Global Express Cae Bbd 700 By Dooley

Front 1

What are the model designations for the Global Express

Back 1

BD-700-1A10 for Global Express and XRS
BD-700-1A11 for Global 5000
Both models referred to as the “BD-700”

Front 2

What is minimum flight crew required?

Back 2

One pilot and one co-pilot

Front 3

What is the Global Express XRS wingspan, length and tail height?

Back 3

94 feet wingspan
99 feet 5 inch length
Tail approximately 25 feet tall

Front 4

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180° turn with the Global XRS?

Back 4

68 feet

Front 5

What is maximum taxi /ramp weight?

Back 5

98,250 lbs.

99,750 lbs. with SB

Front 6

What is maximum takeoff weight?

Back 6

98,000 lbs.

99,500 lbs. with SB

Front 7

What is maximum landing weight?

Back 7

78,600 lbs.

Front 8

What is maximum ZFW?

Back 8

56,000 lbs.

Front 9

What is minimum flight weight?

Back 9

48,200 lbs.

Front 10

What is minimum operating weight empty?

Back 10

45,000 lbs.

Front 11

What are the Flaps “0” load limits?

Back 11

-1 to +2.5G

Front 12

What are the load limits with slats/flaps extended?

Back 12

0 to +2 G

Front 13

What is the C of G range?

Back 13

20 %MAC to 41 %MAC

Front 14

What is minimum / maximum runway slope?

Back 14

± 2%

Front 15

May operations from unprepared runways be conducted?

Back 15

No

Front 16

What is the normal circling approach configuration and category?

Back 16

Flaps 30 and VREF+10
CAT C minimums
At or above 141 knots, CAT D

Front 17

What is the prioritization of checklist?

Back 17

Memory Items
Emergency checklists (Reds)
Normal checklists (Normals)
Cautionary and Advisory information (Ambers)

Front 18

What are the buoyancy limitations for takeoff or landing near water above maximum landing weight?

Back 18

Outflow valve 2 closed, one air pack shut down
Operating Numbers Review

Front 19

MMO, FL 350, FL 414, FL 470,
and FL 510

Back 19

FL 350 – 0.89
FL 414 – 0.88
FL 470 – 0.858
FL 510 – 0.842

Front 20

VMO, above and below 8,000 feet

Back 20

> 8,000 feet – 340 KIAS
< 8,000 feet – 300 KIAS

Front 21

What is Turbulence Penetration speed?

Back 21

300 KIAS / .80M

Front 22

What is max operating altitude?

Back 22

FL 510

Front 23

What is max pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?

Back 23

10,000 ft. pressure altitude

Front 24

What is max / min ambient temperature for takeoff?

Back 24

+50° C / -40° C

Front 25

What is max tailwind component for engine start?

Back 25

20 knots

Front 26

What must be done if a tailwind start causes observed N1 rotation?

Back 26

Extended Dry Crank (EDC) for 30 secs followed by immediate auto start

Front 27

When winds exceed 20 knots, what is the required thrust for taxi?

Back 27

Minimum thrust

Front 28

What must be done if crosswind component exceeds 20 knots on takeoff?

Back 28

Do not exceed 66% N1 until 30 KIAS
Increase takeoff distance by:
1700 Feet – Flaps 6
1500 Feet – Flaps 16

Front 29

What is the maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing?

Back 29

10 knots

Front 30

What is the max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?

Back 30

29 knots
Note: Not considered limiting

Front 31

What is the max demonstrated wind components for CAT II operations?

Back 31

15 knot crosswind
15 knot headwind
11 knot tailwind (10 knot limiting)

Front 32

What is the max authorized altitude for use of slats/flaps?

Back 32

18,000 feet

Front 33

At what altitude must flight spoilers be retracted on approach?

Back 33

300 Feet AGL

Front 34

What are “slats in / flaps 0” recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds?

Back 34

200 KIAS
VREF +45

Front 35

What is maximum slats extended speed?

Back 35

225 KIAS

Front 36

What are “slats out / flaps 0” recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds?

Back 36

180 KIAS
VREF +20

Front 37

What is maximum flaps 6 speed?

Back 37

210 KIAS

Front 38

What are “slats out / flaps 6” recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds?

Back 38

160 KIAS
VREF +13

Front 39

What is maximum flaps 16 speed?

Back 39

210 KIAS

Front 40

What are “slats out / flaps 16” recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds?

Back 40

140 KIAS
VREF +6

Front 41

What is maximum flaps 30 speed?

Back 41

185 KIAS

Front 42

What are “slats out / flaps 30” recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds?

Back 42

VREF +10
VREF

Front 43

What is VLO?

Back 43

200 KIAS

Front 44

What is VLE?

Back 44

250 KIAS

Front 45

What is Tire Limiting Speed?

Back 45

183 KIAS

Front 46

What is VMCG?

Back 46

80 KIAS

Front 47

What is VMCA?

Back 47

86 KIAS

Front 48

What is the ground operation limit of the display units with the cockpit temperature in excess of 40°C?

Back 48

Operation for greater than 30 minutes is prohibited

Front 49

What is maximum altitude for flight with the yaw damper disengaged?

Back 49

41,000 feet

Front 50

What is the minimum autopilot engage height?

Back 50

400 feet AGL

Front 51

What is the minimum autopilot use height for a precision approach? Non-precision approach?

Back 51

Category I or II ILS - 50 AGL FAA
80 AGL JAA
Non-precision – 400 feet AGL

Front 52

What is the minimum autopilot use height for a non-precision approach with vertical path reference?

Back 52

160 AGL

Front 53

What is the operational limitation when using FLCH?

Back 53

Use of FLC mode with the speed bug above .85M is prohibited

Front 54

When must both stall protection pusher switches be “ON”?

Back 54

For duration of the flight

Front 55

What is the purpose of the master disconnect switch on the control wheel?

Back 55

Disconnect the autopilot
Silence a disconnect aural

Front 56

What is the purpose of the touch control steering switch (TCS)?

Back 56

Momentarily override the autopilot

Front 57

Does the indicator light on the guidance panel (GP) indicate that the associated mode is currently active?

Back 57

No, the pilot must confirm mode status or operation from the flight director annunciator on the PFD

Front 58

How are active / armed flight director and autothrottle modes indicated on the AFCS display?

Back 58

Active displayed in “green”
Armed displayed in “white”

Front 59

How does the pilot manually switch the flight guidance computer (FGC)?

Back 59

On the MFD control panel
MENU button, page 2
Press ENT

Front 60

How will the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral flight director mode is armed?

Back 60

Basic pitch (PIT) and roll (ROL) modes

Front 61

What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot?

Back 61

Pressing the AP pushbutton
Pressing either MASTER DISC pushbutton
Pressing either TOGA switch
Manual trim activation
Pressing the YD switch on the GP
Physical override of the AP servos (not recommended)

Front 62

What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot?

Back 62

Activation of windshear avoidance
Unusual attitude
Stall warning activation

Front 63

When is use of the FMS as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches prohibited?

Back 63

Prohibited past the FAF unless APP is annunciated on the PFD

Front 64

What is required for an automatic Nav-to-Nav transfer to occur?

Back 64

Lateral mode is LNAV
Aircraft has captured the LOC beam
Pilot has selected the APR button

Front 65

What course is set to capture and track a back course localizer?

Back 65

Front course

Front 66

What must be the active lateral navigation mode for VPTH to be operational?

Back 66

LNAV

Front 67

When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS?

Back 67

Within 75 nm flight plan distance or
30 nm direct distance of the airfield

Front 68

When does Dual Coupling of the AFCS occur?

Back 68

Below 1200 feet with
The PFDs displaying localizer data from different navigational sources

Front 69

What are the FD pitch commands for takeoff, SE takeoff and GA ?

Back 69

Takeoff - 17.5 degrees
SE takeoff – 13 degrees
GA – 10 degrees

Front 70

How is the autothrottle GA mode cleared?

Back 70

By selecting the AP on or
Selecting another vertical mode

Front 71

When is the automatic emergency descent mode (EDM) enabled?

Back 71

Aircraft altitude above 25,000 feet
Cabin altitude has exceeded 14,500 feet

Front 72

Once the EDM is activated, what will occur?

Back 72

FD will command a descent to 15,000 feet
FD will command a turn of 90 degrees left
Autothrottles will target airspeed of VMO-10 until 250 knots at 15,000 feet

Front 73

On the ground, what parameters are required to engage the autothrottles?

Back 73

Either engage switch selected
Aircraft speed less than 60 knots
Throttle levers are above 23° TLA

Front 74

When is the autothrottle takeoff HOLD control mode activated?

Back 74

On ground above 60 knots
In flight below 400 feet AGL

Front 75

When will the autothrottles transition to the RETARD mode?

Back 75

Aircraft in landing configuration
Radio altitude of 50 feet AGL
Navigation and Communication

Front 76

During a GPS approach what does the DGRAD annunciation on the FMS indicate?

Back 76

Unacceptable RAIM value is detected

Front 77

IRS system accuracy may be degraded above what latitudes preventing system engagement in the NAV mode?

Back 77

78 degrees

Front 78

How does the pilot remove accumulated IRS errors or drift since the last alignment?

Back 78

IRS mode selector from NAV to ALN and back to NAV

Front 79

How does the crew inhibit the terrain awareness alerting when landing at an airport not in the FMS database?

Back 79

Select the TERRAIN switch to “off”

Front 80

On FMS system power up, what information is displayed on the NAV IDENT page?

Back 80

Date and time (synchronized with GPS)
Software version
Database status

Front 81

What does selecting the EMER pushbutton with failure of the audio control panel accomplish?

Back 81

Microphone audio bypasses the audio control panel
Microphone connected directly to the onside VHF communication radio
Audio directly connected from the radio to the pilot’s headset

Front 82

How does the pilot enable the flight and maintenance interphones?

Back 82

Hot microphone (H’MIC) switch on the audio panel

Front 83

When does the radio management unit (RMU) carry out a unit and system self-test?

Back 83

System power up

Front 84

How does the pilot switch between the active (white) and preset (cyan) on the RMU?

Back 84

The transfer key or
The line select key adjacent to the preselect frequency in the simplex mode

Front 85

How does the pilot change kHz spacing (8.33 or 25) on the RMU?

Back 85

Select PGE key
Select SYS SELECT from menu

Front 86

How does the pilot select DME hold on the RMU?

Back 86

Selecting the DME key
An “H” will appear next DME
Electronic Displays (EDs)

Front 87

Which colors are used to depict normal, precautionary and system limits?

Back 87

Green – normal range
Amber – precautionary range
Red – limits exceeded

Front 88

Which colors are used to depict the flow lines?

Back 88

Black – no flow
Amber – below normal value
Green – normal value
Red – exceeding normal value

Front 89

What is the priority of the “Aural” Alerts?

Back 89

STALL
EGPWS
TCAS
All other voice messages

Front 90

What will occur when selecting the EFIS PFD reversion control to alternate?

Back 90

The MFD data is displaced by PFD data

Front 91

During normal operation, symbol generator (SG) 1 generates symbols for which display units (DUs)?

Back 91

DU 1 and DU 2

Front 92

How is a SG failure indicated?

Back 92

Red X across the corresponding displays

Front 93

Selection of the ADC reversion button for PFD 1 enables which ADC to feed PFD 1?

Back 93

ADC 3
Second selection - ADC 2

Front 94

Selection of the IRS reversion button for PFD 1 enables which IRS to feed PFD 1?

Back 94

IRS 3
Second selection - IRS 2

Front 95

What is the result of pushing the event button on the landing gear control panel?

Back 95

Flags a particular event in time within the flight data recorder (FDR) memory
Encodes the central aircraft information maintenance system (CAIMS)

Front 96

The airspeed trend vector represents the airspeed the airplane will attain in how many seconds?

Back 96

10 seconds

Front 97

The altitude trend vector represents the altitude the airplane will attain in how many seconds?

Back 97

6 seconds

Front 98

How does the pilot switch the altitude readout to metric?

Back 98

Using the MENU display on the MFD control panel

Front 99

What are the sources of airplane generated AC power?

Back 99

Four 40 kVA engine driven generators
One 40 kVA APU generator
Ram air turbine

Front 100

How many AC buses does the AC electrical system have?

Back 100

Eight total
Four primary buses - 1, 2, 3, 4
Four secondary buses - 1A, 2A, 3A, ESS

Front 101

What is the purpose of the AC power center (ACPC)?

Back 101

Protects, controls and distributes AC power to the main AC buses

Front 102

In the advent of single generator operation, which AC Buses are automatically shed?

Back 102

AC Buses 2 and 3
This results in AC buses 2A and 3A also being shed

Front 103

What does a EXT AC “AVAIL” light on the electrical panel indicate?

Back 103

External AC power is connected and is the correct phase, voltage and frequency

Front 104

What does a GEN “FAIL” light on the electrical panel indicate?

Back 104

Failed generating channel
or
Fire discharge handle is pulled

Front 105

What is the primary / alternate power priority for the ESS AC Bus?

Back 105

RAT Generator (if deployed)
Gen 4 via AC ESS Bus
Gen 1 via AC Bus 1A
Gen 2 via AC Bus 2A
Gen 3 via AC Bus 3A
APU Gen

Front 106

What are the 6 primary DC power sources?

Back 106

TRU 1, TRU 2, ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2
Avionics Battery
APU Battery

Front 107

What are the 4 main DC buses?

Back 107

DC Bus 1 and 2
DC ESS Bus
BATT Bus

Front 108

How long will the aircraft main batteries last as the sole source of power?

Back 108

Minimum of 15 minutes

Front 109

What is the primary / alternate power priority for the DC ESS bus?

Back 109

ESS TRU 1
ESS TRU 2
TRU 2
TRU 1

Front 110

Which DC Buses are automatically shed during single TRU operation?

Back 110

DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2

Front 111

What is the purpose of the DC POWER EMERGENCY OVERRIDE switch?

Back 111

During loss of all DC power
Allows ESS TRU 1 and 2 to bypass the DCPC and power the SPDA’s directly

Front 112

Can the pilot change a thermal circuit breaker from the CDU?

Back 112

No, the affected circuit breaker can only be manually reset at its location

Front 113

How many oxygen bottles does the crew oxygen system have?

Back 113

4

Front 114

What is the normal pressure charge at 21°C for the crew oxygen bottles?

Back 114

1850 psi

Front 115

At what bottle pressure will the oxygen vent overboard and blow-out the green disc?

Back 115

2600 psi

Front 116

At what pressure does the oxygen pressure regulator function?

Back 116

72.5 psi

Front 117

When do the passenger masks deploy?

Back 117

14,500 feet cabin altitude

Front 118

What is the crew alert when the oxygen system drops to or below 75%?

Back 118

Amber OXY LO QTY message

Front 119

The evacuation equipment consist of what 2 items?

Back 119

Crash axe
Cabin escape rope

Front 120

What type portable fire extinguisher is located in the cockpit?

Back 120

Halon 1211
Note: Effective in fighting A, B and C fires

Front 121

What must the flight crew wear if discharging a fire extinguisher in the cockpit?

Back 121

Oxygen masks with 100% oxygen selected

Front 122

Is the baggage door considered an emergency exit door?

Back 122

No

Front 123

When does the “SEAT BLTS” sign illuminate when selected to AUTO?

Back 123

Landing gear selected down
Flaps are not in the 0° position
Cabin altitude > 8000 feet

Front 124

When do the EMER LIGHTS illuminate when selected in ARM?

Back 124

No power to the DC essential bus

Front 125

What engines are installed on the Global Express?

Back 125

BR700-710A2-20

Front 126

What is max ITT for ground / air start?

Back 126

700° C (Gnd.)
850° C (Air)

Front 127

What are the engine idle limitations?

Back 127

Max ITT – 860° C
Min N2 - 58.0%

Front 128

What are the engine takeoff thrust limitations?

Back 128

Max ITT - 900° C
N2 – 99.6%
N1 – 102.0%
5 minutes 2 engines, 10 minutes SE

Front 129

What are the engine max continuous operating limitations?

Back 129

Max ITT - 860° C
N2 – 98.9%
N1 – 102.0%

Front 130

What is maximum reverse thrust?

Back 130

70% N1 (EEC controlled) for 30 seconds

Front 131

What is static ground operation limit?

Back 131

Steady operation between 66% to 80% prohibited

Front 132

Do not engage starter if RPM exceeds?

Back 132

N2 - 42%

Front 133

What are the start duty cycles?

Back 133

3 min. on, 15 sec. off
3 min. on, 15 sec. off
3 min. on, 15 min. off

Front 134

What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start?

Back 134

- 40° C
Must be dry cranked until - 30° C before starting

Front 135

What is the minimum oil temperature before bringing the engine above idle?

Back 135

+ 20° C

Front 136

What is Max. oil temperature?

Back 136

+ 160° C

Front 137

What is maximum oil consumption?

Back 137

.21 US quarts/hour

Front 138

When is oil replenishment prohibited?

Back 138

OAT at or below -12° C

Front 139

The autothrottle must be engaged and verified by what KIAS?

Back 139

60 KIAS

Front 140

Use of autothrottle when landing is restricted to what flap setting?

Back 140

Flaps 30° only
Name three thrust reverser limitations:
Must not be selected in flight.
Must not be used for touch and go's.
May not back up the airplane.

Front 141

Engine shutdown required for what minimum oil pressure?

Back 141

25 PSI

Front 142

How much thrust do the engines on the global express supply at SL?

Back 142

14,750 lbs @ SL ISA to +20° C

Front 143

Where is bleed air extracted from the engines?

Back 143

5th or 8th stage of compression

Front 144

Bleed air extraction is used for:

Back 144

Air conditioning
Pressurization
Cowl and wing anti-ice
Engine starts

Front 145

How is thrust management controlled throughout all phases of flight?

Back 145

Full authority engine control (FADEC)
An electronic engine controller (EEC) is a major component of the FADEC

Front 146

Describe the 2 main engine rotating assemblies

Back 146

Single-stage LP fan driven by a two-stage turbine
Ten-stage HP compressor driven by a two-stage turbine

Front 147

How is the engine protected from overspeed?

Back 147

By closing the fuel high pressure SOV when the EEC recognizes N1 or N2 overspeed value

Front 148

How is the FADEC normally powered during engine operation?

Back 148

Via the dedicated generator on the accessory gearbox

Front 149

How is interturbine temperature (ITT) measured?

Back 149

Seven dual element thermocouples located in the LP turbine entry area

Front 150

Where are the N1 and N2 RPM speed sensors located?

Back 150

N1 – near the LP compressor shaft
N2- front of the accessory gear box

Front 151

How is engine oil cooled?

Back 151

Fuel cooled oil cooler
Note: Also used to warm low temperature fuel prior to the FMU

Front 152

What is total engine oil quantity?

Back 152

12.8 US quarts max
Typically fill to 11.0 US quarts via oil replenishment system

Front 153

What is the capacity of the oil replenishment tank?

Back 153

6 quarts

Front 154

Selecting the ENG RUN switch to OFF closes which fuel shutoff valve?

Back 154

High-pressure shutoff valve within the fuel metering unit

Front 155

When is high idle commanded by the EEC?

Back 155

Airplane is in the approach configuration

Front 156

How is EPR calculated?

Back 156

Ratio of engine inlet total pressure (TAT probe) and
Engine exhaust total pressure

Front 157

When should “Rotorbow” dry cranking be expected during automatic starts?

Back 157

Between 20 minutes and 5 hours of previous engine shutdown

Front 158

What are the two auto start – air envelopes and associated airspeeds?

Back 158

ATS ENVELOPE (≤ 249 knots)
WINDWMILL ENVELOPE (≥ 250 knots)

Front 159

When will the automatic ground engine start abort?

Back 159

ENG RUN switch to OFF
N2 speed not ≥ 15% (120 sec)
Idle speed not achieved (120 sec)
Starter cutout not reached within starter duty timer (3 min)
ITT exceeding start limit (700° C)

Front 160

How are the thrust reversers controlled and actuated?

Back 160

Controlled by the EEC
Actuated by the respective engine hydraulic system 1A or 2A

Front 161

What will occur if a thrust reverser becomes unlocked?

Back 161

EICAS message
Aural warning
Thrust retarded to idle (regardless of thrust lever position)
Red REV icon if the door is open

Front 162

What are the ground external air pressure requirements for start?

Back 162

40 psi desired

Front 163

For airplane operations in excess of 3 hours, the oil system must be verified?

Back 163

Full before flight
Greater than 10.62 US quarts

Front 164

When must oil replenishment be conducted?

Back 164

From 5 to 30 minutes after shutdown
15 minutes after shutdown (APU)

Front 165

How long should the engine stabilize in idle before selecting the ENG RUN switch OFF on the shutdown checklist?

Back 165

3 minutes

Front 166

What is the max engine relight altitude?

Back 166

30,000 feet

Front 167

What is the APU type?

Back 167

RE 220

Front 168

What is the maximum APU RPM?

Back 168

106 %

Front 169

What is the maximum altitude for APU operations?

Back 169

45,000 feet

Front 170

Minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU?

Back 170

-40° C

Front 171

How many start attempts are permitted on the APU?

Back 171

3 per hour

Front 172

What is the maximum starting altitude for the APU?

Back 172

37,000 feet

Front 173

What is the maximum altitude for bleed air extraction from the APU?

Back 173

30,000 feet

Front 174

What is the maximum OAT for bleed air extraction from the APU for air conditioning operations?

Back 174

> 45° C

Front 175

What is the max. load rating for the APU?

Back 175

40 KVA

Front 176

What is the associated limit if the APU is powering an AC Bus above 37,000 Feet?

Back 176

The associated Hydraulic pump (1B, 2B, 3B, 3A) must be selected “OFF”

Front 177

How is the APU controlled by the FADEC to ensure priority for electrical loads?

Back 177

Cycling the Load Control Valve (LPV)

Front 178

When does the APU door position appear on the STAT page?

Back 178

In conjunction with an APU DOOR FAIL caution message

Front 179

When is it recommended to top up the APU oil reservoir?

Back 179

STAT page indication shows less than
4.5 quarts

Front 180

What will occur if the APU run switch is selected to the “run” position prior to the 60 second cooldown period?

Back 180

The APU returns to 100% and continues normal operation

Front 181

When is manual operation of the APU LCV not possible?

Back 181

Anti-ice is active
Lt Eng pressure regulating valve is manually opened
Rt Eng pressure regulating valve and crossbleed valve are manually opened

Front 182

How is the APU controlled by the FADEC to ensure priority for electrical loads?

Back 182

Cycling the Load Control Valve (LPV)

Front 183

How is emergency shutdown of the APU accomplished?

Back 183

BATT MASTER switch selected OFF with no AC power on
APU fire DISCH handle pulled
APU SHUTOFF button (services panel)
APU compartment SHUTDOWN button

Front 184

When does the APU automatically shutdown in flight only?

Back 184

FADEC failure or DC power loss
Inlet door uncommanded position
Loss of Overspeed protection
Overspeed 106%
EGT Overtemperature
Loss of speed signals
Slow start, no crank, no acceleration

Front 185

Where are the engine fire detection sensing elements located?

Back 185

Accessory gear box
Engine core
Fixed cowl

Front 186

What extinguishing agent is used in the fire bottles?

Back 186

Halon

Front 187

What five events occur when the ENG FIRE DISCH handle is pulled?

Back 187

Fuel SOV closes
Hydraulic SOV closes
Bleed air SOV closes
AC VFGs taken off line
Fire bottles armed

Front 188

What happens when the APU DISCH is pulled?

Back 188

Fuel SOV closes
Ignition shut off
Pneumatics shut off
APU electrics isolated
Fire bottles arm

Front 189

Does pulling the fire DISCH command an immediate engine shutdown?

Back 189

No
Note: Immediate shutdown is via the ENGINE RUN switch

Front 190

If an APU fire is detected on the ground, what will the FADEC command after 5 sec?

Back 190

Automatic shutdown of the APU

Front 191

Where are the smoke detectors installed on “green” configuration aircraft?

Back 191

Forward avionics bay
Aft avionics bay
Baggage compartment
Avionics rack (5000 only)

Front 192

How is fire suppression for the baggage compartment, lavatories and cabin closets provided?

Back 192

Portable fire extinguishers
Flight Controls

Front 193

How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated?

Back 193

Mechanically controlled
Hydraulically actuated

Front 194

Which hydraulic systems power the aileron PCUs?

Back 194

Left aileron – systems 1 and 3
Right aileron – systems 2 and 3

Front 195

How are the aileron control circuits separated in response to a jammed control system?

Back 195

Via a roll disconnect mechanism in the torque tube

Front 196

If the aileron/rudder/stabilizer trim is outside the allowable range during throttle advancement for takeoff, what will occur?

Back 196

CONFIG AIL / RUD / STAB TRIM red warning message
NO TAKEOFF voice message

Front 197

When is initial yaw damper engagement controlled by the flight guidance computer?

Back 197

First engine start

Front 198

Which hydraulic systems power the rudder PCUs?

Back 198

Hydraulic systems 1, 2 and 3

Front 199

Which hydraulic systems power the elevator PCUs?

Back 199

Left elevator – systems 1 and 3
Right elevator – systems 2 and 3

Front 200

Which 3 trim modes activate the horizontal stabilizer and their priority?

Back 200

Manual trim (pilot then copilot)
Auto trim (autopilot 1 or 2)
Mach trim (autopilot off)

Front 201

What functions does the Master Disconnect Switch on the yoke provide?

Back 201

AFCS disconnect – momentarily selected
Pitch trim disconnect – held
Stall pusher - held

Front 202

When will the stabilizer in motion aural clacker sound?

Back 202

Stabilizer runaway
Stabilizer trim switch is held for an extended period

Front 203

How is operation of the slats and flaps controlled?

Back 203

By two independent slat/flap control units (SFCUs)

Front 204

What is the purpose of the “Flap Override Switch”?

Back 204

Used to cancel the flap aural warning if the flaps cannot be configured for an OUT/30 landing

Front 205

How many spoiler panels are located on each wing?

Back 205

4 multifunctional spoilers (MFS)
and
2 ground spoilers (GS)

Front 206

With flaps extended, which MFS are available?

Back 206

Only the two inboard pairs of MFS
MAX selection on the FSCL has no effect

Front 207

The MFS are used for what purpose?

Back 207

Roll assist
Proportional lift dumping
Ground lift dumping
Combination roll assist and proportional lift dumping

Front 208

How is symmetrical lift dumping ensured when an MFS panel failure is detected?

Back 208

The opposite panel is automatically disabled

Front 209

Ground spoilers when “armed” will deploy on landing with?

Back 209

Engine throttles at idle or below and two of the following three conditions:
RA below 7 feet
One main landing gear WOW
One wheel speed greater than 16 knots

Front 210

How may pilot stop the stick pusher?

Back 210

Pressing and holding the autopilot/stick pusher disconnect (AP/SP DISC) button
N/A for JAA certified aircraft

Front 211

What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance for on ground and during takeoff and landing?

Back 211

1100 lbs < 19,450 fuel tank load
600 lbs > 20,250 fuel tank load

Front 212

What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance during flight?

Back 212

1100 lbs

Front 213

What is the maximum useable fuel load for the XRS fuel tanks (pressure refueling)?

Back 213

Wing – 15,050 lbs per tank
Center – 11,150 lbs (12,700 lbs XRS)
Aft Aux – 2,300 lbs
Total load – 43,550 lbs

Front 214

Fuel in the center tank must be considered unusable unless?

Back 214

Each wing is full at departure and
Planned cruise altitude is greater than 30000 ft.

Front 215

Fuel in the aft tank must be considered unusable unless?

Back 215

Each wing contains at least 5500 lbs. fuel at departure and
The planned cruise altitude is greater than 30000 ft.

Front 216

If use of the centre / aft tank is planned, what is the minimum tank fuel load?

Back 216

500 lbs to ensure xfer pump reprime

Front 217

What is minimum G/A fuel?

Back 217

600 lbs. per wing
Note: Level flight and Maximum 10° nose up

Front 218

What are the limitations when using wide cut or CIS fuels?

Back 218

Operation limited to 13,000 feet until the bulk fuel temperature is below 15° C

Front 219

What are the 2 limitations associated with the FRTT (fuel recirculation ) ?

Back 219

FRTT is prohibited when using wide cut fuels
Asymmetric operation is prohibited

Front 220

What is the minimum engine fuel temperature indication for takeoff?

Back 220

+5° C

Front 221

When must the Fuel Crossfeed
be selected “OFF”?

Back 221

Takeoff and Landing

Front 222

Which fuel tanks cannot be gravity refueled?

Back 222

Forward (XRS) or aft aux tanks

Front 223

How is positive fuel tank pressure maintained during flight?

Back 223

Ram air via NACA scoops
Note: On ground, NACA scoops provide tank ventilation

Front 224

Do not test operation of the pressure relief valves when?

Back 224

Wing tank above 11,800 lbs
Center tank above 8,000 lbs

Front 225

What does the FMS “COMPARE FUEL QUANT” message indicate?

Back 225

2% or greater difference between FMQGC and FMS fuel quantity reading
Note: 2% of the BOW equals 1020 lbs

Front 226

When does FRTT (fuel return to tank) automatically operate?

Back 226

Above 34,000 feet and
Single fuel temp sensor below -20° C
or
Average of all temp sensors below -9° C

Front 227

When do the AC wing boost pumps operate?

Back 227

ENG RUN switches to “on”
Crossfeed Shutoff Valve selected “Open” during single engine operation

Front 228

Where is the fuel SOV located and how is the valve closed?

Back 228

Located behind the aft pressure bulkhead
Closed via the associated fire discharge handle

Front 229

When does fuel transfer from the center tank to the wing tank start?

Back 229

Wing tank quantity below 93%
Continues until wing reaches full (3% of volume)

Front 230

When does fuel transfer from the aux tank start?

Back 230

Wing tank falls to 5,500 lbs

Front 231

When does the wing DC aux fuel pump operate automatically?

Back 231

One or both AC pumps low pressure
Flap position > 0
In flight with landing gear down & locked
Low fuel condition < 600 lbs wing
Wing transfer - 400 lb or greater wing imbalance

Front 232

When will the AC boost pumps operate regardless of the ENG RUN switch position?

Back 232

XFEED SOV to open
Note: This ensures balanced fuel during SE operation

Front 233

Which wing tank normally provides fuel for the APU?

Back 233

Right wing tank

Front 234

Which fuel pumps operate autonomously (no pilot control)?

Back 234

Center tank transfer pumps

Front 235

How is fuel moved from the forward aux fuel tank to the center tank (XRS)?

Back 235

Transfer ejector receiving “motive flow”
and / or
Via gravity flow at a slower rate

Front 236

When is wing transfer automatically initiated?

Back 236

Lateral fuel imbalance of 400 lbs or more

Front 237

When is wing transfer inhibited?

Back 237

Flap position > 0
In flight with landing gear down & locked
Low fuel condition < 600 lbs wing
DC aux pump is supplying fuel feed to an engine

Front 238

Why must the crew monitor “manual” operation of the wing to wing transfer system?

Back 238

No automatic shutdown of the manual system or overfill protection

Front 239

Where is power for the Refuel/Defuel panel taken?

Back 239

APU battery direct bus

Front 240

During the refuel SOV test, what does display of the “SOV FAIL” message indicate?

Back 240

Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full

Front 241

What is the priority for ACMP pumps?

Back 241

3A – 3B – 2B – 1B

Front 242

When the ACMP switch is set to AUTO, when will the pump start?

Back 242

Either slats or flaps not IN/0° position
System low pressure detected

Front 243

How long will the “B” pumps operate once activate?

Back 243

Minimum of 5 minutes

Front 244

What is normal hydraulic system 2 accumulator pressure?

Back 244

500 psi

Front 245

How are the EDP HYD SOVs closed?

Back 245

Selecting the HYD SOV switch “closed”
Pulling the fire DISCH handle

Front 246

What are the electrically driven pumps and associated AC buses?

Back 246

1B – AC Bus 3
2B – AC Bus 2
3B – AC Bus 1
3A – AC Bus 4

Front 247

What hydraulic system is powered by the RAT?

Back 247

System 3

Front 248

What is normal hydraulic system 3 RAT accumulator pressure?

Back 248

1000 PSI

Front 249

What is normal hydraulic system 3 brake accumulator pressure?

Back 249

500 psi

Front 250

How is hydraulic case drain fluid cooled prior to returning to the applicable reservoir?

Back 250

Heat exchangers in the left and right wing fuel tanks.
Left wing – systems 1 and 3
Right wing – system 2

Front 251

What hydraulic pumps are available / operating during single generator operations (flight)?

Back 251

Engine Pumps 1A and 2A
AC Pumps 3A and 3B

Front 252

What is the pack discharge temperature range for manual mode operation?

Back 252

+5° C to + 60° C
One pack must be selected “off”

Front 253

What is Normal and Maximum Cabin differential pressure?

Back 253

Normal – 10.33 PSID
Maximum – 10.73 PSID
“Delta P” message – 10.85 PSID

Front 254

What is the maximum negative relief differential pressure?

Back 254

-0.5 PSID

Front 255

On taxi and takeoff the cabin PSID should not exceed this value?

Back 255

0.1 PSI

Front 256

On landing the cabin PSID should not exceed this value?

Back 256

1.0 PSID

Front 257

AUX PRESS is prohibited above what altitude?

Back 257

41,000 Feet

Front 258

The Bleed Management Controllers (BMCs) extract bleed air from which engine ports?

Back 258

5th stage low-pressure port
8th stage high-pressure port

Front 259

During ground operation, what is the priority bleed source for engine starting?

Back 259

APU bleed air

Front 260

How are hot air (bleed) leaks monitored in the airplane?

Back 260

Dual loop detection sensing elements connected to the BMCs

Front 261

What occurs when the BMC detects a bleed air leak?

Back 261

The BMC isolates the affected manifold by closing the appropriate valves

Front 262

How is air flow regulated from the pneumatic duct to the air conditioning units?

Back 262

By modulation of the flow control valve (FCV) by the air conditioning system controllers (ACSC)

Front 263

Can one engine supply two AC packs simultaneously?

Back 263

No, the BMC prevents two packs from being supplied by one engine
In the case of single pack operation, the high flow schedule is automatically selected by the BMC

Front 264

What are the two functions of the air conditioning units?

Back 264

Decrease the air temperature and
Decrease the water contained in the hot bleed air

Front 265

When are the packs automatically shut off (FCV closed)?

Back 265

Bleed failure, shutdown or engine starting
Ditching operation (below 15,000 feet)
Pack inlet overheat
Compressor discharge overheat
Pack discharge overheat or under pressure

Front 266

Turning the TRIM AIR switch to the ON position opens which valves?

Back 266

Hot air shutoff valves (HASOV)

Front 267

What are the two functions of the RAM AIR system?

Back 267

Provide cooling for the heat exchangers of the cooling packs
Alternate source of fresh air at an altitude of 15,000 feet or less

Front 268

What are the requirements for using AUX Press?

Back 268

Both cooling packs inoperative
Recirculation system maintained “ON”
Prohibited above 41,000 feet

Front 269

What are the typical cabin altitudes for 51,000 and 45,000 feet aircraft altitude?

Back 269

51,000 feet – 5,670 feet
45,000 feet – 4,500 feet

Front 270

What are the two modes of operation with the cabin pressure control system in AUTO?

Back 270

PRIMARY mode (predictive) uses
FMS programmed
Autopilot and VNAV engaged
SECONDARY mode (reactive) uses
Pressure altitude
Vertical speed

Front 271

What are the warning messages and associated cabin altitudes for loss of pressurization?

Back 271

CAB ALT – 8200 Feet
CAB ALT Warning – 9000 Feet
Or 1000 / 1800 Feet above landing alt if landing above 7230 MSL

Front 272

When selecting MAN pressurization, what is displayed on the STAT page

Back 272

Both outflow valve position indicators
Cabin rate analog gauge

Front 273

What is required to display the LDG ELEV in magenta on the STAT page?

Back 273

LDG ELEV FMS/MAN selector set to FMS
Landing destination programmed in the FMS
Flight plan activated

Front 274

What are the two cabin rate selections available in automatic and associated rates?

Back 274

Normal mode – 500 ft/min climb and 300 ft/min descent rate
High mode- 800 ft/min climb and 800 ft/min descent rate

Front 275

What occurs when EMER DEPRESS switch is selected ON?

Back 275

Both out flow valves (OFVs) are commanded open
Cabin altitude limited to 14,500 feet

Front 276

What does the selecting the Ditching switch to “ON” provide?

Back 276

PACKS flow is shut off
Cabin is depressurized
OFVs are driven to the closed position
Sequence is inhibited above 15,000 feet

Front 277

What is the purpose of the safety valves (SFV 1 and 2) located in the aft bulkhead?

Back 277

Ensures overpressure and negative pressure relief
Provides an OPEN position signal to the EICAS

Front 278

When is cowl anti-ice, required? Prohibited?

Back 278

OAT +10 C and visible moisture or contaminated taxiways / runways
AUTO prohibited for Takeoff

Front 279

When is wing anti-ice required? Prohibited?

Back 279

OAT +5 C and visible moisture or contaminated taxiways / runways
AUTO prohibited for takeoff
Type II or IV, anti-ice prohibited ON until just prior to thrust increase for takeoff

Front 280

What are the conditions for in-flight icing operations?

Back 280

Visible moisture and temperature between TAT +10 and SAT -40 C

Front 281

What is the operating limitation while holding in icing conditions?

Back 281

Do not hold with slats extended

Front 282

What is the minimum engine speed while in icing conditions?

Back 282

76% N2

Front 283

Fully automatic ice and rain protection is provided for which systems?

Back 283

Wing leading edges
Engine cowls
Windshields
Side windows
Air data probes and sensors

Front 284

Due to the sensitivity of the ice detector probes, the ice detection is ineffective below what airspeed?

Back 284

30 knots IAS

Front 285

When wing anti-ice is selected, how long may it take before the leading edges display green?

Back 285

Approximately 2 minutes

Front 286

What is the purpose of the wing cross bleed valve (CBW)?

Back 286

Allows both wing anti-ice systems to be fed from a single engine

Front 287

Which engine bleed is used for cowl
anti-ice?

Back 287

Low pressure bleed air only

Front 288

In the event of electrical failure, the cowl anti-ice valve (CAIV) defaults to what position?

Back 288

Fully open

Front 289

Why is it recommended to remove all pitot and AOA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting external power?

Back 289

All heaters are tested ON when AC power is applied to the aircraft

Front 290

Which pumps supply normal hydraulic power to the Hydraulic system?

Back 290

The three “A” pumps which operate continuously

Front 291

Which hydraulic systems are powered by engine driven pumps?

Back 291

Systems 1 and 2
Pumps 1A and 2A

Front 292

What is normal hydraulic operating pressure?

Back 292

3000 psi

Front 293

What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the Global Express?

Back 293

SKYDROL LD-4 & HYJET IV-A

Front 294

What is the priority for ACMP pumps?

Back 294

3A – 3B – 2B – 1B

Front 295

When the ACMP switch is set to AUTO, when will the pump start?

Back 295

Either slats or flaps not IN/0° position
System low pressure detected

Front 296

How long will the “B” pumps operate once activate?

Back 296

Minimum of 5 minutes

Front 297

What is normal hydraulic system 2 accumulator pressure?

Back 297

500 psi

Front 298

How are the EDP HYD SOVs closed?

Back 298

Selecting the HYD SOV switch “closed”
Pulling the fire DISCH handle

Front 299

What are the electrically driven pumps and associated AC buses?

Back 299

1B – AC Bus 3
2B – AC Bus 2
3B – AC Bus 1
3A – AC Bus 4

Front 300

What hydraulic system is powered by the RAT?

Back 300

System 3

Front 301

What is normal hydraulic system 3 RAT accumulator pressure?

Back 301

1000 PSI

Front 302

What is normal hydraulic system 3 brake accumulator pressure?

Back 302

500 psi

Front 303

How is hydraulic case drain fluid cooled prior to returning to the applicable reservoir?

Back 303

Heat exchangers in the left and right wing fuel tanks.
Left wing – systems 1 and 3
Right wing – system 2

Front 304

What hydraulic pumps are available / operating during single generator operations (flight)?

Back 304

Engine Pumps 1A and 2A
AC Pumps 3A and 3B
Landing Gear and Brakes

Front 305

What type of brakes are used on the Global Express?

Back 305

Carbon Disc brakes

Front 306

How are the main wheel brakes powered and actuated?

Back 306

Hydraulically powered
Electrically actuated via brake by wire system

Front 307

How is weight on wheels (WOW) sensing accomplished?

Back 307

Via two proximity sensors on each gear assembly

Front 308

How is normal extension and retraction of the landing gear controlled?

Back 308

Electrically controlled by the landing gear electronic control unit (LGECU)

Front 309

Which hydraulic systems operate the landing gear?

Back 309

Hydraulic systems 2 and 3

Front 310

How are the main gear inboard doors operated?

Back 310

Hydraulically by system 3

Front 311

How is excessive air pressure due to heat buildup in the main wheel/tire assembly released?

Back 311

Four heat sensitive fuseplugs

Front 312

How is main landing gear overheat detected in the gear bays?

Back 312

Single-loop heat sensing elements

Front 313

How are the nose gear and forward doors normally actuated?

Back 313

Hydraulically by system 3

Front 314

When is the “Too Low Gear” warning sounded?

Back 314

Any landing gear is not down and locked, and
Radio altimeter less than 500 feet AGL

Front 315

What is the maximum operating speed for extending / retracting the landing gear?

Back 315

200 KIAS

Front 316

What is maximum airspeed with the landing gear extended?

Back 316

250 KIAS / .7 M

Front 317

What is the maximum operating altitude with the landing gear extended?

Back 317

20,000 feet

Front 318

After “manual” landing gear extension, which gear doors caution messages are displayed?

Back 318

L-R MAIN GEAR DOOR
NOSE DOOR

Front 319

What will be the NWS operation mode after “manual” gear extension.

Back 319

Free caster mode

Front 320

How is the NWS system controlled and actuated?

Back 320

Electrically controlled
Hydraulically actuated (system 3)

Front 321

What are the NWS limits for the Tiller and Rudder?

Back 321

Tiller +/- 75 degrees
Rudder +/- 7.5 degrees
Note: NWS inputs are summed

Front 322

What is recommended for all towing operations?

Back 322

Disconnect the NWS torque link

Front 323

How are the brake wear indictor pins normally checked?

Back 323

Parking brake applied
Hydraulic system 3 pressurized

Front 324

Which hydraulic systems operate the brake system?

Back 324

Hydraulic system 2 (outboard brakes)
Hydraulic system 3 (inboard brakes)

Front 325

How is the PARK/EMER BRAKE actuated?

Back 325

Mechanical linkages transfer manual inputs to the parking brake valve

Front 326

Under what conditions will the autobrake apply?

Back 326

Autobrake either LOW, MED, or HI
Both MLG indicate weight off weels (AIR)
Ground spoilers are commanded to deploy

Front 327

How is the BRAKE OVHT warning message cancelled?

Back 327

By momentarily pressing the BTMS OVHT WARNING RESET
Note: Provided the overheat condition no longer exists