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171 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
How many steps are there? What are they? |
I A M I S |
|
The order of preference for implementing controls are? |
Engineering
Administrative PPE |
|
What report is required to be filed for negligent weapons discharges?
|
OPREP 3- Navy Blue
|
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Unit personnel violating safety regulations are subject to?
|
Disciplinary actions under the UCMJ
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T or F Personal protective devices do nothing to reduce or eliminate the hazard itself?
|
True
|
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Ear plugs or earmuffs are required for noises greater than _____ dBA and peak noises greater than _____
|
84, 104
|
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Sustained noises greater than _____ dBA require double hearing protection?
|
104
|
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Who's responsibility is it to organize, train, equip, prepare and maintain readiness of the U.S. Navy?
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CNO
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An _____ is a detailed statement of a course of action to be followed to accomplish a future mission?
|
Operation Plan
(OPLAN) |
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What puts a OPLAN into effect?
|
Operation Order
(OPORD) |
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Platoons receive mission details such as specified uniforms, including any camouflage and identification measures and specified weapons, ammunition and equipment through what mean?
|
WARNO
|
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What document provides a permanent historical record at the Bureau of Naval Personnel, statistics uses and overall Navy manning?
|
EVDR
12 Section |
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List three items on an enlisted pg 2? |
Person to be notified in case of emergency or death. |
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Which report does ships utilize as they come in to port to pass info on about the ship and to request services from port? |
LOGREQ |
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Give two examples of personnel who are noncombatants? |
Civilians, medical personnel, chaplains. |
|
Under the laws of armed conflict, only _____ are considered proper targets and may be fired upon? |
Combatants |
|
Who initiated America's first sea-based offensive against the British? |
General George Washington |
|
The idea on naval construction battalions was conceived by? |
Bureau of Yards and Docks |
|
Seabee's celebrate March 5th 1942 as? |
the day permission was granted to use the name Seabee |
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In May 1942, a battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers. The two fleets never saw each other. |
Battle of the Coral Sea |
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Mobile Explosive Investigative Unit were instrumental in the clearance of explosive hazards both on land and at sea and were later renamed? |
Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) units |
|
T or F Riverine Assault Operations employ MarineCorps and Navy forces to handling on R/T circuits. |
False |
|
A whistle signal of three long blast repeated several times usually indicates? |
Hostile aircraft or mechanized vehicle |
|
State the three types of intelligence? |
Strategic Operational Tactical |
|
List the five steps in the intelligence cycle? |
Planning and Direction Collection Processing Production Dissemination |
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Navy's system for providing proper safeguards on telecommunications via encryption is known as? |
Communications Security (COMSEC) |
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Clearance is defined as? |
A formal determination that a person meets the personnel security standards and is thus eligible for access to classified information other than that protected in a special access program. |
|
A real-time procedure used to alert circuit operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occured over a NONSECURE circuit |
BEADWINDOW |
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Three factors that affect the range of radio equipment |
Weather Terrain Antenna Power Location of the radio |
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Eight core elements that make up an Expeditionary Camp Team |
Security Intelligence Supply/ Logistic Training Administration Medical Operations Maintenance |
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Five basic phases of an expeditionary camp layout |
Phase I- Planning Phase II- Site Survey/Security Phase III Camp Establishment Phase IV- Camp Maintenance Phase V- Camp Teardown |
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What are considerations of expeditionary camp layout phase one |
Reason for the camp Type of camp Terrain Climate Threat level
|
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Three different teams used during expeditionary camp layout phase two? |
Site survey/ preparation team Site security team Camp setup team |
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What services should be provided when carrying out phase three of expeditionary camp layout? |
Billeting activities Food service Shower and head facilities Field Armory First Aid Station Combined Maintenance Engineering Logistics (CMEL) Laundry service Administrative services Firefighting team MWR activites Resident unit ministry team |
|
What form is filled out when a trouble desk attendant recieves a trouble call? |
Emergency/Service authorization (ESA) |
|
Four priority work classifications |
safety function preventive appearance |
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Potable water suitable for? |
Drinking, cooking, and personal use |
|
Plain/ simple chlorination |
Plain or simple chlorination is the single application of chlorine as the only treatment before discharge to the water distribution system |
|
Three standard gear issue categories |
Fighting/ load carrying Bivouac Protective |
|
Standard 782 gear consist of |
-Pistol belt with two mag pouches -Pack, usually a medium size H-harness or suspenders
|
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Name the three fighting positions |
Hasty Improved one man Improved two man |
|
Biggest disadvantage of improved two man opposed to a improved one man fighting position? |
Two man provides less protection from tanks, bombing, strafing, and shelling. |
|
Preferable camo concealing of a vehicle natural or cammie net? |
Natural cover |
|
First thing yoo if caught in the open at night with flare overhead? |
Hit the deck |
|
KOCOA |
Key Terrain Observation and Fields of Fire Concealment and cover Obstacles to Movement Avenues of Approach |
|
Process of orienting a map using a compass |
-When a compass rose appears on the map place the compass over the magnetic north line. -Turn the map until the north arrow of the compass is aligned. -For maps with no compass rose, use the N/S grid line. |
|
BAMCIS |
Begin planning Arrange recon Make recon Complete the plan Issue the order Supervise |
|
SMEAC |
Situation Mission Execution Admin and Logistics Command and Signal |
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Three sub-paragraphs of the Situation paragraph of a five paragraph order? |
Enemy forces Friendly forces Attachments and detachments |
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When is a SALUTE report used? |
When observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat. |
|
Primary mission of a reconnaissance patrol? |
Information gathering |
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Three considerations when creating a fire plan? |
Sectors or Zone of Fire Individual fighting positions Crew served weapons Rifleman positions Terrain features Fire team leader |
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Two types of fire limits |
Lateral and forward |
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Four types of fire team formations |
Column Wedge Skirmishers (right to left) Echelon (right to left) |
|
How many articles are in Code of Conduct? |
Six |
|
Four THREATCON levels |
Alpha Bravo Charlie Delta |
|
Is arrest or apprehension a circumstance deadly force would normally be used to collect information |
Yes |
|
Navy representative on the joint chief of staff is? |
(CNO) Chief of Naval Operations |
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T or F N-4 Dept Head is responsible for scheduling visitor interviews with XO and other officers as appropriate. |
False |
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T or F N-1 Dept Head is responsible for administration of a unit's supplies and equipment funds so that all essential material requirements are met. |
False |
|
Navy Expeditionary Combat Command NECC responsibility is? |
Provide oversight and command and control of anti-terrorism force protection (ATFP) and expeditionary - type forces within the Navy. |
|
Deployable, armed small craft units that support security operations in littoral regions worldwide manned with USCG and USCGR SELRES are. |
Port Security Unit (PSU) |
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Teams, which provide protection to MSC ships such as maritime prepositioning ships, fast combat support ships and bulk fuel carriers, and their civilian crews are known as. |
Embarked Security Teams (EST) |
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The _________ is the administrative and operational commander for six Naval Construction Regiments and two Seabee Readiness Groups |
First Naval Construction Division |
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During North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) operations what vehicle markings will be on front and rear of the vehicle to indicate US ownership? |
Solid black five-point star |
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Purpose is to rapidly establish a MAGTF ashore so that it is _____ prepared to conduct subsequent operations ranging from humanitarian assistance to all levels of armed conflict. |
MPF (Maritime Prepositioning Force) purpose |
|
Pronounceable words or phrase that have been assigned meaning to expedite message authorized? |
Prowords |
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What are three types of wire entanglements? |
Tactical Protective Supplementary |
|
Describe Challenge and reply. |
Two words used to determine friend or foe, or a duress situation. |
|
List things addressed by an effective ATFP plan. |
Concept of operations Preplanned responses Tactics Crisis management procedures Consequence management procedures Baseline security posture Measures to increase security posture Reporting procedures Command and control procedures
|
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Name the five types of waterborne threats. |
Small boats Deep draft boat Subsurface Swimmers Floating mines
|
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What actions are taken when Seaward Continuum of Force (SCOF) level three is attained? |
Warning shots from Crew Serve weapons are fired across bow of Contact of Interest (COI) |
|
T or F When engaging a hostile waterborne craft fire should be directed at the coxswain. |
False |
|
What is the ideal width of security zones surrounding a water borne High Value Asset (HVA)? |
500 Meters |
|
Name things that affect waterborne security zone size/ location? |
UN restrictions Geography Threat Areas Capabilities of US security forces Proximity of Targets |
|
What is the principal task of security forces with respect to waterborne vessels? |
To determine hostile intent as far from the HVA as possible. |
|
What are the minimal and ideal number of boats used for a moving security zone? |
Two (minimum) and Four (ideal) |
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Historically, Maritime Interception Operations have been defined as what? |
Peacetime measures designed to enforce embargoes sanctioned by the USNC, national authority, or other regional organization. |
|
What is the purpose of the Marine Safety Office (MSO)? |
To ensure the safety, security, and environmental protection of CONUS ports and surrounding areas. |
|
What is the specific purpose of a chemical agent? |
Intended for military operation to kill, seriously injure or incapacitate personnel. |
|
Name routes of entry for nonpercutaneous hazards. |
respiratory tract open wounds eyes ingestion
|
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T or F An M40 Mask canister cannot be changed in a contaminated environment. |
True |
|
The Advanced Chemical Protective Garment (ACPG) Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology (JSLIST) may be laundered how many times? |
six |
|
What are the two auto injectors commonly issued to personnel as a for CBR treatment? |
2 PAM Chloride Antropine |
|
What is the primary purpose of IM series dosimeters? |
Measure and indicate the accumulated dose of X-ray and gamma radiation to which the wearer has been exposed. |
|
What are the three types of chemical warfare agents? |
Casualty agents Non-lethal incapacitating agents Harassing agents |
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What are three types of nuclear explosions? |
Air burst Surface burst Sub-surface burst |
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Of the four types of nuclear radiation what two are the most dangerous to personnel? |
Gamma rays and neutrons |
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When at a MOPP level two overboots are _____? |
Worn |
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Chemical marker signs are what color? |
Yellow and Red |
|
What is M-9 paper used to detect? |
Liquid nerve and blister agents |
|
What are three possible colors M-8 paper can turn when it has a positive reading? |
Red, Yellow and Green |
|
M-291and M-295 are used to do what? |
Decontaminate exposed skin in a chemical environment and prior to entering the Contamination Control Area. |
|
The Advanced Chemical Protective Garment (ACPG) Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology (JSLIST) has a wear life of how long in a contaminated environment? |
24 Hours |
|
What are the three types of decontamination? |
Immediate Operational Thorough
|
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What device is used in conjunction with the CP-95 radiac computer indicator and what is it's range? |
DT-60 dosimeter with a range of 10 to 600 Roentgens. |
|
What four applications are applied to prevent or mitigate workplace hazards? |
Substitution, isolation, Ventilation and Administrative controls. |
|
What are two types of Ventilation? |
Local Exhaust Ventilation (LEV) and general or dilution ventilation. |
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Define Substitution |
Reducing the risk of injury or illness by substituting a known hazard (process or material) with a less hazardous process material. |
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What are administrative Controls with regards to safety? |
Control method that mitigates hazards through the implementation of effective operating procedures that reduce the exposure of individuals to chemical or physical hazards. |
|
What training is required for all new employees regardless of their position? |
Safety Orientation Training |
|
What are two things that should be done to support the launch and retrieval of a small boat? |
Inspect all equipment before use Conduct an operations and safety briefing Conduct a boat inspection Keep nonessential personnel away from the davit area. |
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T or F Small boats should be fueled during daytime and while in the water if possible? |
True |
|
Boat crew members must be at least what class swimmer? |
Class 2 |
|
What does the (Rule of Good Seamanship) require? |
Requires boats to give way to ships and seaplanes. |
|
Max boat capacity should be reduced when? |
During extreme weather conditions |
|
FOD is any object that may be what? |
Disturbed by the wind across the deck or rotor wash/ |
|
Personnel should avoid approaching within ___ feet of a helicopter with rotating blades, unless necessary. |
50 |
|
Whenever personnel are required to approach or leave a helicopter with rotating blades they should do so in a ____ position. |
Crouched |
|
What type of equipment is considered electrical? |
generators electrically powered machinery and mechanisms power cables controllers transformers associated equipment
|
|
What type of equipment is considered electronic? |
radars sonars radios power amplifiers antennas electronic warfare equipment computers associated controls and peripherals |
|
What is considered portable electrical equipment? |
Devices that may be plugged into the ships electrical power. (outlets) |
|
What must be done prior to energizing any equipment that has been tagged out? |
Tag must be properly cleared. |
|
How to prevent electrical fires? |
Keep electric motors clean Ensure proper maintenance is performed Report overheating or arching electrical equipment |
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What are symptoms of an electrical shock victim? |
Victim possibly very pale or bluish Pulse is extremely weak or entirely absent Unconsciousness is complete Burns are usually present Victims body may become rigid or stiff |
|
What's is the first step that should be attempted during electrical shock victim rescue? |
Secure Power |
|
Define preventive maintenance as it pertains to electronic equipment. |
Alignment, adjustment, tuning or testing of operational equipment to ensure performance within published maintenance requirement card and or technical manuals/ procedures. |
|
T or F Repair of electronic equipment is normally conducted on energized circuits. |
False |
|
Freelance corrective maintenance on energized electronic equipment can be performed with the permission of whom? |
CO |
|
Is it safe to leave open ordnance magazines or lockers unattended? |
No |
|
What flag is flown during ordnance cargo handling operations? |
BRAVO |
|
When eliminating or minimizing hazards through the use of engineering controls is not possible what is the Navy's policy? |
That activities provide, use and maintain PPE when its use is necessary to lessen the likelihood of occupational injuries and or illness. |
|
T or F PPE eliminates hazards? |
False |
|
What does PPE provide for the user? |
A last line of defense against hazards |
|
Define First Aid |
First aid is the emergency care and treatment of a sick or injured person before medical services are obtained. |
|
What are the three primary purposes of first aid? |
To save life Prevent further injury To minimize or prevent infection |
|
With regards to first aid what does A. B. C. stand for? |
Airway Breathing Circulation |
|
What is the correct position of a patient being treated for shock? |
Patient should be placed on his or her back, with legs elevated 6 to 12 inches. |
|
What are the two types of fractures? |
Open and Closed |
|
T or F Splints should not be so long that they reach the joint above and below a fracture. |
False |
|
What are symptoms of a second degree burn? |
Affects the first layer of the skin Skin blistered and weeping Pain is moderate to severe |
|
A fracture or separation of the ribs from the breastbone may produce a free-floating segment called a ______? |
Flail area |
|
T or F Most injuries to the abdomen require surgery to repair he internal damage. |
True |
|
What are the three types of heat injuries? |
Heat cramps Heat exhaustion Heat stroke |
|
What are the two types of cold injuries? |
Frostbite Hypothermia |
|
What does line five of a nine line medevac indicate? |
Number of patients |
|
Name the five organizations that pioneered the unconventional warfare to form the present Naval Special Warfare Warrior? |
-Scouts and Raiders -Naval Combat Demolition Units -Office of Strategic Services Operational Swimmers (OSS) -Underwater Demolition Teams -Motor Torpedo Boat Squadrons of WWII. |
|
Who is considered to Father of Naval Special Warfare? |
Phil H. Bucklew |
|
During WWII what two services merged for training at Amphibious Training Base, Little Creek to begin Amphibious Scouts? |
Army & Navy |
|
What year were the first Amphibious Scouts and Raiders group commissioned? |
1942 |
|
What was the first operation conducted by the Amphibious Scouts and Raiders? |
Operation Torch |
|
In November 1942 the first combat demolition unit succeeded in cutting a cable and net barrier across the Wadi Sebou River during Operation Torch. This action enables which vessel to insert US Rangers? |
USS Dallas (DD 199) |
|
Who is considered the Father of Naval Combat Demolition? |
LCDR Draper L. Kauffman |
|
What year did LCDR Kauffman establish Naval Combat Demolition Unit Training at FT Pierce? |
1944 |
|
Why were Naval Combat Demolition Units established? |
To eliminate obstacles on an enemy beach prior to invasion. |
|
What was the operation conducted by the Naval Combat Demolition Units, for the amphibious landing at Normandy? |
Operation Overlord |
|
During which operation did Underwater Demolition teams first see combat? |
01/31/1944 Operation Flintlock |
|
Which President desired the services to develop an Unconventional Warfare capability? |
Pres. Kennedy |
|
What year did the US Navy establish SEAL Team One and Two? |
1962 |
|
Were did the Navy get the personnel to form the first SEAL Team? |
Underwater Demolition Teams |
|
What year were all Underwater Demolition Teams re-designated as SEAL Teams? |
May 1, 1983 |
|
T or F Seal Delivery Vehicles and Special Boat Units can trace their history back to WWII |
False |
|
In response to September 11th Naval Special warfare had troops on the ground in Afghanistan by what month? |
October |
|
T or F The first military flag officer to set foot in Afghanistan was a Navy Seal? |
True |
|
What conflict has employed the largest number of Navy Seal's in it's history? |
Operation Iraqi Freedom |
|
What model of submersible vehicle is used today by Seal Delivery Vehicle Teams? |
Mark 8 Mod 1 and advance SEAL Delivery System (ASDS) |
|
USSOCOM is made up of how many organizations? |
4 |
|
What does MARSOC stand for? |
US Marine Corps Forces Special Operations Command |
|
What date was MARSOC established? |
Feb 24, 2006 |
|
What does AFSOC stand for? |
Air Force Special Operations Command |
|
How many units carry out the AFSOC mission around the globe? |
11 |
|
How many commands are under NAVSPECWARCOM? |
7 |
|
What does USASOC stand for? |
US Army Special Operations Command |
|
What does CSSD stand for? |
Combat Service Support Detachment |
|
What officer is the department head for MCD? |
Communications Officer |
|
T or F The mission of the SEAL teams is to plan and conduct special operations in support of combatant commanders. |
True |
|
T or F TRADET is not a command within NSWG? |
False |
|
Naval Special Warfare Group One exercises operational and administrative control over all SEAL Teams located where? |
West Coast |
|
What does NSWTG stand for? |
Naval Special Warfare Task Group |
|
Which of the four listing below have command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon level or below the level of combatant commanders? |
OPCON |
|
Where is NAVL SPECIAL WARFARE UNIT ONE located and based at? |
Agana, Guam |