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267 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the responsibility of the ASTAC? |
Controls fixed-wing and rotary aircraft engaged in ASW operations |
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What does CVIC stand for? |
Carrier Intelligence Center |
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What rate primarily operates in CVIC? |
IS and CT |
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What does ROE stand for? |
Rules of Engagement |
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What nuclear reaction occurs that produces our energy? |
Fission |
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What type of distilling plants are used onboard and their maximum daily distilling capacity? |
Reverse osmosis units rated at 125,000 gallons per day |
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What is the purpose of Under Sea Warfare (USW)? |
Operation used to counter submarine threat. Details tactical and procedural instructions for ships, submarines, and aircraft |
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What is the purpose of Automated Stats Board (ASTAB)? |
Displays information such as are events, call signs, and tasking |
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What is the purpose of CVIC? |
Provides the carrier strike group with operational, Technical, and strike planning information. |
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What are the 3 main rules of CVIC? |
Supports the battle groups intelligence requirements by supplying the commanding officer, Embarked staff, and the air wing with operational, Technical, and strike planning information |
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Who authorizes us to shift modes of operation? |
OOD (officer of the deck) |
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What was the first nuclear powered carrier? |
USS Enterprise |
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What is the basic flow path for how we use the energy from the reactor to get usable energy to turn the shafts? |
1 reactor produces Heat 2 water is circulated 3 heat transfers slash produce Steam 4 steam is sent to APUs ADCB |
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How far off land can we discharge over the side? |
3 nautical miles |
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State the voltage and amperage rating of a BPAU? |
124 watts output, converts 44 direct volts input in an isolated and regulated + / - 20 amp DC output up 2 + / - 650 volts DC |
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What is the purpose and function of CSOOW? |
Direct liaison with damage control |
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True or false the MCMs provides the ability to troubleshoot specific system problems and monitor Network Health? |
True |
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Which of the following is not a ship's defense weapon system? |
Mk17 anti-submarine missile defense |
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In reference to the SSDS Mk2, which of the following is not an ordinance color code? |
Red |
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Where is the CSOOW watch located? |
03-160-0-R |
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True or false, Cold refueling is completed when aircraft engines are shut down? |
True |
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True or false, The crash and salvage team is the flight deck's fire party? |
True |
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Each squadron assigned to the ship can operate and maintain their equipment/ aircraft with little assistance from ships force with exception of what department? |
AIMD |
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Each squadron is in charge of how many types of aircraft? |
1 |
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What does IFLOS stand for? |
Improved Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System |
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How much does Gerald R Ford's anchor chain weigh? |
15 tons |
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What's the size of Gerald R Ford's anchor chain? |
3 1/2 inch |
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What's the total length of Gerald R Ford's anchor chain? |
1440 feet |
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Gerald R. Ford has a fuel capacity of approximately how many gallons? |
2.14 million |
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The earth has a naturally occurring magnetic field also known as? |
Geomagnetic field |
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What does the ADS reduce the possibility of? |
Activating magnetically detonated ordinance or devices |
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What is the purpose of degaussing? |
Minimize the ships magnetic signature |
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What does the ADS interact with? |
Earth's geomagnetic field |
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How many vertical fenders are installed onboard Gerald R Ford? |
8 |
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What is the maximum ship separation distance for replenishment between a CLF ship and Gerald R. Ford? |
300 |
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The Highline tension test loads from blank to approximately blank? |
50,000 and 100,000 lbs |
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What does SPE stand for in relation to Unrep? |
Sliding Pad Eye |
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What type of SPE is installed on board Gerald R Ford? |
18 |
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What is used to pay out and takes up the span wire and provides tension for the span wire went under load? |
Span wire winch |
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What supports the fuel hose on the span wire? |
Saddles |
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Where is station's 11 located? |
Hanger Bay 2 |
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What station is equipped to deliver fuel with one fuel hose ( single probe hose assembly) and is the only station capable of delivering fuel? |
Station 15 |
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Refueling station are marked with what type of color identification to Aid adjacent ships? |
Number in yellow and blue box |
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How many fuel stations are currently installed onboard Gerald R. Ford? |
Four |
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What does GCCS-M stand for? |
Global command and control system-maritime |
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What does C5I stand for? |
Command, control, communications, computers collaboration, and intelligence |
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What does AAG stand for? |
Advanced Arresting Gear |
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What is the DSVL? |
Doppler Sonar Velocity Log |
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A/5 32P-25 is the flight decks blank. |
Fire fighting truck |
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True or false flight deck lights are used exclusively so that the crew can see the deck at night? |
False |
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IFLOS is used to give blank information to pilots during the final phase of landing. |
Glide slope |
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What does EMALS stand for? |
Electromagnetic aircraft launching system |
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Ford class carriers are equipped with blank JBD's. |
4 |
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The P-25 holds blank gallons of water and blank gallons of AFFF. |
750 and 60 gallons |
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True or false, hanger deck markings are only found on the bulkheads? |
False |
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A red status light on the island indicates? |
Five minutes until operations |
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There are blank set of blank lights located on the island to let the crew know the status of flight ops. |
4 and 4 |
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In order to perform hot refueling an aircraft must have passed it blank? |
PreCheck |
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The AAG is designed to reduce blank and blank cost. |
Manning and life cycle |
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EMALS reduced the ship's blank signature. |
Thermal |
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What are the three modes of operation for ADS? |
Normal, standby, calibrate |
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Where is ADS normally controls from? |
Central control station (CCS) 4-122-0-C |
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The blank is a web net that is rigged and raised for emergency landing operations. |
Barricade |
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Who is directly responsible for all facets of operations within air department? |
Air Boss |
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A white flight deck Jersey with a red Cross signifies what? |
Flight deck medical |
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A brown flight deck Jersey signifies is what? |
Plane Captain |
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EMALS and AAG operators where what color Jersey? |
Green |
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Which watch supervisor does not report to CSOOW? |
All the above |
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What is MFR (spy 3 horizon search and fire control requirements for the 21st century fleet?) |
Multifunction radar |
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What two radars makeup the dual band radar? |
MFR & VSR |
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How many phase array does dual band radar have? |
3 for each radar |
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What does SSDS stand for? |
Ships Self Defense System |
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Aboard Gerald R. Ford what radar is used for surface search navigation? |
SP5-73 |
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What is the SP5-73 used for? |
Surface search / navigation |
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What CDC officer as a direct advisor to the command? |
TAO |
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What is the responsibility of the CDCWO? |
- the primary assistant to the TAO - provide support on the air, surface, and subsurface picture - supervised CDC watch team All of the above |
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Where is the oxygen production plant located onboard? |
1-130-2 -E |
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What do we use oxygen for onboard CVN 78? |
Aviators breathing, medical use, and welding.(HTs) |
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What does ADWC stand for? |
Air Defense Weapons Coordinator |
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What is the purpose of ADWC? |
Responsible to the TAO for the coordination of all air/weapons coordination |
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What was the first naval nuclear powered vessel? |
USS Nautilus |
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What are the five functions of CDC? |
Gathering, processing, displaying, evaluating, and disseminating information |
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What are the three basic conditions of readiness? |
Condition 1(set, the ship is at general quarters) Condition 3(wartime steaming) Condition 4(normal peace time steaming) |
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What does ASTAC stand for? |
Antisurface / Subsurface Tactical Air Controller |
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What is the responsibility of the AIC? |
Positive control of all aircraft assigned for any aircraft mission |
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What does AIC stand for? |
Air Intercept Controller |
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Name the watch stations at CDC command table? |
CDCWO TAO ADWC |
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How many watch stations are the CDC command table? |
3 |
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What is the purpose of JPAL? |
It's on all weather landing system based on differential GPS for land based and sea based aircraft |
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What type of aircraft is controlled by the sea combat air controller? |
Fixed wing and rotary aircrafts |
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What type of aircraft is controlled by the Air Intercept Controller (AIC)? |
Fighter Aircrafts |
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What is IFF used for? |
To enable military and national (civilian air traffic control) interrogation systems to identify aircraft, Vehicles, or forces as friendly and to determine their bearing and range from the interrogator. |
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What does IFF stand for? |
Identification Friend or Foe |
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What does RADAR stand for? |
RAdio Detection And Ranging |
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What circuit is used for lookout? |
JL |
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What does EMCON stand for? |
Emission Control |
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What is the most important phase of an amphibious operation? |
Ship to shore movement, in which the assault troops and their equipment are deployed from assault ships to designated areas ashore. |
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What does amphibious operations involve? |
Amphibious operations involve the movement of troops, supplies, and vehicles from ship to shore |
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What is VSR (spy-4 hemisphere volume surveillance to compile the total air pictirate)? |
Volume Search Radar |
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What does DBR stand for? |
Dual Band Radar |
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True or false, The ship nitrogen plants can produce liquid and gaseous nitrogen? |
False |
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What manual do we follow to ensure for specific guidance in achieving, certifying and maintaining oxygen cleanliness? |
MIL-STD-1330 |
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What are some safety precautions to observe when working with gaseous nitrogen? |
Nitrogen is an inert gas and will not support life and nitrogen generators are operated inside ship compartments consequently, leaks of nitrogen into the space can result in an oxygen deficient atmosphere within the compartment. These compartment must be well ventilator to prevent this condition. Nitrogen vents should be pipe overboard to a safe area. |
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What are the uses of gaseous nitrogen overboard? |
Aircraft tires, missile launches, gauge calibration, reactor maintenance and testing, NDTI-non-destructive, testing in inspection (AIMD) |
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What PPE does cryogenics shop use when handling liquid oxygen (LOX)? |
White cotton coveralls with web pocket, LOX boots (moulders), insulated gloves, face shield, rubber apron. |
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Where is the secondary Damage Control Center located? |
Secondary damage control center(SDCC) 2-216-6-Q |
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Where are the nitrogen plants located onboard? |
1-96 -4 -E |
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What does PAWDs stand for? |
Plasma Arc Waste Distruction System |
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How many air conditioning units are onboard? |
9 |
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How many HPACs are onboard? |
3 |
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Where is number one HPACs located on the ship? |
Number 1 air compressor room |
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What are the AC units rated on the Ford? |
1100 tons |
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What type of oxygen production plants are onboard? |
Vacuum Swing Absorber |
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What are some compressed air safety precautions? |
Wear PPE, face shield and or eye protection, hearing protection etc. |
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What is the purpose of HPAC? |
To provide high-pressure air at 2500 to 5000 PSI to various shipboard systems |
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True or false, there are four MCMs software and hardwire interlock associated with the HA system? |
FALSE (there are zero) |
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What does a storage flask function group consists of? |
6 high-pressure flasks Four pressure indicating transmitters (PITs) 8 valve position indicators |
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True or false, during a level 2 load shed event, air flasks will become point of use, and provide only backup air supply to selected loads? |
True |
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How are HPAC dedicated local control stations redundant? |
3 HPAC DLCs each capable of supplying the entire HA ship piping system and service loads |
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True or false, during a level 2 load shed event, all three HPACs will shut down? |
True |
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The HA air system can be monitored from which MCMS watchstation profiles and locations? |
-Chief auxiliary officer (CAO) Central Control Station (CCS) - 2nd damage control center (SDCC) Damage Control Repair Station (DCRS) |
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How many HPACs are onboard? |
3 |
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Where are the three HPACS located? |
Number 1 HPAC air compressor room 2 (2-39-0-E) Number 2 HPAC engine room 1(7-108-0-E) Number 3 HPAC engine room 2 (7-160-0-E) |
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Name the five major systems that require HP air. |
-Reactor air system -EDG starting air system -advance for us and gear -breathing air charging station -EMALS |
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HA air systems provide clean high-pressure compressed air up to how many PSIG? |
5,000 PSIG |
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State and name how many coils the ship has? |
3 coils M (main, vertical) L (longitudinal) A (athwartships) |
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How long is the Gerald R Ford's fixed rode meter? |
28.6 inches |
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True or false, the transducer distributes information to the 46 MC. |
False |
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What DSVL component sends the ships speed to the controller? |
Indicator Unit |
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Where is the location of the DSVL controller? |
4-122-2-C |
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What is the function of the AN/WSN-7? |
Receives information from DSVL which calculates the speed through water |
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Where is the ships ring laser gyros located? |
Forward IC and aft IC |
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What equipment receives information from the DSVL? |
AN/WSN-7 |
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Which is not a primary means of communication? |
CANES |
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Where is the underwater trunk located? |
8-25-4-Q |
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The anchor windless is capable of lowering and hosting the anchor at an average rate of at least? |
5 fathoms per minute from a depth of 60 fathoms |
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What shall be provided at each of the two control stations to indicate the Amount of chain paid out? |
Fathom counter |
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What provides the physical means of moving the chain and anchor? |
Wildcat |
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Gerald R. Ford shall be able to anchor In conditions up to maximum of blank of wind, 4 knots of current and blank of water. |
70 knots and 40 feet |
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What type of anchors does Gerald R. Ford have? |
Mark 2 lightweight |
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What does the automatic interlock function do for MCM5? |
Allows for valves to be automatically turned on and off |
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What is DBR? |
Duel Band Radar |
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What is the soul purpose of DBR? |
None of the above. DBR has more than one purpose |
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The NATO Sea Sparrow acts as? |
First defense against missile attacks |
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The M2408 machine gun watch is stood by whom? |
Gunners mate |
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What HF antennas are on board CVN78? |
OF-404, AS-3012, AS-3772 (all of the above) |
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True or false, there are two 25ft whips for the narrowband antenna? |
False |
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What is the frequency range for UHF? |
300 MHz to 3 GHz |
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What is the primary purpose of UHF COMMS? |
Used for long-distance ship to shore and ship to ship communications |
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What system serves as bridge to bridge radio telephone? |
VHF |
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What portable communications are used to support special evolutions such as damage control, flight deck operation, and weapons handling? |
Hydra |
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True or false, emergency destruction of CCI material is a scheduled destruction due to compromise? |
False |
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What security measures are taken to prevent single person access to COMSEC keying material? |
TPI |
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What is the primary source used to bring up the CANES Network? |
ADNS |
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NTCSS is comprised of what 4 programs? |
RADM, RSUPPLY, OHMS/NG, and NALCOMIS |
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UHS SATCOM is used for what two types of voice communications? |
Secure and non secure |
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What is the purpose of the domain controller for the CANES Network? |
Provide centralized to authentication to domain assets. |
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True or false, the CANES file servers provide centralized file share to secure resources only? |
False |
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What are the three elements of information assurance? |
Availability, non-repudiation, and integrity |
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Where is ADP located? |
3-160-1- Q |
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What is the purpose of SIPR? |
To provide classified means to send messages and information off ship. |
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What CANES network provides a means of sending unclassified messages and information off the ship? |
NIPR |
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What program is used to track training and qualifications? |
RADMIN |
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What is the AN/SRC-55? |
Hydra |
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What is a thermal luminous detector? |
It measures biological radiation |
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Three modes of operation for VCHT? |
Inport, transit, at sea |
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What does it mean to cross connect steam plants? |
To provide steam for both steam plants from one reactor plant |
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What impact does a trailing shaft have on ships operation? |
Reduces ships speed capabilities |
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Define the acronym for PAWDS and what is the purpose of PAWDS? |
Plasma Arc Waste Distruction System. Designed to treat combustible solid Waste such as cardboard, paper, plastics, wood, textiles . |
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Explain the term "Need to know". |
Need to know means a person must have access to the material to perform their duties. |
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What is the max load that can be put in PAWDS? |
450 lbs |
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What radar is used for air tracking? |
DBR (Dual Band Radar) |
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What impact does a locked shaft have on ships operations? |
Significantly reduces ships speed capabilities. |
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Who was the father of Naval Nuclear Power? |
Admiral Rickover |
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What is the purpose of MPU's? |
To convert energy from steam into horsepower to propel the ship. |
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What classification markings would be appropriate for OPSEC information? |
Confidential/FOUO |
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What identifying stickers will need to be placed on a folder containing secret/SCI information? |
Secret and SCI |
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What does the acronym SCI stand for? |
Sensitive Compartmented Information |
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Which classification is identified with the color red? |
Secret |
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Which classification of information can cause exceptionally grove damage if released? |
Top secret |
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Who do you notify upon Discovery of a compromise of confidential information? |
Commanding officer |
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Where are the MPU's located? |
In the engine rooms 1 and 4 in number 1 engine room and 2 and 3 in number 2 engine room. |
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What is the purpose of the 13.8k voltage distribution system? |
To generate, control and distribute 60Hz electric power to all ships electrical loads. |
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What is the purpose of the EDGs? |
To provide on emergency source of backup electricity. |
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Ford class carriers are equipped with blank EMALS? |
4 |
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EMALS is powered by blank motor generators. |
12 |
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What does JBD stand for? |
Jet Blast Deflector |
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The Ford is equipped with blank AAG engines. |
3 |
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What does a AIMD stand for? |
Aircraft Intermediate Maintenance Department |
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AIMD is authorized to perform blank level maintenance. |
Intermediate |
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Who functions as the Air department Training Officer? |
Mini boss |
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Who acts as the principal assistant under the Air Officer? |
Handler |
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True or false, flight deck jerseys serve to quickly identify the duties and responsibilities of those who wear them. |
True |
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Personnel wearing purple flight deck jerseys are responsible for what? |
Aircraft fuels |
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Personal wearing white flight deck jerseys are responsible for what? |
Quality Assurance |
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Aircraft directors where what color Jersey? |
Yellow |
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Flight deck markings indicate where dangerous areas are and where blank equipment is located. |
Safety |
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When is cold refueling performed? |
When aircraft engines are shut down |
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True or false, during hot refueling an aircrafts armament switches are not to be in the safe position. |
False |
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A blue status light on the island indicates? |
Radio silence |
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The blank is a webbed net that is rigged and raised for emergency landing operations. |
Barricade |
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True or false, the AAG utilizes both ships power and itself to provide the necessary power needed to operate. |
True |
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True or false, The tilly provides support to the ship's crash and Salvage team only in the event of an aircraft crash. |
False |
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What systems replaced the underwater log system? |
DSVL |
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Any steel hulled ships also has an? |
Inherent magnetic field |
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ADS counteract the magnetic field produced by? |
Permanent and induce magnetization |
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ADS sends electric current flowing through what? |
Coils of wire installed within the hull |
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The coils generate a magnetic field countering what? |
Ships magnetism and to minimize the disturbance of the Earth's magnetic field |
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Define permanent magnetization? |
Inherent in the hull's structure and created during construction |
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Define induced magnetization? |
Created by the ship's motion through the Earth's magnetic field. |
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What three things determine a ships permanent magnetization? |
Material used to build, location of the ship when built, orientation of the ship when building. |
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Define what a ADSC is and does? |
Advanced Deguassing system computer. System controller |
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Define what a BPAU is in does? |
Bipolar power amplifier units. Converts AC to DC current and sends to one sub loop |
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Define what Deguassing coils are and do? |
Create the ships magnetic field. |
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Define the CTC and what it does? |
Calibration test computer. Allows for monitoring and testing of the ADS through MCMS. |
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How many ADSC's are there? |
2 |
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How many BPAUs are there? |
167 |
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How many Deguassing coils are there? |
Three coils |
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How many loops are there? |
40 Loops |
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How many sub loops are there? |
167 sub loops |
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How many CTCs are there? |
1 |
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Where are the ADSC's located? |
Forward and aft gyro rooms |
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Where are the BPAUs located? |
149 are on the 3rd aft of frame 47 along the length of the ship. 15 forward of frame 47 3rd deck 1st deck and O2 levels |
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Which IDCs do the ADCs connect to? |
Number 7 and number 11 |
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Define NAVSSI and what it does? |
Navigation Center system interface. Supplies undirectional heading position pitch, and roll info to ADSC's |
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How many reactors are onboard? |
Two |
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What design of reactor is used on board? |
A1B |
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What is the purpose of the main engine guard valve? |
to secure steam to the main propulsion unit |
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What is the purpose of METOC (meteorology and oceanography center)? |
Deliver a timely and accurate understanding of operational conditioning from sea to space. Forecast weather conditions. |
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What is the purpose of CATCC (carrier air traffic control center)? |
Guide aircrafts and provide for a safe landing during dangerous conditions and normal operations. |
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What is the source of fuel used for nuclear fission? |
Uranium |
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How many nitrogen plants are onboard? |
2 (1-96-4-E and 1-215-3-E) |
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Where is the oxygen production plant located? |
1-130-2-E |
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Where is 7th Fleet stationed? |
Japan |
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Who gives permission to enter a CHT Tank? |
CO |
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What is the purpose of the main condensor? |
To accept the unused steam from the MPUs and MTGs to condense it for reuse. |
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The purpose of the Main Engine Guard Valve? |
Secure steam to main propulsion unit |
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How many VCHT ejector pumps do we have onboard? |
12 ejector pumps |
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How many VCHT Transfer pumps? |
4 |
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Where is the 7th Fleet stationed? |
Japan |
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What is the purpose of the main condenser? |
To accept the unused Steam from the MPUs and MTGs, condense it for reuse. |
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What is the backup eductor used for? |
Used to create a vacuum in case of power failure (at sea). |
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What does EPCP stand for, what is its purpose? |
Electric Plant control panel - monitors / controls the ship's electrical distribution system |
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What is a reactor scram? |
An emergency shutdown (all rods go to the bottom of the core) due to in plant casualty |
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What does it mean for the reactor to be "critical"? |
The reactor is stable. |
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What does SIPR stand for? |
Secure Internet Protocol Router |
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What is the purpose of damage control console (DCS)? |
Plots damage control for combat systems |
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MCMS is comprised of how many core switches? |
4 |
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True or false, MCMS monitor only interface displays the status of the system, but cannot control it. |
True |
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Which MCMS interface allows you to turn off pumps and ventilation? |
Control interface |
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What does the automatic interlock function do for MCMS? |
Allows valves to be automatically turned on or off |
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Who acts as principal assistant under the air officer? |
The Handler |
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How many motor generators power EMALS? |
12 |
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How many AAG engines are there? |
3 |
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How many JBDs are there? |
4 |
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How many EMALS are there? |
4 |
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Define deadly force. |
Is a force that is likely to cause, or that a person knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing, death or serious bodily harm or injury. |
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How many FPCONS are there? |
5 |
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FPCON level- Normal |
Applies when a general Global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture. |
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FPCON level- Alpha |
an increased General threat of possible terrorist activity. |
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FPCON level- Bravo |
an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. |
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FPCON level- Charlie |
An incident occurs or intelligent is received indicating some form of terrorist action |
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FPCON level- Delta |
Immediate area where terrorist attack has occurred |
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Describe the common characteristics of terrorism. |
People who often feel alienated from society and have a grievance as victims of an injustice. Devoted to their political and religious cause and do regard their violent actions as Criminal. |
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Defense-in-depth Zone: assessment zone |
1000 yards from the skin of the ship |
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Defense-in-depth Zone: warning Zone |
300 yards from the skin of the ship |
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Defense-in-depth Zone: threat zone |
100 yards from the skin of the ship |
