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340 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What forms of wood, other than solid wood, are used in aircraft? |
Plywood and laminate |
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What is a laminated wood assembly? |
Two or more layers glued together with grain running in the same direction. |
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How is aircraft plywood constructed? |
Usually is made of an odd number of thin plies with the grain of each layer at an angle of 45 to 90 degrees to the adjacent ply |
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What species of wood is used as a standard for strength properties? |
Sitka spruce |
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How would you inspect wood for rot? |
Check for a dark discoloration of the wood surface or grey stains along the grain |
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What are the approved types of glues used in wood structure repair? |
Casein, plastic resin, resorcinol glue, epoxy adhesives |
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What effect does temperature have on gluing wood structures using resin glue? |
It affects curing time and the strength of the glue joint |
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When are mineral streaks acceptable? |
If inspection fails to reveal any decay |
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Are hardknots acceptable? |
If within limits specified in AC 43.13-1B |
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Why is compressed wood unacceptable? |
Compression is very detrimental to strength of the wood |
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How do you inspect stressed plywood skin? |
Visual inspection for delamination and ring tests |
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Why is a bushing in a wooden spar shorter than the spar thickness? |
To allow for shinkage to ensure proper seating of the fitting |
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What are the results of insufficient gluing pressure? |
Thick glue lines and a weak joint |
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What are the methods used to apply pressure to wood glue joints? |
Brads, nails, screws, clamps, presses |
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What type of joint is generally used in splicing structural members? |
Scarf joint |
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Why does the strength of a beveled scarf joint depend on the accuracy of the scarf cut? |
The effective glue area will be reduced if both ends are not the same bevel |
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How may plywood be prepared for bending? |
Soak in hot water |
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What method will prevent a patch and a plywood pressure plate from adhering due to extruding glue from the patch? |
Use wax paper between patch and pressure plate |
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What area of a wood spar may not be spliced? |
Under a wing attachment, landing gear, engine mount and lift strut fittings |
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What is the maximum number of splices that should be made in any one spar? |
2 |
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Why are large area washers used on wooding structures? |
To minimize compression damage |
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What is the minimum temperature for curing wood joints with resin glue? |
70 ° F |
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What are two types of fabric used for covering aircraft? |
Organic and synthetic |
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What are organic fibers? |
Cotton and linen |
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What are synthetic fibers? |
Fiberglass and heat-shrinkable synthetic fiber (nylon, dacron, orlon) |
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What determines the strength requirements for fabric covered aircraft? |
The never exceed speed and maximum wing loading |
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What strength fabric should be used for recovering an aircraft? |
High grade aircraft textile materials at least as good a quality and equivalent in strength as those originally used by the manufacturer. |
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What is the purpose of reinforcing tape? |
It is used over ribs between fabric and the rib stitching to prevent stitching cord from ripping the fabric |
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What is the fabric warp? |
The direction along the length of the fabric |
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What type of machine sewed seams are used? |
French fell, folded fell, and plain overlap |
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What should be done to structures that will be covered with doped fabric? |
Dope proof with protective coating of paint or tape. Approved primer or varnish, anti-chafe tape |
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Where is surface tape used? |
Sewed seams, lapped edges, rib stitching, and screws. (Finishing Tape) |
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What is the advantage of the envelope method of covering wings? |
Is pre-cut and pre-sewn. Saves time |
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When are anti-tear strips recommended? |
When Vne speed is over 250 mph |
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How are ventilation and drainage hole edges reinforced? |
Plastic, aluminum, and brass grommets |
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What methods are used to check doped fabric? |
Maule punch tester, Seyboth punch tester. |
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What is the maximum permissible deterioration for used fabric on aircraft? |
30% of original fabric strength |
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What type of fabric is not affected by moisture and mildew? |
Glass fabric |
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What is the fabric selvage edge? |
An edge of cloth woven to prevent raveling |
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What rib stitching spacing is used when the original spacing is unknown? |
Spacing specified in chart of AC 43.13-1B or what the STC manufacturer states in instructions |
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What is a tie-off knot? |
A standard modified seine knot used on all stitches other than the starting stitch |
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In what direction is the warp and selvage edge of aircraft fabric applied and what identification is usually found on the selvage edge? |
It is parallel to the line of flight and TSO number is printed on selvage edge |
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What are the common types of paint used on aircraft? |
Primers, enamel, lacquers, and epoxies |
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What is used with zinc chromate primer if it is too thick and needs to be thinned? |
Toluene or Toluol |
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What are the two types of dope used for aircraft? |
Nitrate and butyrate |
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Why should dope not be used over paint or enamel? |
Because it tends to dissolve those materials |
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What happens to paint finish if excess drier is added to the paint? |
Will cause paint to become brittle and crack or peel |
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What is the purpose of zinc chromate primer? |
Serves as a corrosion resistance covering and base coat for protectible topcoats |
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What is the advantage of using butyrate dope instead of nitrate dope, from a safety point of view? |
Butyrate dope is less flammable |
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When spraying acryllic lacquer, what health safety precaution should the mechanic observe? |
Wear an approved respirator |
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What are three methods of applying paint? |
Dipping, brushing, and spraying |
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What type of paint may be painted over with epoxy topcoats? |
Any paint system in good condition |
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What is the cause for spray painting dust? |
Incorrect air pressure, paint flow, or spray pattern. Spray gun held too far from surface Material being improperly thinned or wrong reducers being used with the finish coats |
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What may cause spray paint sags and runs? |
To much paint being applied or inadequate surface preparation |
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What causes orange peel spray mottle? |
Improper adjustment of spray gun Not enough reducer or wrong type of reducer Material not uniformly mixed Forced drying method. Dried too quick |
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What is a blushing paint finish? |
Clouding or light spots on the surface |
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What will cause blushing of paint finish? |
Moisture in air supply Adverse humidity (over 80%) Changes in temperature Excessive air pressure setting Incorrect reducer |
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What could be the result of applying a coat of dope when the temperature of the dope room is too high? |
Pinholes in the dope film |
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What areas must be protected from damage when using paint remover/stripper? |
All window materials, vents and static ports, rubber seals and tires, and composite components. |
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What is the reason for paint touch up other than appearance? |
Helps to eliminate general corrosion problems |
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How can a mechanic determine if the control surfaces need to to be checked for balance after painting? |
Check manufacturer's service manual and/or check with the manufacturer |
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What size and location standards must be used for aircraft registration markings? |
As stated in FAR 45 Subpart C |
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What is done with the rivet head stem when a self plugging (friction lock) rivet is installed? |
Pulled until snapped and trimmed flush with rivet head |
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Give an example of a self plugging mechanical lock rivet. |
Cherrylock, CherryMAX or huck |
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What type of tools are used to install cherrylock rivets? |
Hand or power operated tool equipped with mechanical pulling head |
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Describe the correct dimensions on properly upset rivets. |
1 1/2 times shank diameter wide 1/2 the diameter long |
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What is bonded honeycomb construction? |
Consists of 2 relatively thin, parallel face sheets bonded to and seperated by a relatively thick, lightweight core |
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What materials are used in honeycomb construction? |
Kraft paper, thermoplastics, aluminum, steel, titanium, aramid paper (Nomex or Korex), fiberglass, carbon, ceramics |
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What may cause delamination of honeycomb construction? |
Sonic vibration, liquid leakage, internal condensation, and manufaturer mistakes |
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What is a potting compound used for in bonded honeycomb repair? |
Hole filling |
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What is done to the damaged area in bonded honeycomb? |
Damaged area must be removed |
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What will cause crazing in transparent plastic panels/windshields? |
Stress (Cold bending past limits) Harmful cleaning agents Improper handling |
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What procedure should be used when drilling plexiglass to prevent damage to the hole as the drill point breaks through the underside? |
Back up with wood and use proper drill technique (high speed, low feed) |
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What should be done to twist drills that are to be used for drilling completely through Plexiglas? |
Whenever holes are drilled completely through Plexiglass, the standard twist drills should be modified to a 60° tip angle, the cutting edge to a zero rake angle, and the back lip clearance angle increased to 12 - 15° |
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What calculation must be made when bending sheet metal? |
Bend allowance and setback calculations |
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What must be done when 2 bends intersect? |
A relief hole must be made at the intersection |
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What type of weathering damage may be found on metal aircraft? |
Corrosion |
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What methods are used in forming sheet metal? |
Shrinking, stretching, bumping, crimping, and folding |
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What factors are used to determine setback? |
Bend radius and metal thickness |
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What is the purpose of lightening holes cut in rib sections? |
To reduce weight and clearances for control cables |
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What is a joggle? |
An offset formed on a part to allow clearance for a sheet or another mating part |
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Determine the total length of a solid rivet for installation. |
1 1/2 the rivet diameter plus the thickness of the sheets of metal to be joined |
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How do you determine the proper material to be used for a repair? |
Manufacturer's current maintenance manual. If not stated in service manual use AC 43.13-1B |
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What is the spacing and edge distance for protruding head rivets? |
Min. edge distance = 2D |
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Describe rivet head markings for A, B, D, AD, and DD rivets |
A - 1100; No mark (Plain) |
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Why dimple for flush rivets instead of countersink? |
Depends on sheet metal thickness |
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What kind of loads are rivets designed to withstand? |
Shear loads |
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Describe the criteria for replacement of a 2024 rivet with a 2117 rivet. |
It is acceptable to replace a 2024 rivet of 5/32 in. diameter or less with 2117 rivets, provided that the replacement rivet is one size larger (1/32 in) than the old rivet |
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What happens to magnesium if the flux is not removed after welding? |
Severe corrosion |
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Magnesium is limited to what type of joint weld? |
Butt & edge welds are preferred |
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What must be done in the weld zone to successfully weld titanium? |
The weld zone must be shielded with an inert gas and surface must be clean. |
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Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering? |
To ensure the base metal is chemically clean |
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What type of flame is used for silver soldering? |
Oxyacetylene flame should be a soft neutral or a slightly reducing flame |
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What type of repair could be made for a dented steel tube cluster joint? |
Welding a formed steel patch plate over the dented area and surrounding tubes |
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What method can be used to insert a tight fitting inner sleeve into a tubular repair? |
Cool the sleeve with dry ice |
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What are the three general types of welding? |
Gas, electric arc, and electric resistance |
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How is a soft flame obtained without reducing thermal output? |
By reducing the working pressure using a larger tip and closing the torch valves until the neutral flame is quiet and steady |
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What is the most desirable method to use when welding aluminum? |
TIG (Tungsten Inert Gas) welding or Heliarc (DC) welding |
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What valve should be turned off first when extinguishing a torch? |
The acetylene to allow gas in the tip to burn out |
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What procedure will control expansion when welding a joint? |
Use of chill bars to absorb heat or tack welding at intervals along the joint |
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What safety precaution should be taken when gas welding has been completed? |
Turn of the valves and relieve all pressure |
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What must be done with heat treated aluminum alloys that are weldable after a weldable repair has been made? |
It must be re-heat treated |
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What is the result of insufficient penetration? |
Low strength weld |
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What type of welding causes less buckling and warping than gas welding? |
Shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) or "stick" welding |
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What is gas-shielded arc welding? |
A gas is used as a shield around the arc to prevent oxygen and water in the atmosphere from contaminating the weld |
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What are the advantages of gas shielded arc welding? |
Stronger, more ductile, and more corrosion resistant |
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What does the size of the torch top opening determine? |
The amount of heat applied |
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What is a servo trim tab? |
An auxiliary control positioned by movement of cockpit controls. Aids in moving primary control surfaces and holding them in the desired position |
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What is a balance trim tab? |
Auxiliary control designed to move in opposite direction of a primary flight control. Aerodynamic forces acting on the tab assist in moving the control surface |
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What is a spring tab? |
Auxiliary control that aids pilot in moving a control surface by keeping a direct proportion of deflection to the aerodynamic load imposed on the surface |
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Name several high-lift devices. |
Leading edge flaps, slots, slats, trailing edge flaps |
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What are the three mechanical methods used to actuate flight control systems? |
Cables, push-pull rods, torque tubes |
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What is the purpose of a rotorcraft cyclic pitch control? |
To tilt the tip-path plane in the direction of the desired horizontal direction |
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What is the purpose of a rotorcraft collective pitch control? |
To increase the pitch angle on all blades the same amount. Varies lift. |
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What unit compensates for helicopter main rotor torque? |
Anti-torque or tail rotor |
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What controls a helicopter tail rotor? |
Foot pedals (anti-torque pedals) |
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What flight control surfaces are considered the primary group? |
Ailerons, elevators, and rudder |
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What is considered the secondary flight controls group? |
Trim tabs, servo tabs, spring tabs, balance tabs |
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What flight controls are included in the auxiliary group? |
Wing flaps, spoilers, speed brakes, slats, slots, leading edge flaps |
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What are the three axes of an aircraft? |
Longitudinal, vertical, and lateral |
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Where does breakage of control cables occur most frequently? |
At pulleys or fairleads |
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What items must be known when measuring flight control cable tension? |
Desired tension, type of cable, size of cable, material, and temperature |
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What are cable tension regulators? |
A mechanical device that maintains cable tension |
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What is a cable fairlead? |
Fixture used to guide cable in a straight line through or between structural members of an aircraft. (Cable guide) |
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What is the purpose of a vortex generator? |
Prevent air from separating from the surface of a wing |
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Why are control surfaces locked when aircraft is parked? |
Limits external wind forces from damaging the aircraft while parked or tied down. |
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What tools are used to check control surface travel? |
Protractors, rigging fixtures, contour templates, and rulers |
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In accordance with FAR 65.85 and 65.87 what type of inspection may a certified airframe and powerplant mechanic sign off? |
100 hour inspection |
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When may a mechanic perform an annual inspection? |
When the mechanic holds an Inspection Authorization rating. |
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When must an annual inspection be performed, if required for a particular aircraft? |
Within the preceding 12 calendar months. |
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What may be used as a checklist for 100 hour inspection? |
FAR 43 appendix D |
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Where is a list of information that is required for aircraft records after completion of a 100 hour inspection? |
FAR 43.11 & FAR 91.409 |
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Who may approve for "return to service" a progressive inspection phase check? |
A certificated A&P mechanic, certificated repair station, or aircraft manufacturer |
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When is a 100 hour inspection requires on aircraft operating under FAR 91? |
When aircraft is used for hire (Carrying persons or flight instruction) |
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When is the first 100 hour inspection due after discontinuance of a progressive program? |
100 hours after the last complete inspection of the progressive program |
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Does an aircraft under a progressive inspection program need a 100 hour inspection if the airplane is used for flight instruction for hire? |
No. |
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What are the privileges and limitations of a mechanic with regards to propellers? |
Mechanic cannot perform major repairs or alterations to a propeller. |
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What kind of charge is used to inflate a landing gear shock strut? |
Dry air/nitrogen |
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What regular inspection should be made to the exposed portion of a landing gear strut? |
Clean and inspected for damage and proper extension |
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What is the purpose of the landing gear torque links? |
To keep the landing gear pointed in a straight ahead direction. |
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What power sources are normally used to retract landing gear systems? |
Hydraulics or electrical power |
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What type of nosewheel steering is provided on small aircraft? |
Simple system of mechanical linkage hooked to the rudder pedals |
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What unit prevents nosewheel vibrations? |
Shimmy damper through hydraulic action |
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What are some types of brake systems? |
Independent, power boost, and power control |
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What is the purpose of power brake deboosters? |
Reduce the pressure to the brake system and increase the volume of fluid flow |
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What must be accomplished before inspecting a wheel brake system for hydraulic leaks? |
Pressurize the system |
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What prevents a split wheel for leaking air through the inner and out mating surfaces of the wheel assembly? |
O-ring |
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What is the most necessary maintenance function for safe, long aircraft tire service? |
Proper inflation |
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What are the effects on tires due to under inflation? |
Rapid or uneven wear of the shoulder area of the tire |
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When should a landing gear retraction check be accomplished? |
During annual inspection |
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What is the indication of excessive heating of a wheel bearing? |
Discoloration |
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What is the purpose of an anti-skid system? |
Prevent tire skidding during landing and warn pilot of imminent tire skids |
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What is the purpose of a fusible plug? |
Relieve air pressure when a tire reaches dangerous temperatures |
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What are some methods of bleeding brakes? |
Top-down gravity bleeding and bottom up pressure bleeding methods |
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How is braking load transmitted from the wheel to the rotating disk? |
By slots and keys |
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What methods are used for steering large aircraft? |
Mechanical, electrical, and hydraulic connections transmit the controller input movement to a steering control unit |
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What prevents a nose landing gear from being retracted with the nose wheel out of the center position? |
Nose wheel centering cam or external track |
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What are the three types of hydraulic fluids? |
Vegetable, mineral, and phosphate ester based fluids |
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What color is mineral base hydraulic fluid? |
Red |
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What happens to plastic resins, vinyl compositions, lacquers, and oil based paints if exposed to a phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid? |
The material will be damaged, softened and/or peeled |
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What feature is built into a hydraulic pump drive system to prevent damage in the event of pump seizure or overload? |
Shear section in the pump drive shaft |
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What precautions should be taken to minimize contamination during replacement of a hydraulic unit? |
All lines should be plugged or capped after disconnecting and cleaned before assembly |
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What would cause a hydraulic filter to go into open bypass, allowing unfiltered fluid into the system? |
A clogged filter |
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What are the sources of hydraulic pressure in aircraft? |
Hand pumps, engine-driven pumps, electrically driven pumps |
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What are the methods of pressurizing a hydraulic reservoir? |
Turbine bleed air, hydraulic system pressure, variable displacement hydraulic pump, aspirator or venturi-tee |
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How does a gear type pump operate? |
Two meshed gears that rotate in a housing are driven by a power unit. Fluid is drawn in and pressurized as the gears turn |
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What are the two types of engine driven hydraulic pumps? |
Constant displacement and variable displacement pumps |
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What is the purpose of a pressure relief valve? |
To limit the amount of pressure being exerted on a confined liquid. This is necessary to prevent failure of components or rupture of hydraulic lines |
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What is the purpose of a pressure regulator? |
Maintain the pump pressure within a specific range and to keep the pump unloaded any time no unit is being actuated |
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What is used in some hydraulic systems to supplement the power pump when several units are operated at the same time? |
An accumulator |
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What are the types of accumulators? |
Diaphragm, bladder, and piston |
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For what purposes are pneumatic systems used in some aircraft? |
To operate brakes, doors, drive pumps, and engine starting |
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What are the sources of pneumatic power? |
Storage bottles, vane pumps, turbine compressors, APUs |
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What happens to excessive pressure in a pneumatic system? |
Relief valve will dump it overboard |
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What is the purpose of restrictors that are used in aircraft pneumatic systems? |
To control the rate of airflow |
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Why should a pneumatic system be purged periodically? |
To remove contamination and moisture in the system |
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What must be accomplished with any accumulator prior to disassembling? |
Make sure air pressure has been relieved |
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What are the two groups of independent cabin compressors? |
Positive displacement and centrifugal |
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What is the principal control of a pressurization system? |
The outflow valve |
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What method is used by some turbine powered aircraft for pressurization? |
Bleed air from the turbine compressor |
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What is a roots blower? |
Engine driven compressor that has 2 lobes within the compressor housing. As air enters the space between the lobes it is compressed and ducted to the cabin for pressurization. |
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What pressurization control unit will change the position of an outflow valve? |
Cabin pressurization controller acting as a pressure regulator |
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What are three methods of supplying heat when "heat of compression" is not sufficient enough for cabin air conditioning? |
Combustion heater, electric heaters, exhaust gas air-to-air heat exchangers. |
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What is the function of ventilation air in a combustion heater? |
It carries heat where it is needed |
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What are sources of ventilating air in a combustion heater? |
A blower, ram air, or cabin compressor |
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What components are used in an air cycle cooling system? |
Expansion turbine, heat exchangers, various valves, water separator |
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What causes the temperature drop in an air cycle cooling system? |
Extraction of heat by the expansion turbine |
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How does a water separator remove moisture from the air? |
The air passes through vanes that swirl the air and the droplets are collected and drained |
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What is vapor cycle cooling? |
Freon cooling. Similar to automobile a/c |
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What components are in a vapor cycle cooling system? |
Evaporator, condenser, compressor, receiver-dryer, expansion valve |
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What is a continuous flow oxygen system? |
Oxygen will flow from a charged cylinder through a high pressure line to a reducing valve and to mask outlets continuously. |
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What is a pressure-demand oxygen system? |
Oxygen will flow from a charged cylinder to the user only when he/she inhales |
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What must be accomplished to an oxygen system if it has been open to the atmosphere for more than 2 hours? |
Must be purged to remove moisture and contamination |
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What is used to purge oxygen lines of moisture? |
Oxygen, dry nitrogen, dry air |
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What type of oxygen must be used in aircraft? |
Aviators' breathing oxygen |
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Why is oil added to a vapor cycle freon system? |
To provide lubrication and prevent compressor failure |
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What safety precautions should be observed when servicing oxygen systems? |
Use oil free tools, clothing & hands. Also use adequate eye protection |
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What is used as a guide for range marking instruments? |
Aircraft specification, TCDS, and flight manuals |
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What does a yellow arc on an instrument dial indicate? |
Caution/warning |
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Who can apply range markings to the instrument dial face? |
Certified instrument repair station |
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Why are slippage marks used on instrument glass covers? |
To indicate loose glass |
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When range markings are places on an instrument glass, what precaution must be taken? |
The glass must be marked for slippage indication |
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What can be used to static check manifold pressure indicator? |
A barometer or altimeter |
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What indication errors may be found in altimeters? |
Scale error, hysteresis, installation |
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What flight instruments are usually connected to a pitot-static system? |
Vertical speed indicator (Rate of climb), airspeed, altimeter |
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Why is it undesirable to clear obstructions from pitot-static holes with a tool? |
The holes are aerodynamically critical |
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What is required after replacement of components connected to a pitot-static system? |
A system leak test (FAR 91.411) |
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What methods are used to drive a turn-and-bank indicator? |
Air pressure/vacuum or electricity |
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What causes an electric-driven gyro rotor to tilt when the aircraft is turned? |
Gyroscopic precession |
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What is a synchro-type remote indicating system? |
Transmits information from one point to another point (Flap position, landing gear, autopilot) |
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What does a capacitor-type fuel quantity system accurately determine? |
Weight of fuel in the tanks |
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What does a tachometer indicate? |
Crankshaft, main rotor, or turbine speed |
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Where does an electrical resistance temperature indicator receive a signal? |
From a heat sensitive element or bulb |
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What type of indicating system is a turbine engine exhaust gas temperature system? |
Thermocouple |
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What is the meaning of swinging a compass? |
Correcting for compass deviation error |
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What should be looked for during inspection of a magnetic compass? |
The bowl should be filled with liquid and should not contain any bubbles or discolorations |
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What precaution should be taken regarding hardware used for installation of a magnetic compass or nearby instruments? |
Use non-magnetic hardware |
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What are the three basic autopilot components? |
Gyros, servos, and an amplifier |
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What are the sensing elements of an autopilot system? |
Directional gyro, turn-and-bank gyro, attitude indicator gyro, and altitude control |
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What are the actuating elements of an autopilot system? |
Servos that operate the control surface |
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What are the basic components of a communication system? |
Microphone, transmitter, transmitting antenna, receiving antenna, receiver, and headset |
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What is the most common communication system in use? |
VHF (Very high frequency) |
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How often does the ATC transponder require certification |
Every 24 calendar months (2 years) |
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What are the components of a typical airborne VOR system? |
Receiver, visual indicator, frequency selector, antennas and power supply |
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What are two antennas usually required for ILS systems> |
One for the localizer and one for glideslope |
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What info does a glide slope radio beam produce? |
Vertical guidance for correct angle of descent |
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When may an ELT legally be checked for operation? |
During the first 5 minutes of the hour |
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What is a DME? |
Distance measuring equipment |
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What is VOR equipment used for? |
Navigation |
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Where should a DME antenna be located? |
On the lower surface of the aircraft in a position where it will not be blanked out by aircraft wings in a bank |
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What is an ADF? |
Automatic direction finder |
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What type of antennas do most transponders have? |
Short stub (spike antenna) usually mounted on the lower surface of the fuselage |
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What powers an emergency locator transmitter? |
A self-contained battery |
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What method is used to monitor the output signal during an ELT test? |
A VHF receiver tuned to 121.5 MHz |
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How may the determination be made to replace the battery in an ELT even though the set operates? |
Replacement date marked on the transmitter |
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How should coax be routed from an antenna to a receiver? |
Secured every 2 feet, not routed with other wire bundles, and bends should be at least 10 times the diameter of the cable |
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What is the purpose of a radio shock mount bonding jumper? |
To provide a low-impedance ground return |
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What is the purpose of a fuel dump (Fuel jettison system) system? |
Reduce the weight of the aircraft to a specific landing weight |
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When would the fuel jettison system be required? |
When the maximum takeoff weight is greater than the maximum landing weight |
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What purpose other than reducing weight is accomplished with a fuel jettison system? |
Lateral stability may be obtained with a heavy wing aircraft due to fuel out of balance |
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What are two types of fuel tanks? |
Bladder and integral (Wet wing), rigid removable |
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What supports the weight of fuel in a bladder type fuel cell? |
The structure of the aircraft that the bladder fits into |
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What is "wet wing" type construction? |
Integral fuel tanks |
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What is the purpose of a fuel temperature indicator in a turbine powered aircraft? |
To determine when there may be danger of ice crystals forming in the fuel |
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What is the purpose of a crossfeed system? |
An interconnected fuel system so that fuel can be fed from any tank to any engine |
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What positions may be selected on a fuel tank selector valve? |
Fuel tank positions, crossfeed, ON and OFF |
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What is a drip gauge? |
A fuel quantity gauge (Bayonet type) |
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What is an electrically operated fuel tank shutoff valve in transit light? |
Indicated when the shut off valve is in motion |
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What is a pressure fueling system? |
An underwing or single-point fueling system |
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What are the advantages of single point pressure fueling? |
Reduces fueling time, eliminates aircraft skin damage, and reduces chances of contamination |
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What method may be used to check a fuel tank for leaks after a patch weld has been performed? |
Air pressure up to 1/2 psi and liquid soap to detect any leaks |
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What should be done with old gaskets and seals when replacing fuel system components? |
Remove and replace with new gaskets |
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What type of fuel system leak will not be visible by evidence of stains or wet spots? |
An internal fuel leak (shut off valves, selector valves, or crossfeed valves) |
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What are the four types of fuel quantity gauges in use today? |
Sight glass, electrical, electronic, mechanical |
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Why is an electronic type fuel quantity gauge more accurate than others? |
Measures by weight not volume |
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What is the purpose of fuel tank internal baffles? |
Prevents surging of fuel caused by attitude changes |
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Why should you wait a period of time after fueling before checking fuel sumps? |
To allow time for water and sediment to settle to the drain point |
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What may be used to determine the size of an unmarked wire? |
A wire gauge |
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Why should an electrical system be checked before a load increase? |
To determine that the wire, cable, or protection device limits will not be exeeded |
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What type of electrical items may cause short-time demand loads on an electrical system? |
Landing gear motors, radio transmitters, flap motors |
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What instruments are used to monitor electrical loads? |
Ammeter and voltmeters |
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What is a "trip free" circuit breaker? |
A breaker that cannot be reset until the condition is corrected |
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When should a switch be derated from its nominal rating? |
For high rush-in currents, inductive circuits, and electrical motors |
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Where is the white position/nav light mounted? |
On the tail, always visible from the rear |
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What color is a left wingtip light? |
Red |
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What factors are considered when selecting wire size for electrical power? |
Allowable power loss, permissible voltage drop, and current carrying ability |
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When do electric motors draw several times their rated current? |
During starting |
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How long should bonding jumper wires be? |
As short as practicable |
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What hardware is used to make bonding or grounding connections to a structure of dissimilar metal? |
A washer of suitable material should be used so that corrosion will occur on the washer and not the part |
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What should be done to a conduit end when fittings are not used? |
Flared to prevent wire insulation damage |
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What size electrical conduit should be used? |
25% larger than the maximum diameter of the wire bundle |
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During troubleshooting, when is a continuity check made? |
When power is off |
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What three faults are associated with electrical system malfunctions? |
Open circuits, short circuits, and low power |
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When is a circuit breaker designed to open? |
At a predetermined overload of current or before the conductor emits smoke |
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What will cause an AC electric motor to run slow? |
No lubrication, low voltage applied, defective wiring |
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What could cause an AC electric motor to run fast? |
Excessive supply of voltage or motor field windings shorted |
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What controls the output voltage of an alternator? |
Voltage regulator by adjusting the alternator field current |
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How many terminal lugs can be put on a single terminal strip in an aircraft? |
4 |
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How can a particular wire in a bundle be identified? |
By the wire number (ID code) |
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Where is the circuit breaker located in a circuit? |
As close to the power source as possible |
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What types of landing gear warnings are provided for retractable landing gear systems? |
An aural or visual device |
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When does an aural device operate in a landing gear waning system? |
When the throttle is retarded and the landing gear is not down and locked |
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What types of position indicators indicate that the landing gear is down and locked? |
A green light and/or visual indicators |
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What is the purpose of a mach warning system? |
To indicate that the aircraft speed has been exceeded |
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How does a take off aural warning differ from a landing gear aural warning? |
Aural tone of take-off warning is intermittent |
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What items may cause a take-off warning horn to operate in a typical transport jet aircraft? |
Speed brakes, flaps, stablilizer, and auxiliary power exhaust door |
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What does an anti-skid warning indicate? |
System failure or system is turned off |
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What is the indication of an anti-skid system automatically returning to a manual brake system? |
A warning light |
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When is the time to check landing gear switches, lights and warning horns or buzzers for proper operation? |
During a gear retraction check |
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What positions of a retractable landing gear must be indicated? |
Secured in the up and down positions. Also gear in transit |
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If an aircraft has only one (down) indicator light, will the switches on the landing gear be connected in series or parallel with each other? |
They will be connected in series |
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Where are the procedures located for checking and adjusting landing gear switches? |
Aircraft maintenance manual |
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What other aircraft systems may activate the landing gear warning system? |
Flaps when extended past a given number of degrees with the landing gear retracted |
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What type of indication is usually provided for stall warning? |
Aural and/or visual |
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What type of indications are used for cabin doors in the open and closed position? |
Visual and warning lights |
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What is the reason for a master caution warning system in aircraft? |
To alert the flight crew of system operation or malfunction |
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What system is used to indicate battery over-temperature? |
Warning lights or a temperature indicator |
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What is the purpose of an annunciator system? |
To show, by warning light, that a system has failed or a caution condition exists |
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What is the source of the anti-skid warning system signal? |
The anti-skid control box |
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What condition will cause a wing leading edge anti-ice overheat light to illuminate? |
Failure of a thermal switch to cause closure of the anti-ice shut off valve |
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What are two methods of inflating pneumatic deicer boots? |
Engine-driven vacuum pump and bleed air from turbine compressor |
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How are deicer boots attached to leading edges of wing and tail surfaces? |
Cement (glue), fairing strips and screws, or a combo of both |
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What is the function of the air/oil separator used in some deicer boot systems? |
It is used to remove oil from pressurized air |
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What must be accomplished to a deicer boot prior to a cold patch repair? |
Relieve the tension |
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What normally keeps deicer boots held down in flight? |
Vacuum pressure applied to the boots |
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What methods are used to supply heat for thermal anti-icing systems? |
Turbine compressor bleed air, engine exhaust heat exchangers, and ram air heated by combustion heaters |
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How is the temperature maintained in a thermal anti-icing system? |
By mixing bleed air with ambient air |
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What prevents overheating of the wing leading edge skin in a thermal ant-ice system, that is operated by engine bleed air? |
A thermal switch will cause a valve to close and shut off the flow of bleed air when the temperature of the skin reaches a predetermined value |
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What happens to the thermal anti-ice airflow after it has heated a leading edge surface? |
The airflow is exhausted overboard |
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Why are anti-icing systems using turbine-engine bleed air provided with an overheat system? |
To prevent aircraft structural damage |
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What are several problems associated with electrically heated windshields? |
Delamination, scratches, arcing and discoloration |
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When is windshield delamination acceptable? |
When within limits established by manufacturer and it is not in an open area where it affects the optical qualities of the windshield |
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What are the effects of electric windshield arcing? |
Local overheating and damage of the windshield |
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How can an electrically heated pitot tube with an ammeter installed in the system be checked periodically? |
Verify operation by noting the current consumption when the heater is turned on |
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What methods are used to remove rain from a windshield? |
Wiping off, blowing off, and chemical rain repellent |
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What powers windshield wiper systems? |
Hydraulic or electrical power |
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What re the two inherent problems associated with windshield wipers when operated in flight? |
Aerodynamic forces reduce blade pressure and failure to achieve fast enough wiper oscillations |
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How does a pneumatic rain removal system work? |
The air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking the windshield surface. |
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Why is a windshield rain repellent system not operated when the windshield is dry? |
Heavy undiluted repellent will restrict window visibility |
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What is the purpose of the electronic timer in a pneumatic deicer boot system? |
Controls the operating sequence and time intervals |
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Where are carbon monoxide detectors normally used? |
Cockpits and cabins |
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What is the indication of excess carbon monoxide fumes when using a "CO" tester? |
The tester changes color to green, dark gray, or black |
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How does a photoelectric smoke detector warn of a possible fire? |
Smoke in the air will cause the photoelectric cell to conduct an electric current signal to a detector amplifier |
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How may a photoelectric smoke detector be checked? |
Use of a test switch circuit |
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Name 2 types of smoke detection instruments used in aircraft. |
Light refraction and ionization |
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What is a thermal switch fire detection system? |
Heat sensitive units that complete electrical circuits at a certain temperature |
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How are thermal switch units wired? |
Parallel to each other and in series with the light |
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How are fenwal spot detectors wired? |
Parallel between two complete loops of wiring |
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How is a thermocouple fire-warning system different from a thermal switch system? |
Thermal switch works at a specific temperature whereas thermocouple depends on a rate of temperature rise |
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What is a continuous loop detection system? |
One or more wires embedded in a special ceramic core that changes its resistance with change in temperature |
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What is a continuous element fire detection system? |
A stainless tube containing a discrete element which will produce a gas with heat and a mechanical switch to activate the system |
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What are two types of fire extinguishing systems? |
High rate of discharge and conventional systems |
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What is the most common fire extinguishing agent associated with a conventional system? |
Carbon dioxide |
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What type of extinguishing agent is usually found in an HRD system? |
Halon type agents |
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What procedure is used to check a freon container for pressure? |
A chart must be used for a minimum and maximum gauge reading for every change of temperature |
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What protection is provided for a freon bottle in case of a temperature rise in excess of set limits? |
A safety disc will rupture and spill the agent overboard |
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What is the purpose of the yellow disk in a CO2 bank fire extinguisher system? |
Indicates normal system discharge |
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What may be caused by kinks and sharp bends in sensing elements of a fire detection system? |
False fire warning and/or an inoperative system |
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How is a freon bottle discharged? |
Electrically by a discharge cartridge |
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How is the service life of a discharge cartridge calculated> |
From the manufacturer's date stamp on the face of the cartridge |
