Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
75 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What are the two systems involved in maintaining homeostasis?
|
• autonomic nervous system
• endocrine system |
|
What hormones control the release of growth hormone?
|
• growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
• somatostatin (SS) |
|
What hormones control the release of prolactin?
|
• prolactin releasing-inhibiting hormone (PIH)
• prolactin releasing hormone (PRH) |
|
How is the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland stimulated?
|
from hormones via venous vessels from the posterior pituitary (hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system)
|
|
Where is ADH and oxytocin produced and stored?
|
• produced in the hypothalamus
• stored in the posterior lobe |
|
Which anterior pituitary hormones are not regulated by negative feedback?
|
• prolactin
• growth hormone |
|
The 2 lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by the thyroid isthmus. The thyroid isthmus is located at approximately which tracheal ring?
|
2nd tracheal ring
|
|
Which muscles cover the thyroid gland?
|
• Anteriorly: platysma
• Anterolaterally: sternocleidomastoid, sternohyoid, & sternothyroid muscles |
|
What arteries supply the thyroid gland?
|
• Superior thyroid arteries (1st branch of the external carotid artery)
• Inferior thyroid arteries (a branch of the thyrocervical trunk that arises from the subclavian artery) |
|
Which veins drain the thyroid gland?
|
superior, middle, and inferior thyroid veins
|
|
Which nerve can be injured during thyroid surgery?
|
recurrent laryngeal nerve
|
|
What are the 2 groups of hormone-producing cells of the thyroid gland?
|
• Follicular cells: produce, store, and release T4 and T3
• Parafollicular cells (C cells): secetes calcitonin |
|
Which thyroid hormone is more active?
|
T3
|
|
What is the storage form of thyroid hormone?
|
iodinated thyroglobulin
|
|
What is the function of calcitonin?
|
• inhibits osteoclast activity
• decreases serum calcium levels |
|
How is hyperthyroidism diagnosed?
|
• history & physical
• increased radioactive iodine uptake • increased T3 & T4 levels |
|
How can you determine wheter hyperthyroidism is putuitary dependent or independent?
|
• Pituitary-independent: serum TSH levels are decreased
• Pituitary-dependent: serum TSH levels are increased |
|
What is the immunoglobin that is asociated with Graves disease?
|
TSAb (a circulating IgG)
|
|
What are treatment options for hyperthyroidism?
|
• medically:
- Iodine (potassium iodine; Lugol's solution) - Propanolol - Propylthiouracil (PTU) - Methimazole (Tapazole) • radioactive iodine ablation • subtotal or total thyroidectomy |
|
What is the isotope of choice for the radioablation of hyperactive thyroid tissue?
|
I ^(131)
|
|
What is the treatment of choice for hyperthyroidism (Graves disease)?
|
radioactive iodine ablation
|
|
What is the treatment of choice for hyperthyroidism in pregnany women?
|
subtotal thyroidectomy
|
|
What is the a toxic adenoma?
|
• a solitary tumor of the thyroid gland
• produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormone • causes clinically overt hyperthyroidism |
|
How does the hyperthyroidism caused by toxic adenoma differ from Graves' disease?
|
• patients with toxic adenoma do not have associated ophthalmoopathy or pretibial myxedema
* toxic adenoma is not an autoimmune disease |
|
What is Plummer's disease?
|
toxic multinodular goiter
|
|
What is the difference between a "hot" and "cold" nodule?
|
• a hot nodule is a functional hyperplasia (usually not cancerous)
• a cold nodule is suggestive of carcinoma |
|
What is the treatment for pituitary or hypothalamic hypothyroidism?
|
hydrocortisone treatment before thyroid replacement therapy
|
|
True/False: A solitary nodule/lesion in a man is significantly more likely to be a malignant than a comparable nodule in a women
|
The correct answer is: True
|
|
What is a Pemberton's sign?
|
• raising the arms above the head, causing venous compression at the thoracic inlet with engorgement of the head and neck and a feeling of strangulation
• indicates compression in patients whose goiter is retrosternal |
|
What is the single most important study in evaluating a thyroid mass?
|
fine-needle aspiration cytology
|
|
What is the treatment of patients with solid nodules that are diagnosed as benign on fine-needle aspiration?
|
• monitor for 3-6 months
• treat with oral thyroid hormone to suppress TSH stimulation of tumor growth |
|
What is the treatment for patient with a thyroid nodule suspected of being cancer?
|
• intial procedure is thyroid lebectomy and isthmectomy
• if frozen-section analysis shows cancer, total thyroidectom is performed |
|
What are different types of thyroid carcinomas?
|
• Papillary carcinoma
• Follicular carcinoma • Medullary carcinoma • Anaplastic carcinoma • Lymphoma |
|
Which is the most common thyroid malignancy in the US, occuring in approximately 70%-80% of cases?
|
papillary carcinoma
|
|
Which type of thyroid carcinoma has the worst prognosis?
|
medullary carcinoma
|
|
Which nodule is more suspicious for cancer, lateral or midline nodules?
|
lateral nodules
|
|
What are symptoms of hyperparathyroidism?
|
"stones, bones, moans, groans, and psychic overtones"
• renal calculi • decalcified bones • puptic ulcer and pancreatitis • diffuse joint and muscle pains • depression or worsening psychosis |
|
What are the different types of hyperparathyroidism?
|
• Primary: hyperplasia, adenoma or carcinoma
• Secondary: from hypocalcemia • Tertiary: chronnic form of secondary type |
|
What are the 3 distinct lesions that can cause primary hyperparathyroidism?
|
• parathyroid adenoma (85%)
• parathyroid hyperplasia (15%) • parathyroi carcinoma (<1%) |
|
What are some causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism?
|
• renal failure
• vitamin D deficiency |
|
What is the most common cause of outpatient hypercalcemia?
|
primary hyperparathyroidism
|
|
What is the most frequent source of inpatient hypercalcemia?
|
malignancy (either by paraneoplastic syndrome or bony metastases)
|
|
What are some tumors of epithelial origin that may produce PTH and cause hypercalcemia?
|
• bronchial squamous cell carcinoma (most common)
• breast tumors • renal tumors • ovarian tumors |
|
What are other cause of hypercalcemia that do not elevate parathyroid-hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)?
|
• bone destruction by primary cancer (ex. multiple myeloma)
• granulomatous lesions activating Vitamin D (ex. sarcoidosis) • lytic bone metastases • Vitamin D analogues (ex. lymphoma) |
|
What are options for medical management of hypercalcemia?
|
• saline
• loop diuretics • drugs (ex. bisphosphonates, calcitonin) • acute dialysis |
|
What is the surgical treatment for a single gland adenoma?
|
resection of the tumor
|
|
What is the surgical treatment of parathyroid hyperplasia?
|
subtotal (3½ gland) resection
|
|
What are the arteries that supply the adrenal gland?
|
superior, middle, and inferior adrenal arteries
|
|
Where do the left and right adrenal veins drain?
|
• right adrenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava
• left adrenal vein drains into the left renal vein |
|
What is unusual about the innervation of the adrenal medulla?
|
there are no postganglionic cells
|
|
What are the 3 layers of the adrenal cortex and what hormones does each layer produce?
|
• Outer zona glomerulosa: secretes mineralocorticoids (ex. aldosterone)
• Middle zona fasiculata: secretes glucocorticoids (ex. cortisol) • Inner zona reticularis: secretes adrenal androgens (ex. progesterone, androgen) |
|
What is the imaging modality of choice for adrenal cortical carcinomas?
|
CT scan
|
|
What is the treatment of choice adrenal carcinoma?
|
surgical excision with removal of all visible tumors
• adrenalectomy and excision of involved regional lymph nodes (in early disease) • ipsilateral nephrectomy and resection of contiguous structures or hepatic metastases with presence of local invasion of visceral metastases |
|
What is the organ of Zuckerkandl?
|
• an area of chromaffin tissue inferior to the take-off of the inferior mesenteric artery and anterior to the aorta
• a possible location of pheochromocytoma |
|
Surgical excision is the standard of care for pheochromocytoma. What must be done first to prepare the patient for surgery?
|
administration of the alpha-adrenergic blocking agent phenoxybenzamine to control blood pressure
|
|
Adrenal insufficiency is an important postoperative complication of adrenalectomy. What are common signs and symptoms of adrenal insufficiency?
|
• abdominal pain
• fatigability • hyperkalemia • hyponatremia • nausea/vomiting • postural hypotension • weakness |
|
When should an adrenal incidentaloma be excised?
|
• if its hyperfunctional
• larger than 6 cm (due to high likelihood of malignancy) |
|
Which neurotransmitters are pre- and post-ganglionic?
|
• pre-gangilonic: ACH
• post-ganglionic: epinephrine |
|
The effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine are similar in many ways. In what ways do their effects differ?
|
• Epinephrine activated the reticular formation in the brain, while norepi has little effect
• Epinephrine promotes the breakdown of glycogen to glucose and causes hyperglycemia, while norepi has little effect on blood sugar |
|
How can very low and very high levels of ACTH help differentiate the etiology of Cushing's syndrome?
|
• very low levels of ACTH indicate hyperadrenocorticism due to primary adrenal causes (ex. adenoma, nodular hyperplasia, or carcinoma)
• very high levels of ACTH are diganostic for a pituitary adenoma or ectopic ACTH secretion |
|
What is the most common cause of ectopic ACTH production?
|
• bronchial carcnoids
• lung cancer |
|
What is the treatment of choice for a solitary adrenal adenoma?
|
unilateral adrenalectomy
|
|
What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome?
|
• hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal gland during the course of meningococcemia
• causes marked hypotension, purpura, fever, shock |
|
What are the 4 multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes?
|
• MEN-1
• MEN-2A • MEN-2B • Familial medullary thyroid carcinoma |
|
What is MEN-1?
|
• parathyroid hyperplasiam
• pituitary adenoma (prolactin is most common) • pancreatic islet cell carcinoma • carcinoid tumors and lipomas |
|
What is the most common endocrine disorder in MEN-1?
|
primary hyperparathyroidism (occurs in 90% of cases)
|
|
What is the most common functional and non-functional islet cell neoplasm of MEN-1?
|
• functional: gastrinoma
• non-functional: islet cell neoplasm that secretes pancreatic polypeptide |
|
What is MEN-2A?
|
• medullary thyroid cancer
• pheochromocytoma • primary hyperparathyroidism |
|
What is MEN-2B?
|
• medullary cancer of the thyroid
• pheochromocytoma • gangloneuromas |
|
What are characteristics of Familial Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma?
|
• medullary thyroid carcinoma as the their only inherited endocrine disorder
• arised from the parafollicular (or C cells) of the thyroid |
|
What is the gene responsibile for MEN-2A, MEN-2B, FMTC?
|
RET protooncogene on chromosome 10
|
|
What is the treatment for MEN-1?
|
• resection of pituitary adenoma
• parathyroidectomy • pharmacologic or surgical management of pancreatic tumor |
|
What is the treatment for MEN-2?
|
• resect pheochromocytoma
• total parathyroidectomy |
|
When should a RET-positive patients with MEN-2A undergo total thyroidectomy? with MEN-2B?
|
• MEN-2A: before 6 years-old
• MEN-2B: before 6 months-old |
|
What is the characteristic phenotype of MEN-2B?
|
• bumpy tongue
• hyperflexible joints • marfanoid habitus • prognathism • puffy lips |