T-1 Epq 3

Front 1

What does the hydraulic system operate?

Back 1

*Jingle* ... Wheel brakes, speed brakes, landing gear, flaps.

Front 2

How many pumps are in the hydraulic system?

Back 2

2 engine drive variable displacement hydraulic pumps.

Front 3

What is the hydraulic reservoir pressurized to and by what?

Back 3

15 psi by bleed air.

Front 4

Hydraulic reservoir capacity?

Back 4

1.1 gallons

Front 5

How many filters are in the hydraulic system?

Back 5

4 total.... 3 are hydraulic, 1 is for bleed air.

Front 6

Normal hydraulic pressure stabilizes at:

Back 6

1500 psi

Front 7

When does the hydraulic pressure relief valve open?

Back 7

1650 psi

Front 8

At what pressure do you need to use the hydraulic bypass switch?

Back 8

1850 psi

Front 9

What are the positions and default position of the hydraulic bypass switch?

Back 9

NORM - REL, defaults to NORM

Front 10

The hydraulic bypass switch and valve are powered by what?

Back 10

R load bus

Front 11

What does L/R H PMP PRESS LO come on?

Back 11

Associated pump pressure falls below 750 psi.

Front 12

When does the HYD LEVEL LO light come on?

Back 12

Reservoir falls below 0.6 gal.

Front 13

Name all the things that require bleed air.

Back 13

AWEEPH - Acu, wing anti-ice, engine anti-ice, entrace door seal, pressurization, hydraulic reservoir pressurization.

Front 14

A pressure regulator is preset to adjust bleed to what pressure?

Back 14

15+/-1 psi

Front 15

What are check valves installed in the bleed air system inlet lines there for?

Back 15

Prevent one engine entering bleed air lines of the other engine in case one engine is inop.

Front 16

What are the subsystems of the landing gear system?

Back 16

Landing gear subsystem, nosewheel steering subsystem, brake subsystem.

Front 17

What controls main landing gear and door operation?

Back 17

10 hydraulic cylinders.

Front 18

A ground safety switch on the ____ main landing gear, when engaged, prevents the LDG GR handle from being positioned to the UP position when the aircraft is on the ground.

Back 18

Left.

Front 19

How many hydraulic actuating cylinders operate the nose landing gear?

Back 19

Three.

Front 20

How long does normal gear extension take?

Back 20

Approx 7 seconds.

Front 21

How long does emergency gear extension take?

Back 21

Approx 30 seconds.

Front 22

How far do you pull out the EMER L/G DOWN handle?

Back 22

Approx 10 inches.

Front 23

How long will it take to close the doors after pulling the EMER DOOR CLOSE handle?

Back 23

Approx 3 seconds.

Front 24

If it is necessary to press the DOWNLOCK
RELEASE switch to move the LDG GR
handle to the UP position, the crew member
should immediately suspect a malfunction of what?

Back 24

The landing gear ground safety switch.

Front 25

When does the gear tone come on? Which situation can't be silenced?

Back 25

While on the ground, the
landing gear warning horn will sound if the throttles are
advanced to takeoff power and the pitch trim is not in the
T.O. range.

The landing gear warning tone is initiated if one or more of
the landing gear are not down and locked and either one of
the following conditions exist:
• flaps are at the 0- or 10-degree flap position and either or
both throttles are retarded to a position corresponding to
approximately 70% N
2
• flaps are extended beyond the 10-degree position regard-
less of throttle position

If the gear are not down
and locked and the flaps are extended beyond 10 degrees,
the horn will activate and cannot be silenced without
extending the landing gear.

Front 26

Gear warning tone is powered by what bus?

Back 26

Left load bus

Front 27

What does the gear position illuminated red unlocked indicator mean?

Back 27

An illuminated red
UNLOCKED indicator indicates one of the following:
• landing gear is in transit
• one or more landing gear not locked
• main gear fuselage doors not closed and locked

Front 28

Max rudder deflection steers nose what degrees?

Back 28

25

Front 29

Differential power/braking allows what degrees of caster?

Back 29

45

Front 30

Is the anti-skid system functional in manual braking?

Back 30

No.

Front 31

What are the three modes of braking?

Back 31

Manual, anti-skid, power.

Front 32

What is the brake accumulator charged to, where is it located, and what does it do?

Back 32

900+/-50 psi, aft of left main landing gear wheel well, stabilizes hydraulic pressure during fluctuations of the hydraulic system.

Front 33

When does anti-skid come on?

Back 33

14 knots

Front 34

When is anti-skid available on landing?

Back 34

37 knots of approx 2.5 seconds of weight detected on squat switch.

Front 35

The nitro-gen storage cylinder provides sufficient pressure for at least
__ to __ emergency brake applications.

Back 35

7,10

Front 36

If nitrogen pressure
has been used to close the main gear doors after an
emergency gear extension, enough pressure remains for
approximately __ to __ brake applications.

Back 36

7,9

Front 37

How do you set the parking brake when engines are running?

Back 37

Pump brakes, then pull handle.

Front 38

How do you set the parking brake when engines are not running?

Back 38

Pull handle, then pump brakes.

Front 39

3 times you shouldn't set the parking brake?

Back 39

Hot brakes
Visible moisture and low temps
From co-pilot side

Front 40

What does the FLAP ASYM come on?

Back 40

Difference of more than 7 degrees between the main flaps.

Front 41

What bus is the FLAP ASYM detection on?

Back 41

26 AC Primary Shed Bus

Front 42

What degrees is the speed brake position?

Back 42

36 degrees

Front 43

When does the speed brake automatically retract?

Back 43

Either throttle approaches NORM T/O position or in flight flap extension beyond 10 degrees

Front 44

Automatic retraction of the speed brake corresponds to a microswitch in the throttle quadrant at approximately ___ N1 on the ground.

Back 44

88%

Front 45

What are the two different rates of the speed brakes? Which one is used in flight?

Back 45

0.6 seconds or 2.6 seconds. The slower is used in flight.

Front 46

How long do you wait for wake turbulence?

Back 46

3 minutes behind heavy, 2 minutes behind large aircraft or helicopters

Front 47

Yaw damper required above?

Back 47

FL280

Front 48

Ignition should be on for all _____, _____, and ______.

Back 48

T/Os, approaches, landings

Front 49

T/F - Ignition switches shall be in STBY for low levels.

Back 49

False, they need to be on.

Front 50

The final flap setting should be set prior to passing what altitude?

Back 50

250ft AGL

Front 51

Windshield heat must be on for cruise above ______ feet.

Back 51

18,000

Front 52

A temperature drop of 100 degrees F will reduce oxygen pressure by _____ percent.

Back 52

20%

Front 53

To ensure proper wing anti-ice operation, throttles must be kept at ________.

Back 53

70% N2

Front 54

What are the 3 times crossfeed should not be used?

Back 54

T/O, final approach, landing

Front 55

Speed for holding?

Back 55

180 KIAS

Front 56

Speed for radar downwind?

Back 56

200 KIAS

Front 57

For circling approaches, lower flaps to 30 degrees no later than _____.

Back 57

Departing the circling MDA.

Front 58

If actual icing is encountered during flight, no
greater than 10 degrees flaps may be utilized for landing unless the following conditions are met:

Back 58

The icing conditions were encountered for less than 10 minutes, and the RAT during such encounter was warmer than -8 °C.

A RAT of +10 °C or warmer is observed during the descent, approach, or landing.

Front 59

At no time exceed ___ degrees of bank in the traffic pattern.

Back 59

60 degrees.

Front 60

What is normal touchdown speed?

Back 60

Vapp - 6

Front 61

T/F - Following a Missed Approach, flaps may be left at 10 degrees if remaining in the visual traffic pattern.

Back 61

True

Front 62

Following a missed approach, retract flaps at a minimum of what altitude and speed?

Back 62

400 ft AGL, Vref+20

Front 63

After clearing the runway, the PF will call for the checklist by stating ________.

Back 63

"FLAPS UP, AFTER LANDING CHECKLIST."

Front 64

T/F - Do not retract flaps beyond 10 degrees after landing on a snow or slush covered runway.

Back 64

True

Front 65

Do you have to accomplish the after landing checklist if you do a FULL STOP TAXI BACK?

Back 65

No.

Front 66

With brakes, thermal fuse plug release may occur prior to ___ million foot-pounds.

Back 66

8.1

Front 67

If you need to stay overnight somewhere and ground support isn't available, air crew are responsible for _____ and _____.

Back 67

Preflight, postflight

Front 68

Check oil level indication within ____ minutes of shutdown.

Back 68

10

Front 69

If a malfunction occurs with an associated loss of brakes, immediately _______.

Back 69

Place the anti-skid switch to the off position.

Front 70

Binding throttles may indicate what?

Back 70

An impending throttle linkage cable break with subsequent loss of throttle authority.

Front 71

T/F - The battery is used regardless of the position of the generator reset switch for all inflight starter assisted air starts.

Back 71

True

Front 72

While doing a windmilling start, you cutoff the start after noticing an imminent hot start, how long do you windmill the engine before attempting another start?

Back 72

30 seconds

Front 73

When an EFC is inoperative, how can you prevent inducing a compressor stall?

Back 73

Avoid rapid throttle movements.

Front 74

When does L/R FUEL LEVEL LO illuminate?

Back 74

200 lbs (32 gal) usable fuel remaining in wing tank.

Front 75

When does L/R FUEL FEED illuminate?

Back 75

70 lbs (11 gal) usable remaining in collector tanks.

Front 76

When does L/R FUEL PRESS LO illuminate?

Back 76

Fuel pressure drops below 5 psi.

Front 77

What kind of glideslope do standard VASI lights have? Where is the glidepath intercept point?

Back 77

2.5 to 3 degrees, 750 ft beyond rwy threshold

Front 78

What kind of glideslope do non-standard VASI lights have? Where is the glidepath intercept point?

Back 78

3.5 degrees, 450 ft short of rwy threshold

Front 79

How is Vapp calculated?

Back 79

Vref as a baseline. Vref is the computed 30-flap Vapp based on gross weight and will not exceed 118 KIAS for a 16,100 lb aircraft.

Front 80

What do you increase by 50% of the gust increment, not to exceed 10 KIAS?

Back 80

Approach and touchdown speeds.

Front 81

Where are two visual displays of wind information on the flight deck?

Back 81

EFIS and MFD.

Front 82

What is the downwind criteria for rectangular spacing?

Back 82

1 1/2 mile, wingtip on runway, no wind

Front 83

Normal landing zone for for the T-1A?

Back 83

500-2000 feet down the rwy.

Front 84

When do you select 30-degree flaps in a single engine landing? No later than how many feet AGL?

Back 84

Only when landing distance for 10 flaps exceeds runway available. 300ft AGL.

Front 85

T/F - You can do a single-engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30 degrees.

Back 85

False

Front 86

In a practice single-engine go-around, after calling "Go Around," raise the nose to approximately _____ degrees nose high.

Back 86

10

Front 87

Per SOG, T/F - If there is no crew member in the jump seat, a checklist may be strapped down with the Dash-1 to fulfill the requirement of having one T-1A pilot's abbreviated flight crew checklist readily available.

Back 87

True

Front 88

Per SOG, What are the three approved sources for TOLD computations?

Back 88

Dash1Dash1, IFG Tab Data, CFPS TOLD.

however, SOG says BRI TOLD database may be used too.

Front 89

Per SOG, What block can you start using TOLD sources outside of the spaghetti charts?

Back 89

T51XX

Front 90

Per SOG, T/F - Students should print out approach plates that are found in the DoD FLIP.

Back 90

False, only print NACO plates used on the sortie.

Front 91

Per the SOG, What do you need to have if there are more than 3 persons on board?

Back 91

Form F

Front 92

Per SOG, T/F - Local procedures for the Vance1A MOA do not comply with FLIP GP Ch 4 filing instructions for special use airspace.

Back 92

True, you must include airspace delay time in total ETE for that leg of flight when you file to Vance 1A MOA.

Front 93

Per SOG, If you want to do a descending break, you must?

Back 93

Request it.

Front 94

Per SOG, "Established on downwind" is defined when?

Back 94

Student is less than 30 degrees of bank when rolling out on downwind.

Front 95

Per SOG, What is the minimum turn time at the out base between all single student out-and-back events?

Back 95

1+15, SUP may wavie

Front 96

Per SOG, minimum runway length for all student-flown full stop landings will be _____.

Back 96

7000 ft.

Front 97

Per SOG, Aircrews should monitor what frequencies to the max extent possible?

Back 97

303.0 UHF, 138.625 VHF for liberty ops

Front 98

Per SOG, filling fuel to less than _____ lbs requires SUP approval.

Back 98

3000.

Front 99

Per SOG, what should you delesect on the enviornmental panel before starting the ENGINE SHUTDOWN checklist?

Back 99

AUX COOL

Front 100

Per SOG, if using ELEC HEAT, select ______ position on the AUX TEMP CONTROL panel prior to the trim system check.

Back 100

Blower 1

Front 101

Per SOG, If you plan on canceling IFR after takeoff from END, attempt to cancel within ___ DME of END.

Back 101

25.

Front 102

Per SOG, touch and go's will not be done in temperatures above ____ and/or pressure altitudes above _____.

Back 102

40C (103F), 6,000 ft

Front 103

Per SOG, crews are reminded to make an AFTO 781 entry when flying within ____ NM and _____ft of a salt laden enviornment.

Back 103

20 NM, 10,000 ft

Front 104

Per SOG, what's the time block we have for clinton-sherman?

Back 104

9-12 local

Front 105

Per SOG, Only ___ T-1s at a time are allowed on the ramp at stillwater.

Back 105

4

Front 106

Per SOG, the flight director may be used at all times except on a _____.

Back 106

ILS Manual

Front 107

Per SOG, if performing multiple instrument approaches and anti-ice is required, actual icing will be no lower than _______ .

Back 107

1,000 ft AGL

Front 108

f you must climb or descend through forecast or reported moderate icing greater than _______’ thick, or this icing starts
below the minimum safe altitude for your location (to facilitate an emergency return below the icing), contact the SUP for
approval before stepping to fly.

Back 108

5000 ft.