term steroid use


- Migraine and peripheral vasospasm


- Abnormal BP


- History of eye trauma



Steps to take for prevention of glaucoma in increased risk and high risk patients?

Refer for opthalmoscopy (exam of optic nerve head), measurement of IOP (tonometry), assessment of visual fields (perimetry - automated)




- Either by opthalmologist or optometrist




Refer 5-10 yrs prior to age of relative's onset

What is the RACGP standpoint for prostate cancer screening?

1. No PR exam - DRE insufficiently sensitive




2. No Screening




3. No PSA testing - due to over treatment and complications of treatment and does not save lives.




Happy for patient to have PSA testing if the patient is happy with the risks. Have a guideline about how to talk to patients about this.




http://www.racgp.org.au/download/Documents/Guidelines/prostate-cancer-screening-infosheetpdf.pdf

Risk factors for prostate cancer?

Men with 1 or more 1st degree relatives with prostate Ca




Men with first degree relative with familial breast cancer - BRCA1 or BRCA2

Complications of a prostatectomy?

Erectile dysfunction


Urinary incontinence


Urinary irritation


Bowel symptoms

Risks following diagnosis with prostate cancer?

Enormous spike in cardiovascular disease and suicide (11x and 8x increase respectively) in the week following diagnosis.

Which of the following are true/false?




1. Prostate screening saves lives.


2. Sepsis requiring ICU occurs in 1% of patients following prostate biopsy.


3. Urinary incontinence following prostatectomy returns to normal in 75-90% of patients.

1. False - meta-analysis results


2. True - Australian data (NPS)


3. True - after 2 years

Which of the following are true/false?




1. Biennial faecal occult blood test can reduce colorectal cancer mortality by 16%.


2. FOBT is based on guaiac based testing.


3. Age of FOBT testing is from 50 yrs to 75 yrs in asymptomatic individuals.


4. CT colonography is routinely used for colorectal Ca screening now

1. True


2. False - Now done by a more specific immunochemical test


3. True


4. False - insufficient evidence

Complications following colonoscopy?

1. Death - rare 1/10,000-14,000




2. Bowel prep - dehydration, electrolyte disturbance




3. Sedation - cardiac events




4. Procedure - infection, colonic perforation, bleeding

What is the standard screening for an average risk patient for colorectal cancer?




WHO, TEST, FREQUENCY?

WHO - Asymptomatic people or one 1st or 2nd degree relative with CRC >55 yrs old




TEST - FOBT




FREQUENCY - every 2 years 50 yrs-74 yrs

What is the standard screening for a MODERATELY INCREASED risk patient for colorectal cancer?






WHO, TEST, FREQUENCY?

WHO - Asymptomatic with


- one 1st degree relative with Dx <55yrs or


- two 2nd or one 1st and one 2nd degree relatives on the same side of the family with diagnosis at any age.




TEST - Colonoscopy first line; if contraindicated --> sigmoidostomy + double contrast barium enema or CT colonography. **




FREQUENCY - every 5 yrs from 50 or 10 yrs younger than the age of first diagnosis






** Consider FOBT in intervening years

What is the standard screening for a HIGH risk patient for colorectal cancer?




WHO, TEST, FREQUENCY?

WHO - Asymptomatic with


- 3 or more 1st or 2nd degree relatives on the same side - suspected Lynch syndrome/NHPCC or


- 2 or more 1st or 2nd degree relatives on the same side with high risk features - multiple CRC in one person, CRC <50yrs, Family member with Lynch syndrome


- 1 with a large number of adenomas throughout the large bowel - suspected FAP - familial adenomatous polyposis


- Family member with APC (adenomatous polyposis coli) mutation




TEST - Referral to bowel cancer specialist for appropriate surveillance + affected members for genetic screening


FAP - sigmoidoscopy; HNPCC - colonoscopy


Consider FOBT




FREQUENCY - As per specialist


FAP - yrly from 12-15 until 30-35 then 3 yrly


HNPCC / Lynch - 1-2yrly from 25yrs or 5yrs prior to first Dx

Aspirin 100mg/day is effective prophylaxis for Lynch syndrome / HNPCC cancer formation.




True/false?

TRUE




Reduces cancer for 50%




More effective with higher doses ~600mg

What is FAP and what is it caused by?






What % of CRC is due to FAP?

Autosomal dominant caused by a germline mutation in APC gene.




Manifestation - Colorectal cancer - 100% of untreated subjects by 50yrs




Only accounts for 1% of CRC



Inheritance of HNPCC is ?




Lifetime risk of Ca?

Autosomal dominant




Same as Familial adenomatous polyposis (CRC only)






Lifetime risk of CANCER (CRC and other cancers) - 70-90%

Frequency of screening in patients with FAP - familial adenomatous polyposis ?

Every 12 months from 12-15 yrs until 30-35yrs then every 3 yrs after 35

Frequency of screening in patients with Lynch syndrome?

one to two yearly from 25 years of age or five years earlier than the youngest affected member of the family (whichever is earliest)

Appropriate management of + FOBT?

Referral for colonoscopy




These patients are 12x more likely to have CRC than those with a negative FOBT

When should a patient have a repeat colonoscopy following polypectomy?

Depends on the type and number of polyps






SEE the below guideline


http://www.racgp.org.au/your-practice/guidelines/redbook/9-early-detection-of-cancers/92-colorectal-cancer/

When should a patient have a repeat colonoscopy following polypectomy for a large sessile adenoma removed piecemeal?

3-6 months and again at 12 months to ensure complete removal

Screening for patients >75 yrs old with previous negative FOBT or colonoscopies?

No further screening




Due to lead time 10-20yrs for progression to cancer

When should a patient have a repeat colonoscopy following polypectomy for multiple adensomas >5 or >10?

>5 - 12 months




>10 - Sooner than 12 months due to risk of missed polyps

When should a patient have a repeat colonoscopy following polypectomy for 1-2 small tubular adenomas?

5 yrs




If next normal then repeat 10 yrs with 2nd yrly FOBT

When should a patient have a repeat colonoscopy following polypectomy for >3 high risk adenomas??

High risk = >10mm, tubulovillous or villous histology, or high grade dysplasia




3 yrly colonoscopy

Age for breast cancer screening?

50-75

Risk factors for breast cancer?

Age


Hx atypical hyperplasia, lobular carcinoma insitu


Strong family history


Previous radiotherapy




Hormonal - age of menarche age at first birth, obesity, osteoporosis

Factors associated with reduced risk of breast cancer in observational studies?

Physical activity


Adequate folate


Mediterranean diet


Normal BMI (post menopausal women)


Decreased EtOH consumption



Tool to assess a womens risk of breast cancer?

International breast cancer intervention study tool (IBIS)






https://www.cancer.gov/bcrisktool/

Recommended screening for breast cancer in asymptomatic low risk women?

Mammograms 2nd yearly aged 50-74

Which of the following are true/false?




1. Breast cancer screening is effective at reducing mortality associated with breast cancer.




2. Breast cancer screening if generally safe without major negatives.




3. Screening in women < 50yrs is not recommended due to the worse benefits/risk profile.

1. True - Saves 1 in 2000 screened.




2. False - 30% over diagnosis of breast cancer and hence subsequent treatment for people. 10 in 2000 with have unnecessary treatment.




3. True - less lives saved and more false positives

Which patients may benefit from earlier screening - ie 40-49 yrs for breast cancer?

Those with a family relative with breast cancer




Cancer Australia recommends annual mammograms from 40 yr if + 1st degree relative with breast cancer 50yrs.

What is the rational for ceasing mammograms at 75?

Insufficient evidence to support benefits/harms as this age group were not included in the studies.






Observational studies do support extended screening for older women who have a life expectancy >10 years.

What is the evidence for self-examination in screening for breast cancer?

Insufficient evidence to recommend this screening.






Although it is recommended women are familiar with their breasts and monitor for any lumps, discharge, skin changes or pain and notify their GP if any changes occur.

What percentage of the population are average, moderate or high risk for breast cancer?

Average - 95%




Moderate - 4%




High Risk - 1%

What are the factors that make a woman HIGH risk for developing breast cancer?






Approach to screening?

High Risk --> 1in2 to 1in4 chance of developing Ca


- High risk for ovarian cancer


- Two 1st/2nd ' relatives on one side w/ breast or ovarian cancer PLUS additional relatives with B/O Ca, B Ca <40 yrs, Bilateral B Ca, B+O Ca in the same woman, Ashkenazi jews, B Ca in male.


- One 1st/2nd B Ca <45yrs + another with a sarcoma (bone/soft tissue) <45yrs


- Family member with + high risk breast cancer gene mutation




SCREENING - Referral to cancer specialist, ?genetic testing, +/- prophylactic chemoprevention or mastectomy/salpingoopherectomy

Breast cancer prevention options in high risk patients?


(<1% of the population)




What is their risk of developing breast cancer?

Risk 1in2 --> 1in4 --- VERY HIGH




Prevention


- Chemoprevention - SERMS (seletive oestrogen receptor modulators) - Tamoxifen or Raloxifene or Aromatase inhibitors - exemestane and anatrozole.


- Surgery - Mastectomy or salpingoopherectomy






Screening will be personalised and may include clinical breast exams, imaging - mammography, MRI or USS

Which of the following are true/false regarding breast cancer?




1. Salpingo-oophorectomy reduces the risk of breast cancer.




2. Screening test of choice for moderate risk patients is mammography.




3. Breast cancer screening in high risk groups is standardised, routine yearly Mammograms and USS.



1. True




2. True




3. False - individualised screening plan with breast checks and imaging mammogram, USS and MRI

Factors that make a woman moderate risk for breast cancer?




Screening?

Moderate risk


- One 1st ' relo with B Ca <50 without other factors


- Two 1st ' relos on same side with Breast Ca


- Two 2nd ' relos on same side with breast Ca, at least one <50




Screening - Mammogram 2nd yrly 50-74; Annual from 40 if 1st ' relative < 50 with breast Ca

Features consistent with average or only slightly high risk of developing breast cancer ?

Average Risk or slightly higher


- One 1st ' relative >50yrs (if younger moderate risk)


- One 2nd ' relative at any age


- Two 2nd ' relative on same side > 50 yrs (<50 = moderate risk)


- Two 1st/2nd ' relatives >50 yrs on different sides of the family




SCREENING - 2nd yearly mammograms 50-74 yrs

Risk factors for melanoma?

Age + sex


Prior melanom or NMSC


Number of naevi


F. Hx of melanoma


Skin and hair pigmentation


Response to sun exposure


Evidence of actinic skin damage



How frequent should high risk individuals self screen and have a clinical examination to assess for skin cancer?

Self exam 3 monthly




Clinical exam 6 monthly



Factors that make a patient high risk for developing melanoma?






What to do with these patients?

1. Previous Melanoma - RR >10




2. >5 Atypical (dysplastic naevi) RR = 6






Management


- Preventative advise (all patients)


- Examination of skin (Moderate + high risk)


- Advise on self examination




Self exam 3 monthly; Clinical exam 6-12 monthly

Factors that make a patient moderate risk for developing melanoma vs high or average risk?






What should be done for these patients?

Moderate Risk


- Family history of melanoma - 1st degree RR=1.7


- Fair complexion, tendency to burn rather than tan, presence of freckles, high naevus count >100, light eye colour, red hair


- Presence of actinic damage RR=2


- History of NMSC


- High exposure to UV as a child and episodes of childhood burn RR=2




PREVENTION


- Prevention advise


- Skin exam - opportunistic

Which of the following are true/false regarding skin cancer?




1. Patients with moderate risk of melanoma should have 1-2 yrly skin checks.




2. A patient with blonde hair and blue eyes has a moderate risk of melanoma.




3. The presence of dysplastic naevi is a risk factor for melanoma

1. False - opportunistic screening for exams and advise




2. True - light hair and eye colour is a RF




3. True - high risk if >5

ABCD if melanoma refers to?




Other features of suspicious lesions?

Asymmetry


Border irregularity


Variable colour


Diameter > 6mm






Other


- Ugly duckling - a naevi that stands out


- Nodular melanoma - elevated, firm and fast growing


- 7 point checklist (validated) --> 2 pts - change in size, irregular shape, irregular colour, 1 pt - largest diameter >7mm, inflammation, oozing, change in sensation --> score >3 = increased risk of melanoma

Management of lesions where there is clear suspicion of melanoma?

Excision biopsy or referral

At what level of UV is skin protection recommended?

greater than or equal to 3



T/F




Daily application of sunscreen reduces the incidence of melanoma and SCC in adults with a prior history of skin cancer.

True. - study in QLD - RCT


Screening recommendations for NMSC?

Preventative advice for all patients




Education regarding presenting to the GP if changes to a skin lesion occur




Advise on self examination




All opportunistic except for examination of the skin 12 monthly in high risk patients

NMSC "high risk" category risk factors?

HIGH Risk


- Previous NMSC - 60% will grow another in 3 yrs


- Immunosuppressed


- Past exposure to arsenic

What are the preventative intervention for cervical cancer?

1. HPV Vaccination - all 12-13 yr olds - 16/18 (cancer), 6/11 (genital warts), 3 doses -0/2/6 months




2. PAP smear

HPV vaccine prevents what % of cervical cancer, % of male related HPV cancers , and % genital warts?

PREVENTS


Subtype 16/18 --> which cause 70% of cervical cancer




Subtype 16/18 --> which cause 90% of all HPV related cancers in men




Subtype 6/11 --> which cause 90% of genital warts

How many doses of HPV vaccine?




At what age?




At what intervals?

3 doses




0, 2, 6 months




12-13 yrs - At school at 7

What are the new changes to the cervical screening program in May 2017?

Asymptomatic women 25-74 --> HPV test every 5 yrs




Symptomatic --> Clinical exam which may include cervical cytology + HPV test




Women > 70-74 who have had regular screening may have an EXIT HPV test, and exit the screening program

What is the current recommendations for cervical cancer screening (until May 2017) ?

Pap smear 2 yearly for women 18-20 who have had sex or up to 2 years following fist intercourse (which ever is later)




Until 70 yrs (with 2 normal Pap tests in the last 5 yrs).




Women who are > 70 who have never had a pap test, who request screening should be screened.

Which of the following are True/False?




1. Lesbians are not at risk for cervical cancer.


2. Risk factors for cervical cancer include persistent infection with high risk HPV, immunosuppression, smoking, prolonged COCP use.


3. In a pap smear the brush collects ectocervical cells and the spatula collects endocervical cells.

1. False


2. True




3. False, other way around

Does the RACGP recommend pelvic examinations in asymptomatic, non-pregnant women?

No - There is no evidence of benefit

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

Mucoplurulent discharge

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

Cancer

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

Normal cervix in a nulliparous woman

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

Ectropion

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

Normal mulitparous cervix

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

Cervical polyp

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

Nabothian Follicles

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

IUD

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

What does this appearance on pap smear indicate?

Cervical wart

What is the current recommendation for ovarian cancer screening?

No screening - due to limited evidence to support CA125 / Transvaginal USS surveillance




but in patients with BRCA1/2 or multiple 1st degree relatives with ovarian cancer --> consider increased frequency of screening for Breast cancer and Colorectal cancer

The current recommendation for ovarian screening is no screening. When may this change?

With reporting of the most recent european trial which started in 2005.



What is the current recommendation for screening for testicular cancer?

No preventative screening due to insufficient evidence to routinely screen for testicular cancer using clinical or self examination.

Risk factors for testicular cancer?

History of Cryptorchidism RR = 3.5-17


Orchidopexy


Testicular atrophy


Previous testicular cancer RR =25-28






If high risk - testicular examination - opportunistic

Who is recommended to have a BCG vaccination?






Age?

NOT FUNDED




- ATSI in northern Australia


- Infants born to migrants from high risk countries for TB




Given soon after birth to infants

Who is recommended to have the meningococcal B vaccine?

NOT FUNDED




<2 yrs and between 15-18yrs (highest incidence age groups)



Which vaccinations are recommended to certain groups by the RACGP but are not funded?

BCG - infants


Meningococcal B - <2; 15-18yr olds


dTPA - parents and carers of infants < 6months old; Travellers of any age


VZV - > 60 yrs to prevent shingles


All health workers - dTpa, Hep B, Influenza, MMR, Varicella


MSM + IVDU - Hep A+B covered by some state programs

VZV vaccination is recommended for which patients?

18 months - part of MMRV


Second shot from 18 months - gives better protection (NOT FUNDED)


>60yr - single shot - shingles prevention (NOT FUNDED)

Questions to ask as part of a sexual history?

Sexual activity


Gender


Number of partners


Contraception (inc condom use)


Travel history


Immunisation status




Also ask about HIV/HepC/HepB risk --> IDVU, tattoos and piercings

Who's responsibility is contact tracing for STI's or HIV?

The diagnosing clinician.




This may be done via the patient notifying contacts or via online partner notification tools.




Ie - www.letthemknow.org.au

Which of the following are true/false?


1. 80% of chlamydia infections occur in people <29 yr


2. Screening for chlamydia is recommended in all sexually active people under 29 yrs


3. The overall absolute risk for chlamydia is 20% and for gonorrhoea is 5% for sexually active people under 29%

1. True


2. True




3. False - Chlamydia 5% absolute risk; Gonorrhoea 0.5% absolute risk

Which is the most common STI?

Chlamydia (both the general population and ATSI)




ATSI have 4 x the rate of infection

Rank the following STIs in order of prevalence.




Chlamydia, HIV, Syphilis, Hep b, Gonorrhoea

1. Chlamydia -- 371//100 000 (ATSI 1341)


2. Gonorrhoea -- 49/100 000 (ATSI 858)


3. Hepatitis B -- 23/100 000 (ATSI 50)


4. Syphilis -- 8/100 000 (ATSI 32)


5. HIV -- 4/100 000 (ATSI 6)

What is the risk of infertility with untreated chlamydia?

2-8%

Screening for MSM for STIs?

Screen for gonorrhoea, chlamydia, syphilis, HIV




Every 12 months

ATSI screening for STIs?

Screening


Swabs - PCR gonorrhoea, chlamydia


Serology - Syphilis, HIV, Hep A/B if not vaccinated


12 monthly / Opportunistic


Offer vaccination for Hep A + B

STI screen in pregnant women?

HIV, syphilis, HepB + HepC




If < 29 - also chlamydia and gonorrhoea if high risk

Who to screen for HepC?

IVDU




HIV+

How to manage contact tracing with regards to treatment and testing?

Test for all and treat contacts presumptively

Which people have the highest risk for STIs?






Investigations?

MSM - 12 monthly; 3-6 monthly with higher risk.




Highest risk features


- Unprotected anal sex


- > 10 partners in the past 6 months


- Participate in group sex or use recreational drugs during sex




Investigations


- Chlamydia PCR - urine/throat/rectal


- Gonorrhoea PCR - Throat/rectal


- Serology - HIV, syphilis; if not vaccinated - Hep A+B




- Offer Hep A+B vaccinations

STI screening for patients who are IVDUs or sex workers?

Swabs - Chlamydia, gonorrhoea


Serology - HIV, Syphilis, Hep A/B




Hep C if IVDU




12 monthly

Test to be done if clinical suspicion for gonorrhoea ?

MCS of bodily fluid/swab




Otherwise PCR

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Smoking ?

Opportunistically



Ask about habits - Ask, assess, advise, assist, arrange

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Smoking ?

Opportunistically



Ask about habits - Ask, assess, advise, assist, arrange

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Nutrition

2 Years - 6 monthly for as risk populations - over weight, high CVD risk, ATSI



Ask about fruit, vegetable portions, size, salts, saturated fats



All ages

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Alcohol?

Every 2-4 yrs (more frequent if risk factors)



Ask about quantity and frequency - advise <2 daily, and no more than 4 in one occasion



All people > 15 yrs

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Weight ?

Every 2 years -- annual for DM, CVD, stroke, gout, liver, gallbladder disease, ATSI



Assess BMI, waist circumference (>18 yrs)



All ages

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Physical activity ?

2 yearly



Ask about frequency of moderate physical activity


- Advise 30 minutes moderate most days (at least >2.5 hrs /week)



All ages

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Depression?

Opportunistically



Ask - feelings of hopelessness, depression, loss of interest in activities


- always ask about suicide risk if you suspect depression



> 12 years

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Weight ?

Every 2 years -- annual for DM, CVD, stroke, gout, liver, gallbladder disease, ATSI



Assess BMI, waist circumference (>18 yrs)



All ages

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Physical activity ?

2 yearly



Ask about frequency of moderate physical activity


- Advise 30 minutes moderate most days (at least >2.5 hrs /week)



All ages

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Depression?

Opportunistically



Ask - feelings of hopelessness, depression, loss of interest in activities


- always ask about suicide risk if you suspect depression



> 12 years

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Chlamydia

Opportunistic- 12 monthly



Urine/swab PCR



Advise - process, results, treatment, contact tracing



15-29 yrs

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Skin cancer exam

Opportunistic - 3/12 for high risk



Skin exam +/- dermoscopy



> 30 yrs (earlier if high risk)



Advise - sun protection

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Skin cancer exam

Opportunistic - 3/12 for high risk



Skin exam +/- dermoscopy



> 30 yrs (earlier if high risk)



Advise - sun protection

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Colorectal cancer

2 yrs



FOBT



ALL - 50-75 yrs - earlier if high risk (10yrs prior to 1st degree relative if <55yrs)

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Skin cancer exam

Opportunistic - 3/12 for high risk



Skin exam +/- dermoscopy



> 30 yrs (earlier if high risk)



Advise - sun protection

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Colorectal cancer

2 yrs



FOBT



ALL - 50-75 yrs - earlier if high risk (10yrs prior to 1st degree relative if <55yrs)

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Absolute CVD risk?

2 yrly



Online calculator more often if treatment changed



> 45 yrs (>35 ATSI)

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



BP

Every 2 yrs (12 month if moderate risk, 6/12 if high risk)



Measure



> 18 yrs old



Advise lifestyle changes - consider pharmacotherapy

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Lipids

5 yrly (2 yrly moderate risk; 1yr if Hugh risk or chronic disease)



Fasting cholesterol, trigs, HDL



45-65 (ATSI >35)


Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Lipids

5 yrly (2 yrly moderate risk; 1yr if Hugh risk or chronic disease)



Fasting cholesterol, trigs, HDL



45-65 (ATSI >35)


Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



T2DM

3 yrly



Fasting BSL - consider OGTT if borderline



40-65+ - ATSI > 18



Advise - lifestyle and dietary changes

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Stroke risk

Annually with high absolute risk /AF/AMI/CKD



Ask - symptoms of TIA



> 45+

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Stroke risk

Annually with high absolute risk /AF/AMI/CKD



Ask - symptoms of TIA



> 45+

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Kidney disease?

1-2 yrs in high risk



BP, urine ACR, eGFR - if urine ACR HIGH - repeat 2x for albuminuria over 2 months



>30+



High risk = smokers>40, f.hx, HTN, obesity, DM, ATSI >30

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Stroke risk

Annually with high absolute risk /AF/AMI/CKD



Ask - symptoms of TIA



> 45+

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Kidney disease?

1-2 yrs in high risk



BP, urine ACR, eGFR - if urine ACR HIGH - repeat 2x for albuminuria over 2 months



>30+



High risk = smokers>40, f.hx, HTN, obesity, DM, ATSI >30

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Osteoporosis

Annual



Assess fracture risk factors, BMD



Women > 45+, men >50+



BMD - if indicated but not more than 2 yrly

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Falls risk

Annual



Ask - Falls risk factors and falls



All > 65 +



6/13 if high risk - consider OT home review if recent falls

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Falls risk

Annual



Ask - Falls risk factors and falls



All > 65 +



6/13 if high risk - consider OT home review if recent falls

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Hearing and vision

Annual



Snellen chart, visual fields, hearing test



All >65 yrs



Consider glaucoma assessment if high risk

Risk factors for glaucoma ?

high internal eye pressure


> 60


black or Hispanic


F.Hx


DM, heart disease, HTN + sickle cell


eye conditions- nearsightedness


eye injury or eye surgery


Early estrogen deficiency- before age 43


corticosteroid medications, especially eyedrops, for a long time

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Falls risk

Annual



Ask - Falls risk factors and falls



All > 65 +



6/13 if high risk - consider OT home review if recent falls

Screening as per RED BOOK - frequency, how, age?



Hearing and vision

Annual



Snellen chart, visual fields, hearing test



All >65 yrs



Consider glaucoma assessment if high risk

Risk factors for glaucoma ?

high internal eye pressure


> 60


black or Hispanic


F.Hx


DM, heart disease, HTN + sickle cell


eye conditions- nearsightedness


eye injury or eye surgery


Early estrogen deficiency- before age 43


corticosteroid medications, especially eyedrops, for a long time

Screening as per red book- age, frequency, how?



Breast cancer

Mammogram



2 yrly



50-74 (earlier if high risk)

Extra immunisations that ATSIs get?

12-18 months (high risk areas) = Pneumococcal 13vPCV


12-24 months (high risk areas) = Hep A




6/12 - 5 yrs = influenza (All)


>15 yrs = influenza (All)


>15 yrs = pneumococcal 23vPPV (medically at risk)




> 50 yrs Pneumococcal 23PPV

People who get government influenza?

ASTI 6 month-5 yrs


ATSI > 15 yrs all




Pregnant


> 65 yrs old




> 6 months with serious medical conditions at risk from complications of influenza

Outside the routine schedule - indications for pneumococcal?

At risk medical conditions




12 months - 13 conjugate (PCV)




4 yrs - 23 polysaccharide (PPV)




Oldies > 65 with booster at 5 yrs if medically at risk




ATSI


- High risk areas - 12-18 months 12vPCV


- > 15 medically at risk 23vPPV


- > 50 yrs 23vPPV

Age for shingles immunisations?

70 yrs




current catch up program until 2021