Gi Pollock Drugs

Front 1

Buclizine

Back 1

Bucladin-S

Hint 1

antihistamine

Front 2

Cyclizine

Back 2

Marezine

Hint 2

antihistamine

Front 3

Dimenhydrinate

Back 3

Dramamine

Hint 3

antihistamine

Front 4

Diphenydramine

Back 4

Benadryl

Hint 4

antihistamine

Front 5

Meclizine
(3 brand names)

Back 5

Anitvert
Bonine
Dramamine (less drowsy formula)

Hint 5

antihistamine

Front 6

Promethazine

Back 6

Phenergan

Hint 6

antihistamine

Front 7

Scopolamine

Back 7

Transderm Scop

Hint 7

Anticholinergic agents

Front 8

Chlorpromazine

Back 8

Thorazine

Hint 8

Dopamine Receptor Antagonist

Front 9

Haloperidol

Back 9

Haldol

Hint 9

Dopamine Receptor Antagonist
(prokinetic agent)

Front 10

Metoclopramide

Back 10

Reglan

Hint 10

Dopamine Receptor Antagonist (stomach and CTZ)
5HT-4 agonist
Maybe muscarnic rcpt agonist

(prokinetic and anti-emetic - in ctz)

Front 11

Proclorperazine

Back 11

Compazine

Hint 11

Dopamine Receptor Antagonist

Front 12

Dolasetron

Back 12

Anzemet

Hint 12

SE-3 receptor antagonist

Front 13

Granisetron

Back 13

Kytril

Hint 13

SE-3 receptor antagonist

Front 14

Ondansetron

Back 14

Zofran

Hint 14

SE-3 receptor antagonist

Front 15

Aprepitant

Back 15

Emend

Hint 15

SubP Receptor antagonist

Front 16

Dexamthasone

Back 16

decadron

Hint 16

steroid
(other n/v agent)

Front 17

Dronabinol

Back 17

Marinol

Hint 17

for CINV (when others havent worked)
activates CB1
Dec Ach --> dec motility and N/V

Front 18

Trimethobenzamide

Back 18

Tigan

Hint 18

other n/v agent

Front 19

Phosphorated carbohydrate solution

Back 19

emetrol

Hint 19

other n/v agent

Front 20

Lactobacillus

Back 20

Lactinex

Hint 20

good bacteria (diarrhea)

Front 21

Lubiprostone

Back 21

Amitiza

Hint 21

activates Cl channel (inc water for constipation)

Front 22

Cimetidine

Back 22

Tagamet

Hint 22

H2 receptor antagonist

Front 23

Famotidine

Back 23

pepcid

Hint 23

H2 receptor antagonist

Front 24

Nizatidine

Back 24

Axid

Hint 24

H2 receptor antagonist

Front 25

Ranitidine

Back 25

Zantac

Hint 25

H2 receptor antagonist

Front 26

Dexlansoprazole

Back 26

Dexilant

Hint 26

PPI

Front 27

Esomeprazole

Back 27

Nexium

Hint 27

PPI

Front 28

Lansoprazole

Back 28

Prevacid

Hint 28

PPI

Front 29

Omeprazole

Back 29

Prilosec

Hint 29

PPI

Front 30

Pantoprazole

Back 30

Protonix

Hint 30

PPI

Front 31

Rabeprazole

Back 31

Aciphex

Hint 31

PPI

Front 32

Omeprazole/ Sodium Bicarb

Back 32

Zegerid

Hint 32

PPI

Front 33

Sucralfate

Back 33

Carafate

Hint 33

Cytoprotective agent

Front 34

What two indications is there for Reglan

Back 34

N/V
IBS

Front 35

Dicyclomine

Back 35

Bentyl

Hint 35

Anticholinergic/Antispasmodic agents
(IBS)

Front 36

Hyoscyamine

Back 36

Cytospaz
IB-Stat
Levbid
Levsin
Levsinex
NuLev

Hint 36

Anticholinergic/antispasmodic agent
(IBS)

Front 37

Chlordiazopoxide + Clidinium

Back 37

Librax

Hint 37

Anticholinergic/antispasmodic agent
(IBS)

Front 38

Alosetron

Back 38

Lotronex

Hint 38

5-Hydroxytriptamine antagonists and agonists

Front 39

Tegaserod

Back 39

Zelnorm

Hint 39

5-Hydroxytriptamine antagonists and agonists
(d/c)

Front 40

Name 5 drug classes for PUD?
(H,P,P,M,C)

Back 40

H2 receptor antagonist
PPI
Prostaglandin analogs
Misoprostol - cytotec
Cytoprotective agents

Front 41

Sulfasalazine

Back 41

Azulfidine

Hint 41

5-Aminosalicylates
(UC, CD)

Front 42

Mesalamine
(6 brands: AALCPR)

Back 42

Apriso
Asacol
Lialda
Canasa
Pentasa
Rowasa

Hint 42

5-Aminosalicylates
(UC, CD)

Front 43

Olsalazine

Back 43

Dipentum

Hint 43

5-Aminosalicylates
(UC, CD)

Front 44

Balsalazide

Back 44

Colazal

Hint 44

5-Aminosalicylates
(UC, CD)

Front 45

Cyclosporine

Back 45

Sandimmune

Hint 45

Immunosuppresive agents

Front 46

Azathioprine

Back 46

Imuran

Hint 46

Immunosuppresive agents

Front 47

6-Mercaptopurine

Back 47

Purinethol

Hint 47

Immunosuppresive agents

Front 48

Methotrexate

Back 48

Rheumatrex

Hint 48

Immunosuppresive agents

Front 49

Infliximab

Back 49

Remicade

Hint 49

Biological response modifiers

Front 50

Adalimumab

Back 50

Humira

Hint 50

Biological response modifiers

Front 51

Certolizumab

Back 51

Cimzia

Hint 51

Biological response modifiers

Front 52

Budesonide

Back 52

Entocort EC

Hint 52

glucocorticoids

Front 53

Octreotide

Back 53

Sandostatin

Hint 53

Liver disease
decreases portal pressure

Front 54

Tacrolimus

Back 54

Prograf

Hint 54

Calcineurin Inhibitors
Immunosuppressants

Front 55

Cyclosporine, modified (2)

Back 55

Gengraf
Neoral

Hint 55

Calcineurin Inhibitors
Immunosuppressants

Front 56

Cyclosporine, non-modified

Back 56

Sandimmune

Hint 56

Calcineurin Inhibitors
Immunosuppressants

Front 57

Mycophenolate mofetil

Back 57

CellCept

Hint 57

Anti-metabolites
Immunosuppressants

Front 58

Mycophenolate sodium

Back 58

Myfortic

Hint 58

Anti-metabolites
Immunosuppressants

Front 59

Azathioprine

Back 59

Imuran

Hint 59

Anti-metabolites
Immunosuppressants

Front 60

Prednisone

Back 60

Deltasone

Hint 60

Corticosteroids

Front 61

Methylprednisolone

Back 61

SoluMedrol

Hint 61

Corticosteroids

Front 62

Sirolimus

Back 62

Rapamune

Hint 62

mTOR inhibs

Front 63

Everolimus

Back 63

Zortress

Hint 63

mTOR inhibs

Front 64

Basiliximab

Back 64

Simulect

Hint 64

IL-2 Receptor antagonist

Front 65

Anti-thymocyte globulin (2)

Back 65

Thymoglobulin
Atgam

Hint 65

Polyclonal AB's
immunosuppressent

Front 66

Alemtuzumab

Back 66

Campath

Hint 66

Monoclonal AB's

Front 67

Ritximab

Back 67

Rituxan

Hint 67

AB to CD20 on bcells

Front 68

Belatacept

Back 68

Nulojix

Hint 68

CTLA4 (binds B7)
like orcencia

Front 69

Brotezomib

Back 69

Velcade

Hint 69

Proteosomal inhib

Front 70

Benadry and Dramamine are in what first generation AH class?

Back 70

Ethanolamine

Front 71

Chlorphentramine, Dimetane, and Actidil are in what first generation AH class?

Back 71

Alkylamine

Front 72

Cyclizine, Meclizine, and Hydroxysine are in what first generation AH class?

Back 72

Piperazine

Front 73

Periactin is in what first generation AH class?

Back 73

Piperdine
(what's the generic name?)

Hint 73

Cyproheptadine

Front 74

Phenergan is in what first generation AH class?

Back 74

Phenothiazine

Front 75

Alkylamines affect which 2 receptors the most?

Back 75

AHA and Anticholinergic
(very little SED and no anti-emetic)

Front 76

Piperazines affect which 2 receptors the most?

Back 76

SED and anti-emetic
(which one the least?)

Hint 76

AHA

Front 77

Is periactin good for anti-emetic properties?

Back 77

NO
(most AHA and anticholinergic)

Front 78

Semprex

Back 78

Acrivastine

Hint 78

2nd gen AH

Front 79

Seldane

Back 79

Terfenadine

Hint 79

2nd gen AH
(d/c)

Front 80

Second generation AH's are mostly effective at what? Do they build up in CNS?

Back 80

antihistamine properties

Hint 80

they get in but CANNOT build up (get pumped right back out)

Front 81

Which 2 receptors are involved in preventing motion sickness and N/V?

Back 81

central H-1
M-1
(bc they're both in CTZ, vestibular app, and nucleus tractus solitarius)

Front 82

Dramamine has weaker ___ and ___ effects.

Back 82

AHA
Anticholinergic

Front 83

Chlor-Trimeton is good for ___ and ____. Why?

Back 83

allergies
Anticholinergic

Hint 83

alkylamine 1st gen

Front 84

Dramamine less drowsy formula is in what first generation AH class?

Back 84

Piperazine
(weak AH, good anti-emetic)

Front 85

Can use Phenergan for CINV?

Back 85

No
(what preg cat?)

Hint 85

C

Front 86

Phenergan is a very weak blocker of ___ receptors and is a very powerful ____.

Back 86

dopamine

Hint 86

sedative
(also powerful AH, Ant-chol, anti-emetic)

Front 87

James W. Black developed the 1st ___ and the 1st ___.

Back 87

Beta blocker (propranolol)
H2 receptor antagonist (cimetidine)

Front 88

T/F. H-2RA's are good at bedtime and when not eating.

Back 88

True
(good at NAB and inhibiting basal acid secretion)

Front 89

T/F. PPIs are faster and have a shorter duration of action than H-2RA's.

Back 89

False
(opposite)

Front 90

T/F. Pepcid and Axid have no effect on androgen receptors or the P450 enzymes.

Back 90

True
(both tagamet and zantac do)

Front 91

Axid

Back 91

Nezatidine

Front 92

Tolerance develops with H-2 RA within ___ days. Is it due to altered pharmacokinetics?

Back 92

5

Hint 92

no
(inc secretion of HCl and gastrin due to different/other stimuli)

Front 93

What 3 disease states are H-2 RA's used to treat?

Back 93

PUD
GERD
Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome (high doses)

Front 94

T/F. PPIs are highly selective and are irreversible inhibitors.

Back 94

True

Front 95

What 2 ring structures do most PPIs share?

Back 95

Benzimidazole and Pyridine

Front 96

PPIs must be ____ in an acid environment to become active.

Back 96

Protonated

Front 97

PPI or H2RA?
More effective in treating GERD and PUD.

Back 97

PPI

Front 98

PPIs are easily absorbed in the SI because they are ____.

Back 98

weak bases
(unionized)

Front 99

PPIs form a covalent bond to the ____ residues on the luminal surface of the ____ pump.

Back 99

cysteine

Hint 99

enzyme

Front 100

What 5 things activate the ATPase pumps?

Back 100

food
higher pH
gastrin
histamine
ACh

Front 101

How many days does it take for PPIs to reach max inhibition?

Back 101

5

Front 102

What 2 conditions can occur with hypochlorhydria (due to PPIs)?

Back 102

infections of upper GI (maybe pneumonia)
Ca2+ malabsorption (7 yrs to occur)

Front 103

What 5 conditions do PPIs treat?

Back 103

PUD (with AB's)
NSAID-induced Ulcers
GERD
Erosive Esophagitis
Zollinger-Ellision Syndrome

Front 104

With Zegerid do you need to take food to activate the pumps? Why or why not?

Back 104

No bc of the sodium bicarb
it increases the pH thus activated the pumps --> PPIs get protonated
(PPI may then get absorbed in stomach since will be more unionized due to bicarb raising the pH)

Front 105

Can someone sub two 20 mg Zegerids for one 40 mg tab/packet?

Back 105

NO!!!
(it would be too much sodium - RM the 20 mg tab and 40 mg tab have same amount of Na+)

Front 106

Which PPI is FDA approved for reduction of risk of upper GI bleeding in critically ill pts?

Back 106

Zegerid

Front 107

At what pH do the ATPase pumps start to get activated?

Back 107

pH > 4

Front 108

Soraprazan was more potent than PPIs. It is now d/c but when used did acid effect it?

Back 108

no
not acid labile (stable at low pH)

Front 109

Soraprazan binds to the ____ binding site on the H,K-ATPase enzyme?

Back 109

K+
(very selective)

Front 110

What 2 main effects does PgE1 cause?

Back 110

(1) protection of the mucosa / healing
(2) water diarrhea & cramps

Front 111

What kind of receptor is EP3?

Back 111

Gi
(blocks AC --> dec cAMP --> dec HCl)

Front 112

T/F. Misoprostol is used to treat NSAID-induced gastric ulcers and PUD.

Back 112

False!!
(not PUD)

Front 113

Can atropine be used for motion sickness? Why or why not?

Back 113

no
bc would req large amounts!!

Front 114

What receptor(s) does Transderm Scop block? Does it have a fast or slow onset?

Back 114

M receptors only!!!

Hint 114

slow onset
(long duration: ~3 days)

Front 115

Does Transderm Scop work in CTZ?

Back 115

no
(Just NTS and vestibular app)

Front 116

For Prokinetic agents, what 4 main activities do they have?

Back 116

cholinergic agonist activity (M3)
DA receptor antagonist activity (D2)
SE recp agonist act m
Motilin agonist act

Front 117

Prochlorperazine works in which two areas?

Back 117

CTZ (primarily)
NTS

Front 118

Zelnorm

Back 118

Tegaserod maleate

Hint 118

5HT-4 agonist
(recalled --> inc risk of MI and stroke)

Front 119

This drug indications include Diabetic Gastroparesis and GI obstruction.

Back 119

Reglan (Metoclopramide)

Front 120

Reglan increases ACh in which 2 main ways? What is the main SE?

Back 120

stimulating 5-HT4
blocking DA receptors

Hint 120

sedation

Front 121

What are "Setrons"?

Back 121

5-HT3 antagonist
(indicated for IBS-D and N/V)

Front 122

What setron is only one approved fpr IBS with diarrhea?

Back 122

Lotronex

Front 123

What 3 places does Zofran work?

Back 123

CTZ
NTS
Stomach/SI (so dec contraction)

Front 124

Emend is indicated primarily for ____.

Back 124

Late CINV

Front 125

Marniol works by decreasing the release of ___.

Back 125

ACh
(so dec GI tract motility & activation in CTZ & NTS)

Front 126

T/F. Dexamethasone treats CINV and PONV.

Back 126

true
(mech not clear)

Front 127

Sandostatin inhibits what?

Back 127

adenyl cyclase

Front 128

Chron's disease is ____ immunity; Ulcerative colitis is ____ immunity.

Back 128

cellular

Hint 128

humoral

Front 129

What drug class remains the Mainstay of Treatment for IBD? MOA?

Back 129

5-Aminosalicylates

Hint 129

dec release of cytokines
(may also inhib NFkB)

Front 130

What 2 compounds are formed after breakdown of Azulfidine? Where does it breakdown?

Back 130

Sulfapyridine (not active)
5-aminosalicyclic acid (mesalamine)

Hint 130

LI
(by bacteria)

Front 131

Dipentum is pure ____; while Colazal has ____ added in.

Back 131

5-ASA (2 of them joined)

Hint 131

Inert substance

Front 132

Pentasa is released in the ___; while Asacol is released primiarily in the ____.
(each blank has 2)

Back 132

SI and colon

Hint 132

ileum and colon

Front 133

What does PTK bind too after being activated by IL-2R?

Back 133

mTOR
(leads to cell division of tcell)

Front 134

In the NFkB pathway whats more impt IP3 or DAG? What does it do?

Back 134

DAG

Hint 134

makes PKC to activate IKK to activate NFkB (take the IkB off)

Front 135

In NFAT pathway what is more important DAG or IP3?

Back 135

IP3
(releases Ca2+ fro ER to ulitmately activate Calcineurin)

Front 136

Acute Cellular Reaction is what type(s) of immunoglocial rnxs?

Back 136

Type IV (bc involves CD4 and CD8 cells)
or Type II (bc may have anti-hla ab's)

Front 137

Clucocorticoids inhibit the activity of ___.

Back 137

NFkB
(thus dec IL-2 release --> dec tcell division)

Front 138

Immunophilin-Binding Agents inhibit the activity of ____ and/or ____.

Back 138

calcineurin (NFAT)
mTOR

Front 139

Elidel

Back 139

Pimecrolimus

Hint 139

Immunophilin-Binding Agents
(BUT not for treatment of transplant rejection --> but same mech of others)

Front 140

FK506? What does it bind to?

Back 140

Tacrolimus (Prograf)

Hint 140

binds to FKBP in cytoplasm which goes to block Calcineurin
(Immunophilin-Binding Agents)

Front 141

Sirolimus binds to what in the cytoplasm? What happens as a result?

Back 141

FKBP ---> mTOR (not Calcineurin like FK506)

Hint 141

ASR: IL-2 is still released - goes to receptor -- activates PTK --- but cannot activate mTOR to initiate cell division

Front 142

Purine antagonist inhibit the synthesis of purine therefore stopping release of ____/___. Name two drug examples.

Back 142

DNA/RNA

Hint 142

AZA
Mycophenolate mofetil

Front 143

Monoclonal AB's for transplant can either bind to ___ on the lymphocyte (tcell) surface or to the _____ surface receptor.

Back 143

CD3

Hint 143

IL-2

Front 144

What 2 AB's bind to the IL-2 surface receptor for renal transplant prevention?

Back 144

Daclizumab
Basiliximab

Front 145

What are the 2 polyclonal AB's for renal transplant prevention?

Back 145

ATGAM
Thymoglobulin

Front 146

ATGAM is produced in ___ by injecting them with human ___ ___.

Back 146

horses

Hint 146

thymus gland

Front 147

Thymoglobulin is purified ___ produced in rabbits by injecting them with human ____.

Back 147

IgG

Hint 147

thymocytes

Front 148

Neither ATGAM or Thymoglobulin bind to the ____.

Back 148

TCR
(they bind to pretty much everything else)

Front 149

OKT3

Back 149

Orthoclone

Hint 149

Murine, Monoclonal IgG Antibody
(RM: binds to CD3)

Front 150

Zenapax is ___, while Simulect is ___.
(AB structure)

Back 150

humanized
(dacliZUmab)

Hint 150

chimeric
(basiliXImab)

Front 151

Where do Zenapax and Simulect bind?

Back 151

alpha component on IL-2 receptor
(RM they only attack those cells that are attacking the transplant)

Front 152

Campath? MOA?

Back 152

Alemtuzumab

Hint 152

binds to CD52 on APC; then kills cell thru ADCC

Front 153

Natalizumab

Back 153

Tysari

Hint 153

humanized AB; targets alpha subunit of integrin structure (no adhesion)

Front 154

Nulojix binds to ____ for prophylaxis of kidney transplant. What is it used in combo with?

Back 154

CTLA4
(like orencia - abatacept)

Hint 154

Basiliximab
cellcept
corticosteroids

Front 155

Velcade

Back 155

Bortezomid

Hint 155

proteosome inhibitor
(not a monoclonal AB!!)

Front 156

Rituxan

Back 156

Rituximab

Hint 156

AB against CD20 on B-cells

Front 157

Is binding of Bortezomib to the 26S proteasome (ubiquitin) reversible or irreversible?

Back 157

Reversible
(drug can also slow tumor growth)