Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
56 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
______ is the chief coenzyme of gastric juice, which converts proteins into proteases and peptones.
|
Pepsin
|
|
_______ digests starch to maltose
|
Amylase
|
|
______ reduces maltose to monosaccharide glucose
|
Maltase
|
|
_______ splits lactose into galactose and glucose
|
Lactase
|
|
_______ reduces sucrose to fructose and glucose.
|
Sucrase
|
|
_______ split nucleic acids to nucleotides
|
Nucleases
|
|
________ activates trypsinogen to trypsin
|
Enterokinase
|
|
The largest gland in the body
|
Liver
|
|
Liver removes excess _____ and ______ acids from the portal blood.
|
glucose & amino acids
|
|
How much blood does the liver store and filter?
|
200-400mL of blood stored
|
|
Liver synthesizes ______, amino acids, and fats
|
insulin
|
|
What vitamins does the liver store?
|
A, D, B and iron
|
|
______ stores and concentrates bile and contracts to force bile into the duodenum during the digestion of fats
|
Gallbladder
|
|
______ secretes sodium bicarbonate to neutralize the acidity of the stomach contents that enter the duodenem.
|
Pancrease
|
|
Pancreatic juices contain ______ for digesting carbohydrates, fats, and proteins
|
enzymes
|
|
Upper GI Tract Study: (Barium Swallow) Examination of the upper GI tract under floreoscopy after the clinet drinks barium sulfate
|
NPO after midnight the day of test. Postprocedure=A laxative is prescribed. Stools appear white/chalky
|
|
Lower GI tract Study (barium enema) Fluroscopic and radiographic examination of the large intestine is preformed after rectal instillation of barium sulfate
|
Pre-procedure=A low-residue diet is given 1-2 days before the test. A clear liquid diet and laxative are given the evening before the test. NPO after midnight day of. Cleansing enema morning of test. Postprecedure=increase fluids. Administer laxative. Monitor stools for barium.
|
|
Upper Gastrointestinal fiberoscopy EGD=following sedation and endoscope is passed down the esophagus to view the gastric wall, sphincers and duodenum, tissue specimens can be obtained.
|
NPO 6-12 hours before test. Local anesthetic spray or gargle may be used. IV midazolam (Versed) just before the scope is inserted. Client positioned on left side. Post-precedure=NPO until gag reflex returns (1-2 hours)
|
|
Cholecystography=performed to detect gallstones and assess the ability of the gallbladder to fill, concentrate its contents, contract and empty
|
Assess for allergies to iodine or seafood
|
|
An increase in cholesterol level indicates_______ or biliary obstruction
|
pancreatitis
|
|
An increase in bilirubin level indicates ________ or biliary obstruction
|
liver damage
|
|
Increased values for amylase and lipase levels indicates _________
|
pancreatitis
|
|
Auscultate bowel sounds before percussion and
|
palpation
|
|
Normal bowel sounds occur 5-30 times a minute or, every ____-____ seconds.
|
5 to 15
|
|
Listen at least _____ minutes in each quadrant before assuming bowel sounds are absent
|
5 minutes
|
|
GERD-gastroesophageal reflux is the backflow of gastric and duodenal contents into the esophagus. Caused by incompetent lower esophageal sphincter, pyloric stenosis, or motility disorder
|
Assessment: Pyloris, Dyspepsia, Regurgitation, Pain and difficulty with swallowing, Hypersalivation.
|
|
GERD Interventions: Eat low fat, high fiber diet and avoid caffeine, tobacco and carobnated bevs.
|
Avoid eating/drinking 2 hours before bed. Elevate HOB 6-8 inches. Avoid the use of anticholinergics, which delay stomach emptying.
|
|
Portion of the stomach herniates through the diaphragm and into the thorax
|
hiatal hernia
|
|
Hiatal hernia results from weakening of the muscles of the diaphragm and is aggravated by factors that increase abdominal pressure such as pregnancy, ascites, obesity, tumors and heavy lifting.
|
Assessment: Heartburn, Regurgitation or vomitting, Dysphagia, Feeling of Fullness. Interventions: Small frequent meals. Limit amount of liquid w/ meals. Avoid anticholinergics which delay stomach emptying.
|
|
Inflammation of the stomach or gastric mucosa
|
Gastritis
|
|
caused by the ingestion of food contaminated with disease causing microorganisms or food that is irritating or too highly seasoned, overuse of asprin or other NSAID's, excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux or radiation therapy
|
Acute Gastritis
|
|
caused by benighn or malignant ulcers or by the bacteria H. pyloria and also may be caused by autoimmune diseases, dietary factors, medications, alcohol, smoking or reflux
|
Chronic gastritis
|
|
Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)=ulceration in the mucosal wall of the stomach, pylorus, duodemun, or esophagus in portions accessible to gastric secretions, erosions may extend through the muscle.
|
Stress, smoking, corticosteroids, NSAIDs, alcohol, hx, infection with h. pylori. Interventions: small frequent meals, H2-receptors decrease secretion of gastric acid, antacids to neutralize gastric secretions. Anticholinergics reduce gastric motility, Mucosal barrier 1 hour prior to meal, prostaglandins
|
|
Removal of the stomach with attachment of the esophagus to the jejunum or duodenum;
|
gastrectomy
|
|
surgical division of the vagus nerve to eliminate the vagal impulses that stimulate hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach
|
Vagotomy
|
|
Removal of the lower half of the stomach and usually includes a vagotomy; also called antrectomy
|
Gastric resection
|
|
Partial gastrectomy, with the remaining segment anastomosed to the duodenum
|
Billroth I
|
|
Partial gastrectomy with the remaining segment anastomosed to the jejunum
|
Billroth II
|
|
Enlargement of the pylorus to prevent or decrease pyloric obstruction, thereby enhancing gastric emptying
|
Pyloroplasty
|
|
the rapid emptying of the gastric contents into the small intestine that occurs following gastric resection
|
Dumping Syndrome
|
|
Foods rich in B12
|
Brewer's yeast, Citrus Fruits, Dried beans, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Nuts, Organ Meats
|
|
Consistency of Stool: Ascending colon
|
Liquid
|
|
Consistency of Stool: Transverse colon
|
semiformed
|
|
Consistency of Stool descending colon
|
close to normal
|
|
an inflammatory disease that can occur anywhere in the GI tract but most often affects the terminal ileum and leads to thickening and scarring, a narrow lumen, fistulas, ulcerations, and abscesses
|
Chron's Disease
|
|
an outpouching or herniation of the intestinal mucosa. The disorder can occur in any part of the intestine but is most common in the sigmoid colon
|
Diverticulosis
|
|
the inflammation of one or more diverticula that occurs from penetration of fecal matter through the thin-walled diverticula; it can resuls in local abscess formation and perforation
|
Diverticulitis -Left lower quadrant abdominal pain that increases with coughing, straining or lifting. Palpable, tender rectal mass. Blood in the stools.
|
|
occurs because the liver is unable to metabolize bilirubin and because the edema, fibrosis, and scarring of the hepatic bile ducts interfere with normal bile and bilirubin secretion
|
Jaundice
|
|
Cholecystitis-inflammation of the gallbladder that may occur as an acute or chronic process-Gallstones
|
Epigastric pain that radiates to the scapula 2-4 hours after eating fatty foods.
|
|
Cannot take a deep breath when the examiner's fingers are passed below the hepatic margin because of pain. Associated with gallbladder inspection
|
Murphy's sign
|
|
One major sign of Duodenal ulcer
|
Pain is releived upon ingestion of food. Burning pain so severe 1-3 hours after meal, often wakes client in sleep.
|
|
bowel protrudes through the stoma
|
prolapsed stoma
|
|
sinking of the stoma
|
stoma retraction
|
|
dusky bluish colored stoma
|
ischemia of the stoma
|
|
stoma with a narrow opening at the level of the skin or fascia is said to be
|
stenosed
|
|
Ammonia is formed as a product of protein metabolism. Clients with _____ ______ have high serum ammonia levels, which are responsible for their symptoms.
|
hepatic encephalopathy
|