Exam 2

Front 1

_____ function to break down bone for release of calcium.

Back 1

Osteoclasts

Front 2

The patella is an example of a ________ bone.

Back 2

Sesamoid

Front 3

Calcitriol is required for______

Back 3

absorbing dietary calcium & phosphate

Front 4

A drop in blood calcium levels stimulates the secretion of

Back 4

parathyroid hormone

Front 5

The mandible articulates with a fossa with in the _____ bone.

Back 5

temporal

Front 6

The calvaria (or skull cap) is formed by the ______ bones.

Back 6

frontal, parietal, occipital

Front 7

When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the

Back 7

ischial tuberosities

Front 8

Which of the following statements about the parasanal sinuses are true

Back 8

All make the skull bones lighter, connect the nasal cavaties, line with a ciliated epithelium

Front 9

The _____ curve developes in response to the weight of the of the head when the toddler is learning balance.

Back 9

cervical

Front 10

Which of the following is former immediately after a fracture?

Back 10

hematoma

Front 11

Bleeding occurs over several hours resulting in a ______.

Back 11

blood clot

Front 12

Differences between male and female pelvis include

Back 12

a broad pelvis in females

Front 13

The female pelvis is broad and is also known as a

Back 13

"low pelvis"

Front 14

Which of the following bones is not found within the nasal cavity?

Back 14

lacrimal

Front 15

Which facial bone supports the upper teeth?

Back 15

maxillary bones

Front 16

Which bone forms the lower part of the bony nasal spetum?

Back 16

vomer bone

Front 17

Which frontalle of the infant skull is often referred to as the "soft spot" on newborns

Back 17

anterior

Front 18

The ribs articulate with the ____.

Back 18

transverse process of the thoracic vertebrae

Front 19

Which organ is located in the hypophyseal fossa of the sphenoid bone?

Back 19

pituitary gland

Front 20

The ____ forms the anteromedial floor of the cranium.

Back 20

ethnoid

Front 21

Which of these bones is not part of the oribital complex?

Back 21

vomer

Front 22

The cranial structures begin to form at about what age?

Back 22

5

Front 23

The weight bearing region of a vertebrals the

Back 23

vertebral body

Front 24

Ribs 8-12 are the

Back 24

false ribs

Front 25

The first cervicle vertebra is called the

Back 25

atlas

Front 26

Which of the following bone is not part of the axial skeleton?

Back 26

patella

Front 27

Which of the following bones is not part of the vertebral column

Back 27

ribs

Front 28

Which bone of the axial skeleton protects the brain?

Back 28

cranium

Front 29

Which of the following bones is not found with in nasal cavity?

Back 29

lacrimal bone

Front 30

Which structure connects the parietal bones to the occipital bone?

Back 30

lamboloid

Front 31

Which bone contains the mastoid process styloid process and external acoustic meatus?

Back 31

temporal bone

Front 32

Which open (hole) is located above the eye socket?

Back 32

Supraorbital foramen

Front 33

True (vertebrosternal) ribs

Back 33

are directly attached to the sternum by separate costal cartilages

Front 34

False (vertebrochondra) ribs

Back 34

are not directly attached to the sternum

Front 35

Floating (vertebral) ribs

Back 35

have no connection with the sternum, and are only attached in the vertebrae

Front 36

Which part of the sternum articulates with ribs 2-7?

Back 36

body

Front 37

The _____ doesn't belong in the upper limbs.

Back 37

tibia

Front 38

The _____ doesn't belong in the lower limbs?

Back 38

Carpal bones

Front 39

The pectoral girdle is formed from the scapula and the

Back 39

clavicle

Front 40

The _____ is not apart of the appendicular skeleton.

Back 40

atlas

Front 41

The _____________ is the smaller, anterior projection of the scapula

Back 41

coracoid process

Front 42

The scapula articulates with the clavicle__________

Back 42

distally at the acromion

Front 43

What is the difference between the anatomical neck and the surgical neck of the humerous?

Back 43

the surgical neck corresponds to the metaphysis of the growing bone where fractures commonly occur, and the anatomical neck marks the extent of the joint capsule

Front 44

Which of the following is found on the lateral side of the condyle?

Back 44

capitulum

Front 45

Which of the following separates the greater and lesser tubercle on the humerus?

Back 45

intertubercular groove

Front 46

Which bone is medial to the trapezium and articulated with the scaphoid?

Back 46

trapezoid

Front 47

The wedge shaped ________ articulates with the scaphoid

Back 47

trapezoid

Front 48

The ________ is a socket that articulated with the head of the femur.

Back 48

acetabulum

Front 49

What attaches to the greater trochanter and lesser trochanter?

Back 49

large tendons

Front 50

Which of the following separated the medial and lateral condyles?

Back 50

intercondylar fossa

Front 51

What is the name of the prominent elevation that runs along the center of the posterior surface of the femur?

Back 51

linea aspera

Front 52

The lateral bulge of the ankle is from the _______.

Back 52

malleolus of the fibula

Front 53

The bones that give the foot a wide range of motion are the

Back 53

tarsals

Front 54

One function of bone is to produce red and white blood cells. These cells are made in what substance in the bone?

Back 54

red marrow

Front 55

Which of the following bones is accurately described as an irregular bone?

Back 55

vertebra

Front 56

Bones forming the roof of the skull and the scapula are referred to as

Back 56

flat bones

Front 57

Mature bone cells found in lacunae are called

Back 57

osteocytes

Front 58

Giant multinucleated cells involved in the process of osteocylsis are

Back 58

osteoclasts

Front 59

One of the basic histological differences between compact and spongy bone is that in compact bone,

Back 59

the basic function unit is the osteon, or haversian system

Front 60

Unlike compact bone, spongy bone (also called cancellous bone) resembles a network of bony struts separated by spaces that are normally filled with____

Back 60

bone marrow

Front 61

Spongy bone is found primarily at which part of long bones?

Back 61

expanded ends, where long bone articulates with other skeletal elements

Front 62

Compact bone is usually found where

Back 62

stresses arrive from a limited range of directions

Front 63

During intramembranous ossification, the developing bone grows outward from the ossification center in small struts called

Back 63

spicules

Front 64

The process during which osteoblasts begin to differentiate with a mesenchymal or fibrous connective tissue is called

Back 64

intremembranous ossification

Front 65

The process during which bones begin development as cartilage models and the cartliage is later replaced by bone is called

Back 65

endochondral ossification

Front 66

The region known as the epiphyseal plate is the area where

Back 66

cartilage is being replaced by bone

Front 67

The spongy skeleton begins to form about _____ after fertilization and usually does not stop growing until about age _____ years.

Back 67

6 weeks; 25

Front 68

The process of replacing other tissue with bone is?

Back 68

ossification

Front 69

Which bone disorder is characterized by the formation of bone in wrong places after minor injury?

Back 69

fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva

Front 70

What is the condition that produces a reduction in bone mass sufficient to compromise normal function?

Back 70

osteoporosis

Front 71

A person who chooses to eat a diet of junk food and has a sedentary job is NOT likely to experience?

Back 71

thickened, prominent ridges on bones in the places of muscle attachment

Front 72

Growth hormone from the pituitary gland and thyroxine from the thyroid gland maintain normal bone growth activity at the

Back 72

epiphyseal plates

Front 73

Secondary ossification centers can be found in the

Back 73

epiphyses of a long bone

Front 74

Pott's fracture is identified primarily by a

Back 74

break in both lower leg bones at the ankle

Front 75

Depressions, grooves, and tunnels in bone indicate

Back 75

where blood vessels or nerves lie alongside or penetrate bones

Front 76

Which anatomical term describes a rounded passageway for blood vessels or nerves?

Back 76

foramen

Front 77

Changing the magnitude and direction of forces generated by skeletal muscles is an illustration of the skeletal function of

Back 77

leverage

Front 78

Where is a sesamoid bone most often found?

Back 78

near joints at the knee, the hands, and the feet

Front 79

The outer surface of the bone, the periosteum,

Back 79

isolates the bone from surrounding tissues, provides a route for circulatory, and nervous supply, and actively participates in bone growth and repair

Front 80

Osteolysis is an important process in the regulation of

Back 80

calcium and phosphate concentrations in body fluids

Front 81

A tall, slender person with unusually long, slender limbs because of excess cartilage formation at the epiphyseal cartilages has what disorder?

Back 81

Marfan's syndrome

Front 82

A girl born with nonfunctioning ovaries could be expected to have a deficiency in the activity of which type of cell?

Back 82

Osteoblasts

Front 83

Darcy wrecks her bike and experiences a break in the distal portion of her radius, which now projects out of her skin. Which type of fracture does she have?

Back 83

an open Colles' fracture

Front 84

The thyroid regulates bone growth and maintenance through its production of what hormone?

Back 84

thyroxine

Front 85

When the calcium ion concentration of the blood rises above normal, secretion of the hormone calcitonin _____

Back 85

increases the rate of calcium ion execretion

Front 86

When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite side, bones

Back 86

grow longer

Front 87

The fibers of tendons intermingle with those of the periosteum, attaching

Back 87

skeletal muscles to bones

Front 88

Appositional growth

Back 88

increases the diameter of a long bone, forms circumferential lamellae, involves both osteoblasts and osteoclasts

Front 89

The type of fracture that occurs in vertebrae subject to extreme stresses is a _____ fracture

Back 89

compression

Front 90

What are the circulating hormones that stimulate bone growth?

Back 90

growth hormone and thyroxine

Front 91

Appositional bone growth at the outer surface results in

Back 91

an increase in the diameter of a growing bone

Front 92

Which vitamins are specifically required for normal bone growth?

Back 92

vitamins A, C, and D

Front 93

Homogenized milk fortified with vitamin D is effective in preventing what bone disorder in children?

Back 93

rickets

Front 94

A fracture in which one side of the shaft is broken and the other side is bent is a

Back 94

greenstick fracture

Front 95

Which of the following does NOT occur during the fracture repair?

Back 95

Dead tissue next to the break is left in the break area and covered by new bone tissue.

Front 96

Osteomalacia is caused by a diet deficient in

Back 96

calcium or Vitamin D

Front 97

The condition in which a child's leg bones bend under the weight of the body is called

Back 97

rickets

Front 98

The hormone synthesized in the kidneys that regulates absorption of calcium and phosphate ions in the digestive tract is

Back 98

calcitiriol

Front 99

Fractures that shatter the bone into many small fragments are called ____ fractures.

Back 99

comminuted

Front 100

At maturity, why are women generally shorter than men?

Back 100

Estrogens promote faster closure of epiphyseal plates than androgens do

Front 101

How can the axial skeleton be recognized?

Back 101

It forms the longitudinal axis of the body

Front 102

How many bones does the human skeleton contain?

Back 102

206

Front 103

Which one includes bones found exclusively in the axial skeleton?

Back 103

skull, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, hyoid

Front 104

The axial skeleton creates a framework that supports and protects organ systems in the ________

Back 104

cranial and thoracic cavities

Front 105

There are ____ cranial bones, ____ facial bones, ___ auditory ossicles, and ___ hyoid(s)

Back 105

8,14,6,1

Front 106

Which of the following collections of bones includes one that are unpaired in the skull?

Back 106

occipital and frontal

Front 107

The associated bones of the skull include the

Back 107

hyoid and auditory ossicles

Front 108

The sagittal suture joints _______.

Back 108

the parietal bones to each other

Front 109

The sutures that articulate the bones of the skull are the _______.

Back 109

lambdoidal, sagittal, coronal and squamous

Front 110

The bones that make up the eye socket, or orbit, include the

Back 110

lacrimal, ethmoid, and sphenoid

Front 111

Foramina, located on the bones of the skull, serve primarily as passageways for ______.

Back 111

nerves and blood vessels

Front 112

The lines, tubercles, crests, ridges, and other processes on the bone represent areas that are used primarily for _______.

Back 112

attachment of muscles to bones

Front 113

The superior and ,middle nasal conchae can be found as a part of which bone?

Back 113

ethmoid

Front 114

The sinuses, or internal chambers in the skull, are found in the _______.

Back 114

sphenoid, frontal, ethmoid, and maxillary bones

Front 115

The mucous membrane of the paranasal sinuses responds to environmental stress by

Back 115

accelerating the production of mucus

Front 116

Why can the skull be distorted without damage during birth?

Back 116

Fibrous connective tissue connects the cranial bones

Front 117

In a warm climate, which fontanelle might indicate dehydration in an infant?

Back 117

anterior

Front 118

Why does the most significant growth in the skull occur before five years of age?

Back 118

the brain stops growing, and cranial sutures develope

Front 119

The primary spinal curves that appear late in fetal development

Back 119

accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera

Front 120

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called

Back 120

scoliosis

Front 121

Which are the largest and most massive of the vertebrae?

Back 121

lumbar vertebrae

Front 122

Which correctly identifies the sequence of the vertebrae from superior to inferior ?

Back 122

cervicle, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx

Front 123

Which of the following is NOT likely to cause kyphosis?

Back 123

abdominal obesity causing an exaggeration of the lumbar curvature

Front 124

C1 and C2 have specific names, which are the

Back 124

atlas and axis

Front 125

The sacrum consists of five fused elements that afford protection for

Back 125

reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs

Front 126

The primary purpose of the coccyx is to provide

Back 126

an attachment site for a muscle that closes the anal opening

Front 127

The first seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs, whereas the lower five pairs are called false ribs. Why are the false ribs so named?

Back 127

They do not attach directly to the sternum

Front 128

The skeletal of the chest, or thorax, consists of

Back 128

thoracic vertebrae, ribs, and sternum

Front 129

The three components of the adult sternum are the

Back 129

manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

Front 130

When do brain growth, skull growth, and completion of cranial suture development occur?

Back 130

before age 5

Front 131

The area of the greatest degree of flexibility along the vertebral column is found from

Back 131

C3 to C7

Front 132

After a hard fall, compression fractures or compression/dislocation fractures most often involve the

Back 132

last thoarcic and first two lumbar vertebrae

Front 133

Which vertebral process projects posteriorly?

Back 133

spinous process

Front 134

The intervertebral foramina

Back 134

permit the passageway of nerves to and from the spinal cord

Front 135

The skull articulates with the vertebral column at

Back 135

the occipital condyles

Front 136

What is the long frame work of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland?

Back 136

sella turcica

Front 137

The growth of the cranium is usually associated with

Back 137

the expansion of the brain

Front 138

Beginning at the superior end of the vertebral canal and proceeding inferiorly

Back 138

the diameter of the vertebral foramen decreases, and the size of the vertebral body increases

Front 139

The vertebrae that are directly articulated with the ribs are the

Back 139

thoracic only

Front 140

The head of the rib articulates at

Back 140

the body of the vertebra

Front 141

Joey feels the bones of his vertebral column under the skin as he runs his fingers along his back. What part of a vertebral bone is he actually feeling?

Back 141

spinous process

Front 142

Which bones conduct sound vibrations from the tympanum to the inner ear?

Back 142

auditory ossicles

Front 143

A diagnosis of lordosis indicates what spinal condition?

Back 143

swayback

Front 144

TMJ syndrome is a misalignment of the ________ at the temporomandibular joint

Back 144

manible

Front 145

On examination of the vertebral bone, you notice not only that it contains a vertebral foramen but also that two foramina are in the transverse processes of the vertebrae. The bone comes from which potion of the vertebral column

Back 145

cervicle

Front 146

The parietal bone is located in the

Back 146

cranium

Front 147

The foramen magnum connects the ____ with the ______.

Back 147

cranial cavity; vertebral canal

Front 148

The clavicles articulate with a bone of the sternum called the

Back 148

manubrium

Front 149

The surfaces of the scapulae and clavicles and extremely important as sites for

Back 149

muscle attachement

Front 150

the spine of the scapula is located on the bone's ______ side

Back 150

posterior

Front 151

the bones of the pectoral girdle include the

Back 151

clavicle and the scapula

Front 152

the olecranon fossa on the humerus is located on the bone's _____ side

Back 152

posterior

Front 153

In a female, the angle at the pubic symphysis is greater than

Back 153

90 degrees

Front 154

The bone of the ankle that is just posterior to the medial cuneiform is called the

Back 154

navicular bone

Front 155

The bones of the pelvic girdle include the

Back 155

ilium, pubis, and ischium

Front 156

The primary function of the pectoral girdle is to

Back 156

position the shoulder joint and provide a base for arm movement

Front 157

The malleolus of the fibula is always on the ________ aspect of the leg

Back 157

lateral

Front 158

The large medial bone of the lower leg is the

Back 158

tibia

Front 159

What is the prominent deviation that runs along the center of the posterior surface of the femur, which serves as an attachment site for the muscles that abduct the femur?

Back 159

line aspera

Front 160

The general appearance of the female pelvis is different from the male in that the female pelvis is

Back 160

broad, light, and smooth

Front 161

In the female pelvis, you would expect the iliac crests to be

Back 161

farther apart than in the male pelvis

Front 162

The sacrum and the coccyx is curved in

Back 162

the male pelvis

Front 163

When you sit down, you are resting your weight on your

Back 163

ischial tuberosities

Front 164

On the clavicle, the ________ articulates with the manubrium.

Back 164

sternal end

Front 165

What is the unique compromise of the articulations in the appendicular skeleton?

Back 165

the stronger the joint, the more restricted the range of motion

Front 166

What is the longest and heaviest bone in the body?

Back 166

Femur

Front 167

The term "phalanges" is used for the bones of the

Back 167

fingers and toes

Front 168

The process of the humerus located near the head that establishes the contour of the shoulder is the

Back 168

greater tubercle

Front 169

What bone articulates, or forms a joint, with the acetabulumn?

Back 169

femur

Front 170

The distal caprals are

Back 170

trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate

Front 171

The superior lip of the trochlear notch of the ulna is formed by the

Back 171

olecranon

Front 172

The largest carpal bone in the hand is

Back 172

capitate

Front 173

What is the only bone in the ankle that articulates with the tibia and the fibula?

Back 173

talus

Front 174

What is the structure that joints the femoral head to the shaft?

Back 174

neck

Front 175

What is the largest sesamoid bone found in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris?

Back 175

patella

Front 176

The head of the ulna is located ______ to the ulna tuberosity.

Back 176

distal

Front 177

The distal portion of the foot is made of bones called

Back 177

metatarsals

Front 178

Weight transfer occurs along the ______ of the foot.

Back 178

longitundinal arch

Front 179

The small, pea shaped pisiform bone sits anterior to the ______ bone.

Back 179

triquetrum

Front 180

The bone provides the only fixed support for the pectoral girdle?

Back 180

clavicle

Front 181

At its proximal end, the round head of the humerus articulates with the

Back 181

scapula

Front 182

Which bone articulates with the humerus to form the shoulder joint ?

Back 182

scapula

Front 183

Which bones form the palm of the hand?

Back 183

metacarpals

Front 184

The trochlea of the humerus articulates with what bone?

Back 184

ulna

Front 185

What structural characteristic of the pectoral girdle allow for a great deal of movement?

Back 185

relatively weak joint

Front 186

The fovea capitis is a depression in

Back 186

the femoral head

Front 187

The large heel bone that transfers your body weight to the ground is the

Back 187

calcaneus

Front 188

The pollex is the

Back 188

thumb

Front 189

What rough area of the ilium marks the site of articulation with the sacrum?

Back 189

auricular surface

Front 190

The lumbar spine and the pelvic girdle articulate with the

Back 190

sacrum

Front 191

The distal processes of the tibia and fibula that act as a shield for the ankle are the

Back 191

malleolus

Front 192

The coracoid process and the acromion are parts of the

Back 192

scapula

Front 193

When a person fractures the fibula, why does walking become difficult?

Back 193

The fibula provides lateral stability to the ankle joint