Fa - Pharm 8

Front 1

mech. of Rifampin:

Back 1

RNAP inhibitor

Front 2

mech. of Griseofulvin:

Back 2

disrupts mitotic spindles by binding MT's

Front 3

main SE of TMP:

Back 3

BM suppression

Front 4

mehc of Buspirone:

Back 4

partial 5-HT1A agonist

Front 5

Salmeterol is used for:

Back 5

prophylaxis only,

combined with inhaled steroids

Front 6

morning-after pill =

Back 6

synthetic PROG

Front 7

symps of NMS:

Back 7

Fever
Encephalopathy
Vitals unstable
Elevated CK and leukocytosis
Rigidity of muscles and myoglobinuria

Front 8

atypical antipsychotics are used to treat:

Back 8

schizophrenia

Front 9

6 weird anticholinergic drugs:

Back 9

Antipsychotics,

TCAs,

Quinidine,

Amantadine,

Meperidine,

Anti-H's

Front 10

Dobutamine binds:

Back 10

β1 > β2

Front 11

2 antib's that block peptidoglycan synthesis:

Back 11

- Bacitracin
- Vancomycin

Front 12

Zileuton inhibits:

Back 12

LOX

Front 13

2 long-acting insulins:

Back 13

glargine, detemir

Front 14

function of neuraminidase protein:

Back 14

cleaves cell membrane structures to enable viral progeny release from infected cells

Front 15

2 main SE's of Forcarnet:

Back 15

nephrotoxic and electrolyte abnormalities

Front 16

In the presence of progesterone, mifepristone functions as a competitive progesterone receptor antagonist.

Back 16

In the absence of progesterone, mifepristone acts as a partial agonist.

Front 17

which polyene is too toxic for systemic use?

Back 17

Nystatin

Front 18

4 AAcid products that cause vasodilation:

Back 18

PGI2

PGE1

PGE2

PGD2

Front 19

mech. of Reserpine:

Back 19

inhibits VMAT

=> DOPA degraded inside cells by MAO's

Front 20

Trazadone class =

Back 20

SARI

Front 21

mech. of macrolides:

Back 21

block transpeptidation (one AA attaching to another) and amino-acyl translocation

Front 22

4 drugs that cause ototoxicity:

Back 22

Vancomycin
Aminoglycosides
Furosemide
Cisplatin

Front 23

remember that Vancomycin is ONLY for:

Back 23

serious GP's

like MRSA, C, diff

Front 24

Clot-specific thrombolytic agents are recombinant forms of:

Back 24

tPA

Front 25

Class III antiarrhythmics are used to treat:

(4)

Back 25

1. WPW syndrome

2. v-tach

3. a-fib

4. a-flutter

Front 26

2 combos used in HIV prophylaxis:

Back 26

1. ZDV (zidovudine) + 3TC (lamivudine)

2. TDF (tenofovir) + FTC (emtricitabine)

Front 27

2 SNRI's:

Back 27

Venlafaxine,

Duloxetine

Front 28

parasympathetic activity in the heart is conducted through which receptor?

Back 28

M2:

decreases HR,

decreases contractility,

decreases AV node conduction

Front 29

2 hard-to-remember NSAIDs:

Back 29

Sulindac

Piroxicam

Front 30

which B-lactamase inhibitor is often combined with ampicillin?

Back 30

sulbactam

Front 31

3 drug classes for anxiety disorders:

Back 31

1. SSRIs

2. Buspirone

3. Benzos

(only until SSRIs take effect

Front 32

how do Methylphenidate and Dextroamphetamine work?

Back 32

inhibit NOR and DOPA reuptake

Front 33

Metyrosine inhibits:

Back 33

tyrosine hydroxylase

Front 34

2 SE's of Metronidazole:

Back 34

1. Disulfiram-like rxn

2. metallic taste

Front 35

mech. of Ondansetron:

Back 35

5-HT3 blocker

Front 36

med for TB prophylaxis:

Back 36

INH

Front 37

which antiviral has been shown to treat extrapyramidal symptoms?

Back 37

Amantadine

(useless against M2, after all)

Front 38

Which adrenergic receptor is NOT affected by NOR?

Back 38

B2

Front 39

mech. of Bupropion:

Back 39

NOR and DOPA reuptake inhibitor

Front 40

on which α receptor subtype does Phenylephrine act on preferentially?

Back 40

Phenylephrine: α1 > α2

Front 41

'interferon for HCV =

Back 41

IFN-α

- also used in condyloma acuminata, leukemias, Kaposi’s sarcoma, and several other malignancies

Front 42

atypical antipsychotics (2nd-gen) have fewer EPS and anticholinergic SE's than first-gen; some special SE's:

(4)

Back 42

1. Olanzapine and Clozapine may cause significant wt gain

2. Clozapine may cause agranulocytosis or sez
(can't produce granulocytes => constant risk of inf.)

3. Risperidone may increase prolactin
(=> lactation, gynecomastia)
(=> dec. GnRH, LH, and FSH => amenorrhea/infertility)

4. Ziprasidone may prolong QT interval

Front 43

7 symps of SER Syndrome:

Back 43

1. hyperthermia

2. confusion

3. myoclonus

4. CV collapse

5. flushing

6. diarrhea

7. sez's

Front 44

3 indications for SNRI's:

Back 44

1. MDD

2. GAD and panic disorders (Venlafaxine)

3. diabetic peripheral neuropathy (Duloxetine)

Front 45

TCA's:

(3)

Back 45

Doxepin,

"-pramines",

"-tylines"






1. Am-i-trip-tyline

2. Nor-triptyline

3. Imipramine

4. Desipramine

5. Clomipramine

6. Doxepin

7. Amoxapine (tetracyclic classified as TCA)

Front 46

mechanism of Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCA's):

Back 46

block reuptake of SER and NOR

Front 47

OD of TCA's =>

(4)

Back 47

triple-C's: Convulsions, Coma, Cardiotoxicity (arrhythmias)

2. respiratory depression

3. hyperpyrexia

4. confusion/hallucinations in elderly due to anticholinergic SE's (therefore use Nortriptyline in elderly)

Front 48

MAOI's:

(4)

Back 48

1. Phenelzine

2. Tranylcypromine

3. Isocarboxazid

4. Selegeline (selective for MAOB)

Front 49

SE's of MAOI's:

(2)

Back 49

1. risk of hypertensive crisis with ingestion of tyramine (wine and cheese)

2. CNS stimulation

Front 50

mechanism of Trazodone:

Back 50

blocks 5HT2 and a1-adrenergic r's

Front 51

indication for Trazodone =

Back 51

*insomnia* with depression,

since high doses are needed for antidepressant effects

Front 52

Naloxone =

Back 52

opioid partial agonist

- long-acting with fewer withdrawal symps than Methadone

Front 53

Buprenorphine =

Back 53

mixed opioid agonist-antagonist

Front 54

use of antidepressants in a pt with Bipolar may cause:

Back 54

mania

Front 55

3 big signs of heroin withdrawal:

Back 55

1. yawning

2. lacrimation

3. dilated pupils

Front 56

remember than heroin is:

Back 56

an OPIOID

Front 57

main sign of Benzo OD =

Back 57

tachycardia

- then sez's

Front 58

Nicotine ~~

Back 58

increased appetite

Front 59

stimulants like cocaine, amphetamine ~~

(2)

Back 59

1. psychomotor retardation

2. severe depression ("crash")

Front 60

remember that Lyme dz is easily treated with:

Back 60

Doxycycline OR penicillin-type antib's, which INCLUDES cephalosporins

Front 61

DILE ~~ [form of metabolism]

Back 61

liver acetylation

- slower acetylators have a greater chance of developing DILE

Front 62

remember that Thiazides increase:

Back 62

GLUC reabsorption

glucose, lipids, Ca2+, urea

=> great for woman with CHF *and* at risk for osteoporosis

Front 63

"-cept" =

Back 63

r' mlcl
(biological agent)

- e.g. Etanercept

Front 64

"-nib" =

Back 64

kinase inhibitor

"-mab" = monoclonal AB

Front 65

Vit. C def. is m.cly seen in:

Back 65

the malnourished

- homeless, alcoholics

Front 66

HCTZ can inadvertently stimulate:

Back 66

hypoK+

b/c loss of volume stimulates RAAS => Aldo

- might need to use K+-sparing class

Front 67

MTX can often be used to treat:

Back 67

Rheumatoid Arthritis

- can cause hepatotoxicity

Front 68

all pts beginning tx with TNF-a inhibitors (like Etanercept) should be testing for:

Back 68

latent TB

=> PPD

Front 69

apart from brown teeth, maternal Tetracycline use =>

Back 69

skeletal growth retardation in child

Front 70

NSAID's often relieve the joint/skeletal pain associated with:

Back 70

Seronegative Spindyloarthropathies

- Ankylosing Spondilytis, Reactive (Reiter) Arthritis, psoriatic Arthritis

Front 71

remember that even though they can't be used long-term, glucocorticoids are:

Back 71

the fastest and most complete therapy for Rheumatoid Arthritis

Front 72

severe Rheumatoid Arthritis is unlikely to respond well to:

Back 72

Sulfasalazine, Hydroxychloroquine, or Minocycline

Front 73

Nafcillin, Methicillin, and Oxacillin are used to treat:

Back 73

penicillinase bugs (those that have overcome penicillins with B-lactamase)

Front 74

Nafcillin most often used to treat:

Back 74

skin inf's

of which S. aureus is a major cause

Front 75

Uricosuric agents and Allopurinol are indicated as:

Back 75

PROPHYLACTIC agents against gout

- for acute attack, use NSAIDs

(Colchicine or steroids if NSAIDs contra)

Front 76

insulin drives K+:

Back 76

BACK into cells

Front 77

Cytarabine inhibits DNA synthesis in:

Back 77

AML, ALL, and lymphomas

Front 78

Diphenhydramine =

Back 78

1st-gen anti-H

Front 79

depletion of what causes liver injury from acetaminophen?

Back 79

Glutathione

Front 80

Trimethephan =

Back 80

anti-ACH ganglionic blocker

Front 81

mech. of endothelin =

(2)

Back 81

constrict blood vessels and raise BP

Front 82

Bosentran =

Back 82

endothelin antagonist

- treats PHTN

Front 83

PGI2 actions:

(2)

Back 83

1. inhibits plat. agg.

2. vasodilates

Front 84

Chlorphenamine =

Back 84

anti-H

Front 85

Zanamivir =

Back 85

neuraminidase inhibitor,

like Oseltamivir

Front 86

neuraminidase is nec. for viruses to:

Back 86

RELEASE new virions from the infected cell

(late)

Front 87

protease is necessary for:

Back 87

cleaving the long protein chains into functional enzymes

Front 88

Tiotropium =

Back 88

long-acting bronchodilator used in COPD

Front 89

lead inhibits:

Back 89

ferrochelatase

Front 90

C1 esterase inhibitor normally:

Back 90

inhibits C1 (Complement)

Front 91

1st-line for RSV inf. =

Back 91

Ribavarin

Front 92

prophylaxis for someone exposed to N. menengitidis (meningococcemia) =

Back 92

Rifampin

Front 93

acid-fastness is determined by:

Back 93

mycolic acid

- synthesis of which is inhibited by INH

=> failure to grow

Front 94

mech. of Rifampin:

Back 94

*inhibits* TB DNA-dep. *RNAP*

Front 95

N-acetylcysteine can also be used as a:

Back 95

mucolytic agent in CF

- cleaves disulfide bonds of mucus

Front 96

remember that one danger of using inhaled corticosteroids is:

Back 96

oropharyngeal Candidiasis

Front 97

Varenicline =

Back 97

partial agonist of Nicotine

- partly fills craving, partly makes Nicotine not as pleasurable

Front 98

ACE is elevated in:

Back 98

sarcoidosis

Front 99

**only 2 players of allergic (atopic) asthma that can be medically blocked =

Back 99

LTC4, D4, E4

and

ACH

Front 100

Mycobact. leprae (Tuberculoid/mild version) ~~

Back 100

CD4+'s, Th1 show a STRONG response to lepro skin test

(strong like TB)

(remember, Tuberculoid version has well-circumscribed skin lesions - mild)

Front 101

in contrast to the Tuberculoid version, Lepromatous version shows:

Back 101

WEAK lepro test response and DIFFUSE skin lesions,

Th2-mediated

=> that's WHY Lepromatous is worse - cell response is weak, microbe isn't stopped

Front 102

AB's are basically useless against org's like Mycobact. that live:

Back 102

INTRAcellularly