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150 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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1] Structurally, what are the two main categories of
semiconductor diodes?

a} Junction and point contact.

b} Electrolytic and junction.

c} Electrolytic and point contact.

d} Vacuum and point contact.
a} Junction and point contact.
2] What are the two primary classifications of Zener diodes?

a} Hot carrier and tunnel.

b} Varactor and rectifying.

c} Voltage regulator and voltage reference.

d} Forward and reversed biased.
c} Voltage regulator and voltage reference.
3] What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode?

a} A constant current under conditions of varying voltage.

b} A constant voltage under conditions of varying current.

c} A negative resistance region.

d} An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage.
b} A constant voltage under conditions of varying current.
4] What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener
diodes?

a} 2.4 volts to 200 volts.

b} 1.2 volts to 7 volts.

c} 3 volts to 2000 volts.

d} 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts.
a} 2.4 volts to 200 volts.
5] What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?

a} A high forward resistance.

b} A very high PIV(peak inverse voltage).

c} A negative resistance region.

d} A high forward current rating.
c} A negative resistance region.
6] What special type of diode is capable of both amplification
and oscillation?

a} Point contact diodes.

b} Zener diodes.

c} Tunnel diodes.

d} Junction diodes.
c} Tunnel diodes.
7] What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal
capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies?

a} A varactor diode.

b} A tunnel diode.

c} A silicon-controlled rectifier.

d} A Zener diode.
a} A varactor diode.
8] What is the principal characteristic of a varactor diode?

a} It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying current.

b} Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage.

c} It has a negative resistance region.

d} It has a very high PIV(peak inverse voltage).
b} Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage.
9] What is a common use of a varactor diode?

a} As a constant current source.

b} As a constant voltage source.

c} As a voltage controlled inductance.

d} As a voltage controlled capacitance.
d} As a voltage controlled capacitance.
10] What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

a} As balanced inputs in SSB generation.

b} As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control
circuit.

c} As a constant voltage reference in a power supply.

d} As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors.
d} As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors.
11] What limits the maximum forward current in a junction
diode?

a} The peak inverse voltage(PIV).

b} The junction temperature.

c} The forward voltage.

d} The back EMF.
b} The junction temperature.
12] How are junction diodes rated?

a} Maximum forward current and capacitance.

b} Maximum reverse current and PIV(peak inverse voltage).

c} Maximum reverse current and capacitance.

d} Maximum forward current and PIV(peak inverse voltage).
d} Maximum forward current and PIV(peak inverse voltage).
13] What is a common use for point contact diodes?

a} As a constant current source.

b} As a constant voltage source.

c} As an RF detector.

d} As a high voltage rectifier.
c} As an RF detector.
14] What type of diode is made of a metal whisker touching a
very small semiconductor die?

a} Zener diode.

b} Varactor diode.

c} Junction diode.

d} Point contact diode.
d} Point contact diode.
15] What is one common use for PIN diodes?

a} As a constant current source.

b} As a constant voltage source.

c} As an RF switch.

d} As a high voltage rectifier.
c} As an RF switch.
16] What special type of diode is often used in RF switches,
attenuators, and various types of phase shifting devices?

a} Tunnel diodes.

b} Varactor diodes.

c} PIN diodes.

d} Junction diodes.
c} PIN diodes.
17] What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?

a} Cathode, plate and grid.

b} Base, collector and emitter.

c} Gate, source and sink.

d} Input, output and ground.
b} Base, collector and emitter.
18] What is the meaning of the term alpha with regard to
bipolar transistors?

a} The change of collector current with respect to base current.

b} The change of base current with respect to collector current.

c} The change of collector current with respect to emitter
current.

d} The change of collector current with respect to gate current.
c} The change of collector current with respect to emitter
current.
19] What is the term used to express the ratio of change in DC
collector current to a change in emitter current in a bipolar
transistor?

a} Gamma.


b} Epsilon.

c} Alpha.

d} Beta.
c} Alpha.
20] What is the meaning of the term beta with regard to
bipolar transistors?

a} The change of collector current with respect to base
current.

b} The change of base current with respect to emitter current.

c} The change of collector current with respect to emitter
current.

d} The change in base current with respect to gate current.
a} The change of collector current with respect to base
current.
21] What is the term used to express the ratio of change in
the DC collector current to a change in base current in a bipolar
transistor?

a} Alpha.

b} Beta.

c} Gamma.

d} Delta.
b} Beta.
22] What is the meaning of the term alpha cutoff frequency
with regard to bipolar transistors?

a} The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common
emitter configuration.

b} The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common
base configuration.

c} The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common
base configuration.

d} The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common
emitter configuration.
b} The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common
base configuration.
23] What is the term used to express that frequency at which
the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.707 of the gain
obtainable at 1 kHz in a bipolar transistor?


a} Corner frequency.

b} Alpha cutoff frequency.

c} Beta cutoff frequency.

d} Alpha rejection frequency.
b} Alpha cutoff frequency.
24] What is the meaning of the term beta cutoff frequency
with regard to a bipolar transistor?

a} That frequency at which the grounded base current gain has
decreased to 0.707 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor.

b} That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has
decreased to 0.707 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor.

c} That frequency at which the grounded collector current gain
has decreased to 0.707 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a
transistor.

d} That frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has
decreased to 0.707 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor.
b} That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has
decreased to 0.707 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor.
25] What is the meaning of the term transition region with
regard to a transistor?

a} An area of low charge density around the P-N junction.

b} The area of maximum P-type charge.

c} The area of maximum N-type charge.

d} The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-type
material.
a} An area of low charge density around the P-N junction.
26] What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated?

a} The collector current is at its maximum value.

b} The collector current is at its minimum value.

c} The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value.

d} The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value.
a} The collector current is at its maximum value.
27] What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off?

a} There is no base current.


b} The transistor is at its Class A operating point.

c} There is no current between emitter and collector.

d} There is maximum current between emitter and collector.
c} There is no current between emitter and collector.
28] What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?

a} Base 1, base 2, and emitter.

b} Gate, cathode, and anode.

c} Gate, base 1, and base 2.

d} Gate, source, and sink.
a} Base 1, base 2, and emitter.
29] For best efficiency and stability, where on the load-line
should a solid-state power amplifier be operated?

a} Just below the saturation point.

b} Just above the saturation point.

c} At the saturation point.

d} At 1.414 times the saturation point.
a} Just below the saturation point.
30] What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices
exhibit both metallic and non-metallic characteristics?

a} Silicon and gold.

b} Silicon and germanium.

c} Galena and germanium.

d} Galena and bismuth.
b} Silicon and germanium.
31] What are the three terminals of an SCR?

a} Anode, cathode, and gate.

b} Gate, source, and sink.

c} Base, collector, and emitter.

d} Gate, base 1, and base 2.
a} Anode, cathode, and gate.
32] What are the two stable operating conditions of an SCR?

a} Conducting and nonconducting.

b} Oscillating and quiescent.

c} Forward conducting and reverse conducting.

d} NPN conduction and PNP conduction.
a} Conducting and nonconducting.
33] When an SCR is in the triggered or on condition, its
electrical characteristics are similar to what other solid-state
device (as measured between its cathode and anode)?

a} The junction diode.

b} The tunnel diode.

c} The hot-carrier diode.

d} The varactor diode.
a} The junction diode.
34] Under what operating condition does an SCR exhibit
electrical characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon
rectifier?

a} During a switching transition.

b} When it is used as a detector.

c} When it is gated "off".

d} When it is gated "on".
d} When it is gated "on".
35] What is the transistor called which is fabricated as two
complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal?

a} TRIAC.

b} Bilateral SCR.

c} Unijunction transistor.

d} Field effect transistor.
a} TRIAC.
36] What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?

a} Emitter, base 1, and base 2.

b} Gate, anode 1, and anode 2.


c} Base, emitter, and collector.

d} Gate, source, and sink.
b} Gate, anode 1, and anode 2.
37] What is the normal operating voltage and current for a
light-emitting diode?

a} 60 volts and 20 mA.

b} 5 volts and 50 mA.

c} 1.7 volts and 20 mA.

d} 0.7 volts and 60 mA.
c} 1.7 volts and 20 mA.
38] What type of bias is required for an LED to produce
luminescence?

a} Reverse bias.

b} Forward bias.

c} Zero bias.

d} Inductive bias.
b} Forward bias.
39] What is the name of the semiconductor IC that has a
fixed pattern of digital data stored in its memory matrix?

a} RAM--Random-Access Memory.

b} ROM--Read-Only Memory.

c} Register.

d} Latch.
b} ROM--Read-Only Memory.
40] What colors are available in LEDs?

a} Yellow, blue, red, and brown.

b} Red, violet, yellow, and peach.

c} Violet, blue, orange, and red.

d} Red, green, orange, and yellow.
d} Red, green, orange, and yellow.
41] How can a neon lamp be used to check for the presence of
RF?

a} A neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF.

b} A neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF.

c} A neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low
frequency (VLF) signal.

d} A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF.
d} A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF.
42] What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice
band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone emission?

a} 6 kHz at -6 dB.

b} 2.1 kHz at -6 dB.

c} 500 Hz at -6 dB.

d} 15 kHz at -6 dB.
b} 2.1 kHz at -6 dB.
43] What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice
band-pass filter for a double-sideband phone emission?

a} 1 kHz at -6 dB.

b} 500 Hz at -6 dB.

c} 6 kHz at -6 dB.

d} 15 kHz at -6 dB.
c} 6 kHz at -6 dB.
44] What is a crystal lattice filter?

a} A power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz crystals.

b} An audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz
intervals.

c} A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using
quartz crystals.

d} A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using
quartz crystals.
d} A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using
quartz crystals.
45] What technique can be used to construct low cost, high
performance crystal lattice filters?

a} Splitting and tumbling.


b} Tumbling and grinding.

c} Etching and splitting.

d} Etching and grinding.
d} Etching and grinding.
46] What determines the bandwidth and response shape in a
crystal lattice filter?

a} The relative frequencies of the individual crystals.

b} The center frequency chosen for the filter.

c} The amplitude of the RF stage preceding the filter.

d} The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter.
a} The relative frequencies of the individual crystals.
47] What is an enhancement-mode FET?

a} An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate.

b} An FET with a channel that allows a current when the gate
voltage is zero.

c} An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate.

d} An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate
voltage.
d} An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate
voltage.
48] What is a depletion-mode FET?

a} An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a
current flows with zero gate voltage.

b} An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate
voltage is zero.

c} An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate
voltage.

d} An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate.
a} An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a
current flows with zero gate voltage.
49] Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective
Zener diodes?

a} The gate-protective Zener diode provides a voltage reference
to provide the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage.

b} The gate-protective Zener diode protects the substrate from
excessive voltages.

c} The gate-protective Zener diode keeps the gate voltage within
specifications to prevent the device from overheating.

d} The gate-protective Zener diode prevents the gate insulation
from being punctured by small static charges or excessive
voltages.
d} The gate-protective Zener diode prevents the gate insulation
from being punctured by small static charges or excessive
voltages.
50] What do the initials CMOS stand for?

a} Common mode oscillating system.

b} Complementary mica-oxide silicon.

c} Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor.

d} Complementary metal-oxide substrate.
c} Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor.
51] Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and
CMOS devices?

a} They are susceptible to damage from static charges.

b} They have fragile leads that may break off.

c} They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that are
susceptible to breakage.

d} They are light sensitive.
a} They are susceptible to damage from static charges.
52] How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor
compare with that of a bipolar transistor?

a} One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing the
supply voltage.

b} An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high
input impedance.

c} The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the
same.

d} An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low
input impedance.
d} An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low
input impedance.
53] What are the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

a} Gate 1, gate 2, drain.

b} Emitter, base, collector.

c} Emitter, base 1, base 2.

d} Gate, drain, source.
d} Gate, drain, source.
54] What are the two basic types of junction field-effect
transistors?

a} N-channel and P-channel.

b} High power and low power.

c} MOSFET and GaAsFET.

d} Silicon FET and germanium FET.
a} N-channel and P-channel.
55] What is an operational amplifier?

a} A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose
characteristics are determined by components external to the
amplifier unit.

b} A high-gain, direct-coupled audio amplifier whose
characteristics are determined by components external to the
amplifier unit.

c} An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency
modulated signals.

d} A program subroutine that calculates the gain of an RF
amplifier.
a} A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose
characteristics are determined by components external to the
amplifier unit.
56] What would be the characteristics of the ideal op-amp?

a} Zero input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite
gain, flat frequency response.

b} Infinite input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite
gain, flat frequency response.

c} Zero input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain,
flat frequency response.

d} Infinite input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite
gain, flat frequency response.
b} Infinite input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite
gain, flat frequency response.
57] What determines the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?

a} The external feedback network.


b} The collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage.

c} The power supply voltage.

d} The PNP collector load.
a} The external feedback network.
58] What is meant by the term op-amp offset voltage?

a} The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage.

b} The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and
the input voltage required in the following stage.

c} The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the
op-amp in a closed-loop condition.

d} The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the
op-amp in an open-loop condition.
c} The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the
op-amp in a closed-loop condition.
59] What is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal
op-amp?

a} 100 ohms.

b} 1000 ohms.

c} Very low.

d} Very high.
d} Very high.
60] What is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal
op-amp?

a} Very low.

b} Very high.

c} 100 ohms.

d} 1000 ohms.
a} Very low.
61] What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

a} An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector,
reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator.

b} An electronic circuit also known as a monostable
multivibrator.

c} An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull
amplifier with a differential input.

d} An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a
low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator.
d} An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a
low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator.
62] What functions are performed by a phase-locked loop?

a} Wideband AF and RF power amplification.

b} Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse
counter.

c} Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling.

d} Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation.
d} Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation.
63] A circuit compares the output from a voltage-controlled
oscillator and a frequency standard. The difference between the
two frequencies produces an error voltage that changes the
voltage-controlled oscillator frequency. What is the name of the
circuit?

a} A doubly balanced mixer.

b} A phase-locked loop.

c} A differential voltage amplifier.

d} A variable frequency oscillator.
b} A phase-locked loop.
64] What do the initials TTL stand for?

a} Resistor-transistor logic.

b} Transistor-transistor logic.

c} Diode-transistor logic.

d} Emitter-coupled logic.
b} Transistor-transistor logic.
65] What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL
series integrated circuits?

a} 12.00 volts.

b} 50.00 volts.

c} 5.00 volts.

d} 13.60 volts.
c} 5.00 volts.
66] What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if
they are left open?

a} A high logic state.

b} A low logic state.

c} The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent
high or low logic states.

d} Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored.
a} A high logic state.
67] What is the range of input voltages considered to be a
logic high input in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt power
supply?

a} 2.0 to 5.5 volts.

b} 1.5 to 3.0 volts.

c} 1.0 to 1.5 volts.

d} -5.0 to -2.0 volts.
a} 2.0 to 5.5 volts.
68] What is the range of input voltages considered to be a
logic low in a CMOS device operating with an 18-volt power
supply?

a} -0.8 to 0.0 volts.

b} 0.0 to 5.4 volts.

c} 0.0 to 0.8 volts.

d} -0.8 to 0.4 volts.
b} 0.0 to 5.4 volts.
69] Why do circuits containing TTL devices have several bypass
capacitors per printed circuit board?

a} To prevent RFI to receivers.

b} To keep the switching noise within the circuit, thus
eliminating RFI.

c} To filter out switching harmonics.

d} To prevent switching transients from appearing on the supply
line.
d} To prevent switching transients from appearing on the supply
line.
70] What is a CMOS IC?

a} A chip with only P-channel transistors.

b} A chip with P-channel and N-channel transistors.

c} A chip with only N-channel transistors.

d} A chip with only bipolar transistors.
b} A chip with P-channel and N-channel transistors.
71] What is one major advantage of CMOS over other devices?

a} Small size.

b} Low current consumption.

c} Low cost.

d} Ease of circuit design.
b} Low current consumption.
72] Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity
to noise on the input signal or power supply?

a} Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design.

b} The input switching threshold is about two times the power
supply voltage.

c} The input switching threshold is about one-half the power
supply voltage.

d} Input signals are stronger.
c} The input switching threshold is about one-half the power
supply voltage.
73] Signal energy is coupled into a traveling-wave tube at:

a} Collector end of helix.

b} Anode end of the helix.

c} Cathode end of the helix.

d} Focusing coils.
c} Cathode end of the helix.
74] Permanent magnetic field that surrounds a traveling-wave
tube (TWT) is intended to:

a} Provide a means of coupling.

b} Prevent the electron beam from spreading.

c} Prevent oscillations.

d} Prevent spurious oscillations.
b} Prevent the electron beam from spreading.
75] Electromagnetic coils encase a traveling wave tube to:

a} Provide a means of coupling energy.

b} Prevent the electron beam from spreading.

c} Prevent oscillation.

d} Prevent spurious oscillation.
b} Prevent the electron beam from spreading.
76] When a doped semiconductor crystal is formed against a
metal conductor, what type of diode is created?

a} Schottky diode.

b} Tunnel diode.

c} Varactor diode.

d} Zener diode.
a} Schottky diode.
77] What type of diode contains no minority carriers in the
junction region?

a} Tunnel diode.

b} Varactor diode.

c} Zener diode.

d} Hot-carrier diode.
d} Hot-carrier diode.
78] Mounting an LED facing a photodiode cell in a tiny
light-tight enclosure produces a:

a} Seven segment LED.

b} Opto-isolator.

c} Opto-interrupter.

d} Photonic device.
b} Opto-isolator.
79] Most bipolar junction transistors have a ____ doped and
____ emitter region compared to the base and collector regions..

a} Heavily, thin.

b} Heavily, small.

c} Lightly, thin.

d} Lightly, small.
b} Heavily, small.
80] Most bipolar junction transistors have a ____ doped and
____ base region compared to the emitter and collector regions..

a} Heavily, thin.

b} Heavily, small.

c} Lightly, thin.

d} Lightly, small.
c} Lightly, thin.
81] Most bipolar junction transistors have a ____ doped and
____ collector region compared to the base and emitter regions..

a} Heavily, large.

b} Heavily, small.

c} Lightly, thin.

d} Medium, large.
d} Medium, large.
82] A common emitter amplifier has:.

a} More current gain than common base or common collector.

b} More voltage gain than common base or common collector.

c} More power gain than common base or common collector.

d} Highest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations.
c} More power gain than common base or common collector.
83] A common base amplifier has:.

a} More current gain than common emitter or common collector.

b} More voltage gain than common emitter or common collector.

c} More power gain than common emitter or common collector.

d} Highest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations.
b} More voltage gain than common emitter or common collector.
84] An emitter-follower amplifier has:.

a} More current gain than common emitter or common base.

b} More voltage gain than common emitter or common base.

c} More power gain than common emitter or common base.

d} Lowest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations.
a} More current gain than common emitter or common base.
85] The JFET's ____________ is the ratio of drain-source
voltage change to gate-source voltage change with drain current
constant.

a} Amplification factor.

b} Dynamic drain resistance.

c} Transconductance.

d} Pinch-off voltage.
a} Amplification factor.
86] The JFET's ____________ is the ratio of drain-source
voltage change to drain current change with the gate-source
voltage constant.

a} Amplification factor.

b} Dynamic drain resistance.

c} Transconductance.

d} Pinch-off voltage.
b} Dynamic drain resistance.
87] The JFET's ____________ is the ratio of drain current
change to gate-source voltage change with drain-source voltage
constant.

a} Amplification factor.

b} Dynamic drain resistance.

c} Transconductance.

d} Pinch-off voltage.
c} Transconductance.
88] When working with JFET's the following terms are used:
amplification factor, dynamic drain resistance, and
transconductance. Which of the following relationships is
correct?

a} dynamic drain resistance = transconductance / amplification
factor.

b} transconductance = dynamic drain resistance / amplification
factor.

c} amplification factor = dynamic drain resistance /
transconductance.

d} amplification factor = dynamic drain resistance *
tranconductance.
d} amplification factor = dynamic drain resistance *
tranconductance.
89] What describes a diode junction that is forward biased?

a} It is a high impedance.

b} It conducts very little current.

c} It is a low impedance.

d} It is an open circuit.
c} It is a low impedance.
90] What describes a diode junction that is reverse biased?

a} It is a short circuit.

b} It conducts a large current.

c} It is a low impedance.

d} It is a high impedance.
d} It is a high impedance.
91] What conditions exist when an NPN transistor is
operating as a Class A amplifier?

a} The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the
collector-base junction is reverse biased.

b} The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are
both forward biased.

c} The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are
both reverse biased.

d} The base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the
collector-base junction is forward biased.
a} The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the
collector-base junction is reverse biased.
92] What conditions exist when a transistor is operating in
saturation?

a} The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are
both forward biased.

b} The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are
both reverse biased.

c} The base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the
collector-base junction is forward biased.

d} The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the
collector-base junction is reverse biased.
a} The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are
both forward biased.
93] What voltage is required on a silicon NPN switching
transistor's base-emitter junction to cause current between
collector and emitter?

a} The base must be at least 0.4 volts positive with respect to
the emitter.

b} The base must be at a negative voltage with respect to the
emitter.

c} The base must be at least 0.7 volts positive with respect to
the emitter.

d} The base must be at least 0.7 volts negative with respect to
the emitter.
c} The base must be at least 0.7 volts positive with respect to
the emitter.
94] What voltage is required on a silicon PNP switching
transistor's base-emitter junction to cause current between
collector and emitter?

a} The base must be at least 0.7 volts negative with respect to
the emitter.

b} The base must be at least 0.4 volts negative with respect to
the emitter.

c} The base must be positive with respect to the emitter.

d} The base must be at least 0.4 volts positive with respect to
the emitter.
a} The base must be at least 0.7 volts negative with respect to
the emitter.
95] What semiconductor device controls current between
source and drain due to a variable width channel controlled by a
voltage applied between gate and source?

a} A bipolar transistor (BJT).

b} A field-effect transistor (FET).

c} A gate-controlled diode.

d} A PNP transistor.
b} A field-effect transistor (FET).
96] What are the operating modes for field-effect
transistors?

a} Transition and depletion modes.

b} Enhancement and transition modes.

c} Transition and non-transition modes.

d} Depletion and enhancement modes.
d} Depletion and enhancement modes.
97] What is an enhancement-mode FET?

a} An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate.

b} An FET with a channel that allows a current between source
and drain when the gate voltage is zero.

c} An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate.

d} An FET without a channel; no current between source and drain
with zero gate voltage.
d} An FET without a channel; no current between source and drain
with zero gate voltage.
98] What is a depletion-mode FET?

a} An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; there
is current between source and drain when the gate voltage is
zero.

b} An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate
voltage is zero.

c} An FET without a channel; there is no current from source to
drain with zero gate voltage.

d} An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate.
a} An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; there
is current between source and drain when the gate voltage is
zero.
99] What is a silicon integrated circuit (IC)?

a} A complex semiconductor device containing within it all the
circuit components interconnected on a single chip of silicon.

b} A large number of discrete components wired together on a
silicon substrate.

c} Individual components integrated together on a printed wiring
board.

d} A circuit of discrete individual silicon components.
a} A complex semiconductor device containing within it all the
circuit components interconnected on a single chip of silicon.
100] What are the advantages of using an LED?

a} Low power consumption and long life.

b} High lumens per cm squared and low power consumption.

c} High lumens per cm squared and low voltage requirement.

d} A current flows when the device is exposed to a light source.
a} Low power consumption and long life.
101] What determines the visible color radiated by an LED?

a} The color of a lens in an eyepiece.

b} The amount of voltage across the device.

c} The amount of current through the device.

d} The materials used to construct the device.
d} The materials used to construct the device.
102] What level of input voltage is considered a logic low
in a TTL device operating with a 5 volt power supply?

a} -2.0 to -5.5 volts.

b} 2.0 to 5.5 volts.

c} 0.0 to 0.8 volts.

d} -0.8 to 0.4 volts.
c} 0.0 to 0.8 volts.
103] Where is the external feedback network connected to
control the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?

a} From output to inverting input.

b} From output to non-inverting input.

c} Across the output.

d} Across the input.
a} From output to inverting input.
104] What is the name of the semiconductor memory IC whose
digital data can be written or read, and whose memory word
address can be accessed randomly?

a} ROM--Read-Only Memory.

b} PROM--Programmable Read-Only Memory.

c} RAM--Random-Access Memory.

d} EPROM--Electrically Programmable Read-Only Memory.
c} RAM--Random-Access Memory.
105] What is the name of the random-accessed semiconductor
memory IC that must be refreshed periodically to maintain
reliable data storage in its memory matrix?

a} ROM--Read-Only Memory.

b} PROM--Programmable Read-Only Memory.

c} PRAM--Programmable Random-Access Memory.

d} DRAM--Dynamic Random-Access Memory.
d} DRAM--Dynamic Random-Access Memory.
106] What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice
band-pass filter for weather facsimile HF (high frequency)
reception?

a} 1 kHz at -6 dB.

b} 500 Hz at -6 dB.

c} 6 kHz at -6 dB.

d} 15 kHz at -6 dB.
b} 500 Hz at -6 dB.
107] The capacitance of a varactor ____ as the ____ bias is
increased. Assume proper bias to use the diode as a varactor.

a} Increases, forward.

b} Increases, reverse.

c} Decreases, forward.

d} Decreases, reverse.
d} Decreases, reverse.
108] The screen grid was added to vacuum tubes to reduce
____ and draw space-charge electrons from the cathode through the
control grid wires.

a} Mu.

b} Transconductance.

c} Plate-impedance values.

d} Grid-plate capacitance.
d} Grid-plate capacitance.
109] When working with tetrodes, as long as plate-voltage is
greater than screen-grid voltage, what effect on plate current
would be noticed if you doubled plate voltage?

a} Plate current would be decreased by a factor of 1/2.

b} Plate current would be increased by a factor of 2.

c} Plate current would barely increase.

d} Plate current would be increased by a factor equal to Mu.
c} Plate current would barely increase.
110] Which of the following is not an advantage of using
pentodes.

a} Usually requires no neutralization in high frequency circuits.

b} Higher Mu than triodes or tetrodes.

c} Higher secondary emission resulting in greater plate
current.

d} Better shielding between plate and control grid.
c} Higher secondary emission resulting in greater plate
current.
111] Which of the following is not an advantage of gaseous
tubes.


a} Little heat dissipation.

b} Carry relatively low currents.

c} High efficiency.

d} Relatively constant voltage-drop across them.
b} Carry relatively low currents.
112] A pulse width modulator IC would most likely be found
in which of the following:

a} Ringing choke power supply.

b} Solid-state DC to DC converter.

c} Crowbar protection circuit.

d} Shunt regulator with error-signal amp.
a} Ringing choke power supply.
113] An 800 kHz crystal, calibrated at 40 degrees Celsius
and having a temperature coefficient of -30 parts per million per
degree Celsius, will resonate at what frequency when operated at
60 degrees Celsius?

a} 799.52 kHz.

b} 799.40 kHz.

c} 800.60 kHz.

d} 800.48 kHz.
a} 799.52 kHz.
114] An 800 kHz crystal, calibrated at 40 degrees Celsius
and having a temperature coefficient of +30 parts per million per
degree Celsius, will resonate at what frequency when operated at
60 degrees C.?

a} 799.52 kHz.

b} 799.40 kHz.

c} 800.60 kHz.

d} 800.48 kHz.
d} 800.48 kHz.
115] Which of the following does not have a negative
resistance region?

a} Dynatron.

b} Tunnel diode.

c} Unijunction transistor.

d} Schottky diode.
d} Schottky diode.
116] A phase-locked loop IC could be used in all of the
following applications except:

a} Frequency-shift keying (FSK).

b} Horizontal sweep AFC.

c} Frequency synthesis.

d} Phase-shift oscillator.
d} Phase-shift oscillator.
117] Which of the following logic gates will provide an
active high out when both inputs are active high?

a} AND.

b} NAND.

c} NOR.

d} XOR.
a} AND.
118] Which of the following logic gates will provide an
active low out when both inputs are active high?

a} AND.

b} NAND.

c} OR.

d} XNOR.
b} NAND.
119] Which of the following logic gates will provide an
active high out when any input is active high?

a} AND.

b} NAND.

c} OR.

d} NOR.
c} OR.
120] Which of the following logic gates will provide an
active low out when any input is active high?

a} AND.

b} NAND.

c} OR.

d} NOR.
d} NOR.
121] Which of the following logic gates will provide an
active high out only when all inputs are different?

a} OR.

b} NOR.

c} XOR.

d} XNOR.
c} XOR.
122] Which of the following logic gates will provide an
active low out only when all inputs are different?

a} OR.

b} NOR.

c} XOR.

d} XNOR.
d} XNOR.
123] Which of the following inputs to a D flip-flop are
considered to be asynchronous?

a} D, CLK.

b} PRE, CLR.

c} D, PRE.

d} CLK, CLR.
b} PRE, CLR.
124] Which of the following inputs to a J-K flip-flop are
considered to be synchronous?

a} J, K.

b} PRE, CLR.

c} CLK, PRE.

d} Q, CLR.
a} J, K.
125] An R-S flip-flop is capable of doing all of the
following except:.

a} Accept data input into R-S inputs with CLK initiated.

b} Accept data input into PRE and CLR inputs without CLK being
initiated.

c} Refuse to accept synchronous data if asynchronous data is
being input at same time.

d} Operate in toggle mode with R-S inputs held constant and CLK
initiated.
d} Operate in toggle mode with R-S inputs held constant and CLK
initiated.
126] The toggle mode of operation, achieved by applying a
string of CLK pulses, is a normal operation mode for which of the
following? .

a} D flip-flop.

b} R-S flip-flop.

c} J-K flip-flop.

d} Bistable Multivibrator.
c} J-K flip-flop.
127] How many R-S flip-flops would be required to construct
an 8 bit storage register?

a} 2.

b} 4.

c} 8.

d} 16.
c} 8.
128] How many J-K flip-flops would be required to construct
a MOD 16 ripple counter?

a} 2.

b} 4.

c} 8.

d} 16.
b} 4.
129] How many D flip-flops would be required to construct a
MOD 16 ring counter?

a} 2.

b} 4.

c} 8.

d} 16.
d} 16.
130] If an input CLK frequency of 160 kHz is applied to a
four bit ripple counter capable of achieving full count before
roll-over, what frequency can you expect to measure at the MSB
output?

a} 10 kHz.

b} 20 kHz.

c} 40 kHz.

d} 320 kHz.
a} 10 kHz.
131] If a CLK frequency of 160 kHz is applied to the
Count-Up input pin of a BCD counting chip, what will be the
frequency available at the Carry-Out pin of that same chip?
(assume all other inputs are proper).

a} 10 kHz.

b} 16 kHz.

c} 160 kHz.

d} 320 kHz.
b} 16 kHz.
132] Which of the following are contained in an LCD display?


a} Semi-conductor P-N junctions.

b} Light emitting diodes.

c} Photovoltaic material.

d} Nematic fluid.
d} Nematic fluid.
133] Which of the following is not an analog to digital
converter?

a} Digital-ramp ADC.

b} Successive approximation ADC.

c} Flash ADC.

d} R/2R ladder ADC.
d} R/2R ladder ADC.
134] A -- NOTed OR, bubbled OR, or negative OR -- gate
performs the same logic function as which of the following gates?


a} AND.

b} NAND.

c} XOR.

d} XNOR.
b} NAND.
135] A -- NOTed AND, bubbled AND, or negative AND -- gate
performs the same logic function as which of the following gates?

a} OR.

b} NOR.

c} XOR.

d} XNOR.
b} NOR.
136] Which of the following logic functions can not be
duplicated when using a single IC containing quad 2-input NAND
gates? (you can use all available gates contained in the one IC
mentioned).

a} AND.

b} XOR.

c} OR.

d} NOR.
b} XOR.
137] Which of the following logic functions would require
the fewest number of NOR gates to duplicate?


a} AND.

b} NAND.

c} XOR.

d} XNOR.
a} AND.
138] Which of the following applications usually requires a
parallel-to-serial conversion of data?

a} Transfer a byte of data from a microcomputer's RAM to its CPU.

b} Transfer a byte of data from a microcomputer's ROM to its CPU.

c} Transfer a byte of data from a microcomputer's RAM to its
monitor.

d} Transfer a byte of data from a microcomputer's RAM to its ALU.
c} Transfer a byte of data from a microcomputer's RAM to its
monitor.
139] Which of the following codes has gained the widest
acceptance in modern times for exchange of data from one computer
to another?

a} ASCII code.

b} Baudot code.

c} Morse code.

d} Gray code.
a} ASCII code.
140] Which of the following op-amp circuits is operated
open-loop?

a} Comparator.

b} Non-inverting amp.

c} Inverting amp.

d} Active filter.
a} Comparator.
141] Slew rate of an op-amp means:

a} Output voltage change per nanosecond.

b} Output voltage change per microsecond.

c} Output voltage change per millisecond.

d} Output voltage change per second.
b} Output voltage change per microsecond.
142] RF chokes are sometimes constructed of universal wound
pies to:

a} Lower impedance to a relatively wide band of frequencies for
which it was manufactured.

b} Increase impedance to a relatively narrow band of frequencies
for which it was manufactured.

c} Increase the end-to-end distributed capacitance.

d} Decrease the end-to-end distributed capacitance.
d} Decrease the end-to-end distributed capacitance.
143] Which of the following types of microphones is least
likely to be used in broadcast applications?

a} Condenser microphone.

b} Crystal microphone.

c} Dynamic microphone.

d} Magnetic microphone.
b} Crystal microphone.
144] How many individual memory cells would be contained in
a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address
pins for connection to the address bus?

a} 8 memory cells.

b} 16 memory cells.

c} 32 memory cells.

d} 64 memory cells.
d} 64 memory cells.
145] When referring to digital IC's, which of the following
contains between 100 to 9999 gates?

a} MSI (medium-scale integration).

b} LSI (large-scale integration).

c} VLSI (very large-scale integration).


d} ULSI (ultra large-scale integration).
b} LSI (large-scale integration).
146] Which of the following devices acts as two SCR's
connected back to back, but facing in opposite directions and
sharing a common gate?

a} JFET.

b} Dual-gate MOSFET.

c} DIAC.

d} TRIAC.
d} TRIAC.
147] Which of the following devices is normally used to
regulate the amount of AC current flowing to a load from
approximately 0 degrees to no more than 180 degrees of the input
signal?

a} DIAC.

b} SCR.

c} TRIAC.

d} Class A BJT amp.
b} SCR.
148] Which of the following devices is normally used to
regulate the amount of AC current flowing to a load from
approximately 0 degrees to 360 degrees of the input signal?

a} DIAC.

b} SCR.

c} TRIAC.

d} Class B BJT amp.
c} TRIAC.
149] Which of the following devices produces the least
amount of noise when used as a part of a mixer stage in a
superheterodyne receiver?

a} Bipolar-junction transistor.

b} Dual-gate MOSFET.

c} Duo-triode vacuum tube.

d} P-N junction diode.
b} Dual-gate MOSFET.
150] Which of the following devices is used principally as
VHF and UHF parasitic suppressers?

a} Ferrite bead.

b} Balun.

c} Autotransformer.

d} Swinging choke.
a} Ferrite bead.