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283 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Where are MHC genes located?
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Chromosome 6
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What are the identity tags located on the surface of a cell?
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MHC complexes
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What is the first major function of the immune system other than producing antibodies?
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To recognize cells belonging to the body by recognizing MHC complexes
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What is the second major function of the immune system - other than recognizing "self" cells?
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To produce cells and antibodies that recognize & eliminate "non-self" antigens
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Inherited immune deficiencies may arise from ________ in the genes involved in the immune system
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Mutations
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_______ cells are one of the most important players in the immune response & depletion of these cells over a prolonged period of HIV infection destroys the immune system.
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Helper T cells
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________ Uses components of the immune system to fight disease
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Immunotherapy
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________ Use components of pathogens to stimulate the immune system and prevent infection
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Vaccines
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Transplantation of organs requires matching of host and transplant cell surface _______.
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Antigens
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____________ drugs are used after transplants in order to prevent rejection of transplanted tissue
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Immunosuppressive drugs
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The human immune system provides protection based upon the ability to recognize ______ or ______ surface
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Foreign or non-self
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What are three things that the immune system would recognize as "non-self" or foreign?
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Bacteria, yeast, infectious agents (such as viruses, cancer cells and transplanted cells)
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What is the term for organisms or infectious agents that cause disease?
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Pathogens
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What are some examples of pathogenic organisms?
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Bacteria and single celled eukaryotes such as yeast or amoebae
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What are some examples of infectious agents?
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Viruses and prions
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Do antibiotics treat viruses?
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NO
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What type of pathogenic organisms do antibiotics treat?
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Bacteria
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Are there any drugs to treat viruses?
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A few - not as many as those that treat bacteria
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Viruses can only reproduce inside ______ cells
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Living
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Many viruses are nothing more than a small molecule of ____ or _____ wrapped inside a protein coat
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DNA or RNA
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In our DNA we carry _____ sequences that have been passed for generations; they are part of our evolutionary history
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Viral
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T or F viral DNA can insert directly into the human chromosomal DNA?
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TRUE
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What is the enzyme necessary for RNA viruses to convert viral RNA into DNA?
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Reverse transcriptase
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What is the term for an RNA virus? This group includes HIV
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Retroviruses
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Once viral DNA integrates into human chromosomal DNA what two things happen?
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It can remain there & be replicated into host DNA doing no harm OR it can take over & kill the cell while replicating viral DNA to make large #'s of viral progeny
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Faulty genes increase the susceptibility of _____ as well as autoimmune diseases
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Allergens
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Faulty genes increase the susceptibility of allergens and _______ diseases
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Autoimmune
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Most of the effects on the control of the immune system such as increased susceptibility or resistance are _______ meaning many genes are involved in these effects
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Polygenic
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What are the proteins that attack foreign antigens?
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Antibodies and cytokines
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________ are protein or carbohydrate molecules that provoke an immune response
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Antigens
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Who is responsible for the discovery of the blood groups A,B and O?
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Karl Landsteiner
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The A,B O blood groups are further differentiated by + or - referring to the _____ factor
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Rh
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____ ______ during pregnancy can result in the pregnant mother producing antibodies to the unborn child
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Rh incompatibility
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_______ given after delivery of an Rh+ baby to an Rh- mother prevents the production of antibodies that can cause problems in future Rh+ pregnancies
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Anti D
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What are the genes found on chromosome 6 that encode cell surface molecules?
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Major Histocompatibility complex, MHC
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A couple expecting their second child is worried about Rh incompatibility. Their first child was Rh+. They have their blood typed. What result would be cause for alarm? Man Rh- & Woman Rh+ or Man Rh+ & woman Rh-
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Man Rh+ & woman Rh-
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Approximately 1/2 of the genes for immunity are found where?
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MHC
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Many of the proteins on the cell surfaces are coded for by a cluster of genes on which chromosome?
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6
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MHC genes are classified into how many groups?
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3
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MHC genes classified as Class III provide__________ immune functions
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Non-specific
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MHC genes classified as Class I & II encode what antigens?
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Human leukocyte antigens (HLA)
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What is the purpose of HLA cell surface proteins?
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They attach to bacterial and viral proteins and "display" them to alert other immune system cells.
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What is the term for the cell that displays foreign antigens?
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Antigen presenting cell
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All cells with nuclei have what type of antigens that identify them as "self" and distinguish tissue types?
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HLA - human leukocyte antigens
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Only 2 in every 20,000 unrelated people match for the 6 major ____ genes by chance because their proteins are each encoded by several genes with many alleles
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HLA
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2 in every ______ unrelated people match for the 6 major HLA genes by chance
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20,000
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Why do the 6 major HLA genes tend to be inherited together?
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Because they are clustered
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The set of HLA genes carried on one chromosome is known as a ______
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Haplotype
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There is a ____% chance that siblings will have an organ with matching haplotypes
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25%
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Usually at least ____ of the 6 major genes have to match for a transplant to be successful.
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4
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Transplant recipients must take _______ drugs
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Immunosuppressant
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Individuals with certain HLA combinations have an increased risk of developing ___ ____ diseases
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HLA linked
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At the cellular level, the immune system consists of various types of _____ and ____.
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Lymphocytes and macrophages
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What are the 2 major types of lymphocytes?
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B-cells and T-cells
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The immune response consists of an immediate, generalized, ______ immunity and a slower, more specific ______ immunity.
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Innate/adaptive
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What type of cell engulfs bacteria and stimulates helper T cells to proliferate and activate B cells?
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Macrophages
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What 3 types of cells originate in the bone marrow and migrate into the blood?
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T-cells, B-cells, macrophages
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What type of cell is released from lymphoid tissues, such as the spleen and lymph nodes and secrete antibodies?
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B-cells
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What type of cells mature in the thymus gland, in the small intestine and the skin?
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T-cells
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What type of cell is involved in cell-mediated immunity?
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T-cells attack cells directly
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Which type of cells, T-cells or antibodies, are involved in humoral immunity?
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Antibodies
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Give 5 examples of physical and chemical barriers that keep pathogens from entering the body
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Skin, mucous membranes, tears, ear wax and saliva
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Pathogens that breach physical barriers encounter what type of immune response? Innate or Adaptive
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innate
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What happens when pathogens breach physical barriers and the innate immune response begins?
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Inflammation and phagocytosis
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What 3 types of proteins are involved in the innate immune response?
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Complement, collectins, and cytokines
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What will happen if there are mutations in any of the genes encoding the proteins complement, collectins and cytokines.
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Increased susceptibility to infections
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What are the large white blood cells that contribute to the immune defenses by ingesting microbes, other cells, and foreign particles?
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Phagocytes
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What are the two principle types of phagocytes?
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Neutrophils and monocytes
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What cells migrate out of the blood and into tissues in which an infection has developed?
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Neutrophils and monocytes
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What are the 2 types of specialized phagocytes?
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Macrophages and dendritic cells
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What do macrophages and dendritic cells do, after they have engulfed microbes, to stimulate the adaptive immune response?
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They present the peptides derived from the microbes to become antigen presenting cells
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What are the specific lymphocytes that respond to viral infections and some tumor cells?
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Natural Killer Cells
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What is the complement system?
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A system of proteins that act to burst invading bacterial cells, trigger histamine release & attract other cells to the site of infection
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What is the system of proteins that act to burst invading bacterial cells, trigger histamine release & attract other cells to the site of infection?
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Complement system
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Why are collectins called collectins?
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Because they have a collagen-like region and a lectin region
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_____ are proteins that bind sugar molecules, usually on the surface of bacteria
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Lectins
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_____ have surface sugars such as mannose, which are absent from mammalian cell surfaces.
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Pathogens
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_____ recognize foreign invaders by the sugars on their cell surfaces that are different from human cell surfaces
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Collectins
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_____ are cytokines which tag virus infected cells for destruction
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Interferons
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_____ are cytokines that cause fever, which can directly kill invading bacteria and viruses
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Interleukins
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_____ _____ _____ is a cytokine that can attack cancer cells
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Tumor Necrosis Factor
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Which immune response innate/adaptive must be stimulated into action and can take days to respond?
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Adaptive
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Which immune response innate/adaptive is activated within minutes of a pathogen invasion?
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Innate
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Which immune response innate/adaptive has the role of holding an infection in check in the early stages?
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Innate
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What are the 2 key components of the adaptive immune system?
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T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes
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Where are T-lymphocytes developed?
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Thymus
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Where are B cells developed?
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Bone marrow
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In response to stimulation from antigen presenting cells and helper T cells, _____ produce antibodies in the humoral response
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B lymphocytes
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What is the immune response involving the transformation of B cells into plasma cells that produce and secrete antibodies to a specific antigen?
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Humoral response
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T lymphocytes that can directly kill infected cells are known as?
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Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
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T lymphocytes that can stimulate B lymphocytes are known as?
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Helper T lymphocytes
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T lymphocytes can stimulate B lymphocytes or directly kill infected cells; this is known as the ____ _____ ____
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Cellular immune system
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In this response B cells secrete antibodies into the bloodstream in order to neutralize, clump, and stimulate the destruction of pathogens by recognizing and binding specific foreign antigens.
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Humoral Response
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Some ___ cells become memory cells
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B cells
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What is the job of memory cells?
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They persist and are ready to respond with a quicker more forceful response should the antigen be encountered again
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_______ are made of Y shaped polypeptides consisting of constant and variable regions
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Antibodies
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What 2 types of regions are found on an antigen?
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Constant and variable
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What 2 types of chains are found on an antigen?
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Heavy chains and light chains
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The _____ regions at the ends of the chains are the areas that differ amongst antibodies.
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Variable
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The _____ regions on antibodies are similar across all species
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Constant
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Antibodies bind antigens at the tips of the _____ regions
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Variable
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The portion of the antibody binding the antigen is the ______
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Idiotype
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The part of the antigen binding the antibody is the _____
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Epitope
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Antibodies may inactivate a pathogen in three ways. What are they?
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Binding to the pathogen, clumping around pathogens making them easier targets for macrophages and activating complement
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How many different antibodies can be produced by B cells?
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Millions
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Why are B cells able to produce so many different antibodies?
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It is due to a shuffling of gene segments in B cell development
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What are the different types of genes used to produce a myriad of different antigen binding sites?
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V genes (variable genes), D genes (Diversity genes) and J genes (joining genes)
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What are the 5 types of antibodies?
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IgD, IgA, IgM, IgG, IgE
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Where are IgA's located?
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Nose, breathing passages, digestive tract, ears, eyes, milk, saliva
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What is the function of IgA's?
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Provide protection against pathogen entry
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Which type of antibody provides protection against pathogen entry?
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IgA
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Where are IgD's located?
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Surface of B cells
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What is the function of IgD's?
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Stimulate B cells
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What antibody stimulates B cells?
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IgD
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Where are IgE's located?
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Lungs, skin, mucous membranes
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What is the function of IgE's?
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They act against foreign substances such as pollen & fungus spores. Provide an immune response to parasites, especially worms.
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What type of antibody is high in people with allergies?
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IgE's
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What type of antibody acts against foreign substances such as pollen and fungus spores and provides an immune response to parasites, especially worms?
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IgE's
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What type of antibody provides protection against all types of bacteria and viruses and is second to be made in response to infection?
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IgG's
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Where are IgG's located?
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All body fluids
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What is the most abundant form of antibodies?
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IgG's
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What is the only antibody that can pass through the placenta to the fetus?
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IgG's
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What do IgG's do?
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They are the only type of anitbody that can pass through the placenta to the fetus, they provide protection against all types of bacteria and viruses. Most abundant form. 2nd to be made after infection.
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Where are IgM's located?
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Blood and lymph
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What do IgG's do?
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They are the first antibodies to be made in response to infection
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What is the first antibody to be made in response to infection?
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IgM's
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Which type of cell does not travel but secretes antibodies?
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B cells
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Which type of cell travels to the site of the "action" T cells or B cells?
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T cells
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In the cellular immune response helper T cells release _______ that function to stimulate B cells to manufacture antibodies as well as coordinate various other immune responses.
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Cytokines
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Some (B or T) cells bind non-self cells or virus-covered cells and burst them
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T cells
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What is the best known inherited immune deficiency?
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Severe combined immune deficiencies (SCID)
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What type of immunity does Severe Combined Immune Deficiencies affect? Humoral or cellular?
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BOTH
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What happened to children involved in initially successful SCID research trials in France that caused the research to be halted?
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The developed leukemia
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What virus causes aquired immune deficiency syndrome?
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HIV
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What type of virus is HIV?
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Retrovirus
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What type of cells does HIV infect?
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T cells
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What binding coreceptors does HIV use to infect host T cells?
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CD4 and CCR5
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What enzyme is needed to copy viral RNA into DNA?
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Reverse transcriptase
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How does HIV reproduce itself?
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It's DNA is inserted into the host genome and then uses host protein synthesis machinery to reproduce itself then bud copies from the cell
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How does HIV become resistant to drugs?
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It continually mutates
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Some individuals have natural resistance to HIV; their _____ receptors do not reach the surface of he T cells so there is nowhere for the HIV virus to dock.
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CCR5
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How are some individuals naturally HIV resistant?
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Their CCR5 receptors do not reach the surface of the T cells so there is nowhere for the HIV virus to dock
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In autoimmune disorders, _____ attack healthy tissue.
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Autoantibodies
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What are 4 ways autoimmune diseases may occur?
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Mutations, a virus that incorporates a self antigen, T cells that never learn to recognize self, or healthy cells bearing antigens that resemble non-self antigens
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Are autoimmune diseases more prevalent in men or women?
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Women
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Approximately how many Americans have an autoimmune disease?
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5-8%
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Pollen, animal dander, mites, and variety of foods are examples of ______
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Allergens
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What type of antibodies react to allergies?
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IgE
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Allergens activate certain (T or B) cells which secrete immune mediators that contribute to some allergy symptoms
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T cells
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A hypersensitized immune system responses causes ______
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Allergies
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On what type of cell will you find IgE's?
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Mast cells
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What do IgE's release to cause allegy symptoms?
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Allergy mediators
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______ use part or all of a weakened or killed pathogen to elicit an immune response.
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Vaccines
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How do vaccines protect you?
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They protect against infection by virulent pathogens
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What type of therapy uses immune system components to fight disease?
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Immunotherapy
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_______ are artificial cells that consist of a B cell fused with a cancer cell to produce monoclonal antibodies (Mabs) that can target specific antigens
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Hybridomas
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_______ are used in immunotherapy to boost immune function and have limited medical applications
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Cytokines
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_______ transfer tissue from one part of a person's body to another
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Autografts
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_______ are tissue transfers between identical twins
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Isografts
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_____ involve tissue transfers between members of the same species. These transplants can cause tissue rejection reactions
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Allografts
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A _____ is a cross species transplant. A danger of these transplants is that they can set off a hyperacute rejection
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Xenograft
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What type of transplant can set off a hyperacute rejection?
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Xenograft
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What type of transplant can cause tissue rejection reactions?
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Allografts
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What type of transplant is done between identical twins?
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Isograft
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What type of transplant is done from one part of a person's body to another?
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Autograft
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What type of drug is used to improve the success rate of transplants?
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Immunosuppressive drugs
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What are 3 ways to improve success rates of transplants?
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Use of immunosuppressive drugs, stripping antigens form donor tissue, and matching donor to recipient
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What is the disease that involves a rejection of recipient tissues by transplanted bone marrow?
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Graft-versus-host disease
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Set of HLA genes on one chromosome
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haplotype
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Secrete antibodies
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B cell
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A kidney from an identical twin?
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isograft
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Recognizes invaders by sugar molecules
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Collectin
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This type of virus converts RNA to DNA
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Retrovirus
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The part of an antigen that the antibody binds to
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Epitope
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A common autoimmune disease
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Lupus
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T cells (without B cells) are responsible for the _____ response. Humoral, cellular, inherited, progressive
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Cellular
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Which type of blood can be transfused to an individual whose blood type is unknown? AB+, AB-, O+, O-
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O-
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_______ are cytokines that cause fever, temporarily maintaining a higher body temperature
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Interleukins
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Allergens stimulate the production of _____ (specific type) antibodies that bind to mast cells, causing them to release allergy mediators
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IgE
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A transplant that occurs between species, such as a human and a pig, is called a _____
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Xenograft
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A major feature of cancer cells is uncontrolled _______
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Growth
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_______genes and ____ _____ genes are two classes of genes that normally control cell growth.
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Proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes
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Most cancers are the result of alterations in _____ genes
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Several
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The term ______ is used for abnormal cell growth that does not invade surrounding tissue.
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Tumor
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Cancer or a _______ tumor spreads locally and usually also metastasizes to distant sites.
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Malignant
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What is the term that describes how a secondary cancerous growth formed by transmission of cancerous cells from a primary growth located elsewhere in the body.
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Metastasize
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_______ most of which are mutagens are cancer producing agents
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Carcinogens
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Only about ____% of cancers are inherited as single gene disorders
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10%
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A gene that contributes to the production of a cancer
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Oncogene
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A gene that is generally a mutated from of a normal cellular gene that is capable, when activated, of transforming a cell.
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Oncogene
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A gene that suppresses cellular proliferation.
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Tumor suppressor gene
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A gene that is associated with the development of various cancers including most familial cancers
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Tumor suppressor gene
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DNA _______ can be used to identify and distinguish different types of tumors
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Microarrays
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Cancer is caused by a loss of this
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Cell cycle control
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Many cancers result from faulty checkpoints. During what phase is the DNA damage checkpoint in the cell cycle?
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S phase
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Genes involved in the onset and progression of cancer include those coding for what 4 things?
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Growth factors, transcription factors, DNA repair genes and telomerase
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________ is the enzyme that allows the elongation of the ends of linear chromosomes
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Telomerase
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Do normal somatic cells have active telomerase?
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NO
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What happens to the cell when the telomers shrink on a somatic cell?
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It ceases to divide
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What enzyme do cancer cells have that allow them to divide endlessly?
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Telomerase
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Which statement about telomerase is incorrect? 1. Adds DNA to chromosome tips 2. Serves as template for telomeres lengthening 3. not activated in cancer cells 4. activity continually resets the cellular clock.
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3. Not activated in cancer cells - This is not true! Telomerase is activated in cancer cells to allow it to divide endlessly
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Most cancers are Inherited/sporadic?
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Sporadic
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What is something that can cause mutations in a somatic cell or increase the effects of an inherited susceptibility?
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Environmental triggers
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The cancer phenotype is transmitted to _____ cells ie they are all cancer cells
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Daughter
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A cancer cells differs from normal cells in that is is _______ (can grow in a susceptible animal)
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Tranplantable
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A cancer cell differs from normal cells in that it is ______ (Less specialized)
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Dedifferentiated
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A cancer cell differs from normal cells in that it lacks_________ _______
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Contact inhibition
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A cancer cell differs from normal cells in that it can invade _______ tissue or _______ to distant sites
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Healthy; Metastasize
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Cells starved of oxygen deep in a developing tumor produce _____ _____ _____ _____ to promote capillary growth
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Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
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What does VEGF stand for - promotes capillary growth
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Vascular endothelial growth factor
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What is the term that describes the groth of new capillaries which supply the growing tumor with nutrients and is a target for new chemotherapy drugs
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Angiogenesis
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The rapid cell division of cancer cells results in an increase in _________; these often result in the cancer cells becoming resistant to drugs
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Mutations
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Cancer cells have a phenotype that is more specialized than stem cells but less ________ than normal tissue
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Differentiated
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In brain cells a cell surface molecule called _______ is usually lost in early progenitor cells; in contracst cancer stem cells and early progenitor cells retain _______ & continue to divide & lose specialization
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CD133 (same for both spaces)
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Chronic inflammation increases the risk of tumors as the repair systems or ____ _____ are constantly being stimulated
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Stem cells
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Too much repair may trigger ______ formation
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Tumor
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Cancer stem cells are (more/less) specialized than stem cells, and (more/less) specialized than nearby differentiated cells.
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More, less
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A normal cellular gene that has the potential to become an oncogene
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Proto-oncogenes
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________ are transformed into oncogenes by genetic changes that increase their expression or alter the biological activity of their protein product.
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Proto-oncogenes
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Proto-oncogenes are transformed into _______ by genetic changes that increase their expression or alter the biological activity of their protein product.
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Oncogenes
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What 3 ways can proto-oncogenes be transformed into oncogenes?
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Mutation within the gene OR movement of the gene to an area where it is expressed at a higher rate. Viruses
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________ may act as anti-apoptosis agents so damaged cells do not die and are able to divide.
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Oncogenes
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____ may activate oncogenes when viral DNA is inserted near the protooncogene resulting in higher expression
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Viruses
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How is cervical cancer caused by a virus?
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Virus activates oncogenes when viral DNA is inserted near the proto-oncogene resulting in higher expression
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Name a type of cancer that is caused by a virus
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Cervical cancer
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________ _______ occurs when a proto-oncogene on chromosome 8 is translocated to chromosome 14 near a highly expressed antibody gene
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Burkitt Lymphoma
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Burkitt Lymphoma occurs when a proto-oncogene on chromosome ___ is translocated to chromosome ___ near a highly expressed antibody gene
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8/14
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What part of the body does Burkitt Lymphoma typically affect?
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The jaw
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Where is it common to see Burkitt Lymphoma?
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Africa
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The _____ ____ virus stimulates the translocation that results in over expression of the oncogene in Burkitt Lymphoma
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Eppstein-Barr virus
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Estimates suggest that ____ % of Americans over the age of 35 have been infected at some time in their lives with the Eppstein-Barr virus
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95%
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What type of cancer is caused by the Eppstein Barr virus primarily in Africa?
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Burkitt Lymphoma
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Why are Africans and people with HIV more susceptible to Burkitt Lymphoma than others?
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Suppression of the immune system due to HIV or endemic malaria
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What is the condition typically caused by Eppstein Barr virus in Americans?
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Mononucleosis
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What protein is found at elevated levels in 25% of women with breast cancer?
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Her-2/neu
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What are the proteins that are receptors for epidermal growth factor and are found at elevated levels in 25% of women with breast cancer?
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Her-2/neu
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What is the monoclonal antibody drug that binds to the receptors thus blocking the signals to divide?
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Herceptin
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_____ _____ genes down regulate cell growth
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Tumor suppressor genes
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Deletions of tumor suppressor genes or other mutations that result in decreased activity may lead to _______
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Cancer
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What is the term for the type of mutation that deletes genes or results in decreased activity?
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Loss of funciton mutation
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What are 3 genes that are examples of tumor suppressors?
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RB, p53, and BRCA1
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What is the type of cancer usually seen in children as an eye tumor?
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Retinoblastoma
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What is the type of cancer caused by susceptible children inheriting one mutated copy of the gene from a parent and the cancer develops in any somatic cell where the 2nd copy of the gene mutates/usually the eye? What gene?
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Retinoblastoma RB
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What is the "two hit" hypothesis of cancer causation?
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Two mutations germline and somatic are required for the disease to occur
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RB causes cancer of the ____ cells of the _____ seen early in life
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Cone/retina
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_______ is a transcription factor that "decides" whether a damaged cell is reapired or killed by apoptosis.
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P53
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More than 50% of cancers have a mutation in the ___ gene
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P53
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P53 has been termed the "____ ____ ___ ____" due to the protective role it plays in seeking out damaged cells before they can cause chaos.
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The guardian of the Genome
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Familial/non-familial breast cancer requires two separate somatic mutations to arise
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Non-familial
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BRCA1 and BRCA2 are autosomal dominant/recessive?
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Dominant
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What is required in order for breast cancer to develop in a person with the BRCA1 gene?
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Mutation of the gene on the other chromosome in a somatic cell
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BRCA1 protein is a DNA ______ protein
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Repair
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Inherited retinoblastoma requires ____ mutation(s) or deletion(s). 1,2,3,4
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2
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Cancer is often the result of activation of ______ to ______ and the inactivation of _____ genes.
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Proto-oncogenes, oncogenes, tumor suppressor
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_________ are the most common form of brain cancer
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Astrocytomas
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Astrocytes support ____ cells in the brain
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Nerve
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A series of genetic alterations involve loss of function for both p53 alleles, loss of interferon and tumor suppressor genes on chromosome _____ activation of an oncogene on chromosome _____ and loss of chromosome _____
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9,7,10
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What does FAP stand for?
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Familial adenomatous polyposis
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What type of cancer begins in early childhood with precancerous growths called polyps in the colon?
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Familial adenomatous polyposis
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Familial adenomatous polyposis is autosomal dominant/recessive
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Dominant
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What is the frequency of FAP in the US?
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1:5000
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What is the first step in the multi-step model for FAP colon cancer?
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A dominant mutation in the APC gene
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A dominant mutation in the _____ gene is the fist step in the multi-step model for FAP colon cancer
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APC
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A dominant mutation in the APC gene causes the cells in the colon to divide more frequently which causes what to happen next?
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Small benign tumors
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Small benign tumors called polyps are transformed into a tumor by what process?
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Subsequent mutations
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______ studies are used to identify risk factors in a population.
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Epidemiological
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Name 2 things associated with increased risk of cancer
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Smoking and excess exposure to the sun
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What things with diet can be done to lower cancer risk?
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Avoid fats and eat more fruits and vegetables and whole grain cereals
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What is the suspected cause of the rise of pediatric cancers in Iraq?
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Depleted uranium in the military "scrap" lying around
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_____ removes tumors
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Surgery
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____ and _____ nonselectively destroy rapidly dividing cells
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Chemotherapy and radiation
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DNA ______- and human genome data are being used to diagnose and manage cancer.
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Microassays
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Term used to describe the formation of new blood capillaries
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Angiogenesis
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A tumor that stays in place and does not invade surrounding tissue
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benign
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A lymphoma associated with Epstein Barr virus, very common in Africa
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Burkitt
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Monoclonal antibody drug that binds to the Her2 receptors
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Herceptin
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Mutations occuring in the non-sex cells are….
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Somatic
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A gene that causes cancer when inappropriately activated
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Oncogene
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Approximately what % of breast cancers are familial?
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5%
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_______ is a cancer associated with the Epstein Barr virus
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Burkitts
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Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene? P53, BRCA1, RB, Her2
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Her2
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