• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/242

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

242 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)

What year was the EAWS program established?

1980

What month and year was the EAWS program made a mandatory qualification?

August 2010

What does SORM stand for?

Standard Organization and Regulations Manual

What are the three objectives of first aid?

1) Prevent further injury.


2) Prevent infection.


3) Prevent loss of life.

What are the eight fundamental elements of First Aid?

1) Bleeding.


2) Burns.


3) Fractures.


4) Electric shock.


5) Obstructed airways.


6) Heat related injuries.


7) Cold weather injuries.


8) Shock.

What are the four methods of controlling bleeding?

1) direct pressure.


2) pressure points.


3) elevation


4) tourniquet (as a last resort)

There are 11 principal pressure points what are they?

1) Superficial temporal artery (temple)



2) Facial artery (jaw)



3) Common carotid artery (neck)



4) Subclavian artery (collar bone)



5) Brachial artery (inner upper arm)



6) Brachial artery (inner elbow)



7) Radial/Ulnar artery (wrist)



8) Femoral artery (upper thigh)



9) Iliac artery (groin)



10) Popliteal artery (knee)



11) Anterior/posterior tibial artery (ankle)

There are three classifications of Burns what are they?

1) First degree


2) Second degree


3) Third degree

Describe first degree burns?

Produces redness, warmth and mild pain.

Describe second degree burns?

Causes Red, blistered skin and severe pain.

Describe third degree burns?

Destroys tissue, skin and bone in severe cases, however severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed.

What are the two types of fractures?

1) " closed/simple "


2) " open/compound "

Closed is broken bone under the skin.


Open is broken bone that broke through the skin.

What is Electric shock?

When a person comes in contact with electric energy source.

What is obstructed airways?

Obstruction of upper airway (choking)

What are the two types of heat related injuries?

1) Heat exhaustion.


2) Heat stroke.

What is heat exhaustion?

Disturbance in the flow of blood to the brain, heart, and lungs.



The skin is cool, moist, and clammy and pupils dilated.



Excessive sweating.

What is heat stroke?

The breakdown of the sweating mechanism.



Hot and dry skin.



Uneven pupil dilation.



Weak and rapid pulse.

What are the three types of cold weather injuries?

1) Superficial Frost bite


2) Deep Frost bite


3) hypothermia

What is Superficial Frost bite?

Ice crystals forming in upper skin layer.


At 32 degrees or lower.

What is Deep Frost bite?

Ice crystals forming in deeper tissues.


At 32 degrees or lower.

What is hypothermia?

A general cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low or rapidly cooling temperature.(cold moisture, snow, or ice)



Victim may appear pale or unconscious may be taken for dead.



Breathing is slow a shallow.



Pulse is faint or undetectable.



The body tissue feels semi-rigid.



Arms and legs may be stiff.

What are the five types of shock?

1) Septic


2) anaphylactic


3) cardiogenic


4) neurogenic


5) hypovolemic

What is Septic Shock?

Bacteria multiplying in blood releasing toxins.



Common causes are



-Pneumonia



-Intra-abdominal infections (such as a ruptured appendix)



-Meningitis

What is anaphylactic shock?

Allergic reactions

What is cardiogenic shock?

When Heart damage prevents sufficient blood flow to the body.



Caused by heart attacks and congestive heart failure.


What is hypovolemic shock?

Caused by severe blood or fluid loss.



Such as from traumatic bodily injuries which makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to body.

What is Neurogenic shock?

Caused by spinal cord injury


Result of a traumatic accident or injury.

What does CPR stand for?

Cardio pulmonary resuscitation

What are the steps of CPR?

A combination of rescue breaths and chest compressions.

What are the steps of CPR?

Circulation / Airway / Breathing

Use to be A/B/C

Who certifies rescuers in CPR?

1) American Heart Association


2) American Red Cross

What is the Survival Chain?

Successful resuscitation following Cardiac Arrest requires an integrated set of coordinated actions

What are the six steps of the Survival Chain?

1) Recognition/activation of CPR.



2) Chest Compressions.



3) AED/Defibrillator.



4) Rapid Defibrillation.



5) Effective advanced life support. (EMT's Ambulance)



6) Intergrated post-cardiac arrest care.

What is ORM?

Operational Risk Management

What are the 5 steps of ORM?

1) Identify Hazards



2) Assess Hazards



3) Make Risk Decision



4) Implement Control



5) Supervise

How many mishap classes do we have?

Three Class Mishaps.



1) Class A



2) Class B



3) Class C


What is a Class A mishap?

$2,000,000 or more in damage.



Injury or illness to personnel resulting in death or permanent total disability.

What is a Class B mishap?

$500,000 or more but less than $2,000,000.



Injury or illness to personnel resulting in permanent partial disability.



Three or personnel are hospitalized.

What is a Class C mishap?

$50,000 or more but less than $500,000 in damage.



Injury that results in any loss time of work.



Illness that results in 5 or more lost days of work.



What is PPE?

Personal Protective Equipment

6 majored types of PPE?

1) Cranial



2) Eye Protection



3) Hearing Protection



4) Impact Protection



5) Gloves



6) Foot Protection

What is CBR?

Chemical, Biological, and Radiological Warfare.

What is Chemical Warfare?

The employment of chemical agents that are intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel do to their physiological effects.

What are the 4 types of chemical agents?

1) Nerve



2) Blister



3) Blood



4) Choking

What is NBC

Nuclear, Biological, and Chemical Warfare.

What are Nerve Agents?

Liquid casualty agent.



Disrupts nerve impulses to the body while damaging body functions rather than tissues.

What are Blister agents?

Liquid or solid casualty agents.



Causes inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues.



which often results in temporary blindness and/or death.

What are blood agents?

Gaseous casualty agents.



Attacks the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream.



Rapid breathing and choking may occur due to lack of oxygen in the blood.

What are choking agents?

Gaseous or liquid casualty agents.



Lungs can become filled with fluid, making the victim feel as if they are drowning.



Cause breathing to become rapid and shallow.



Initial symptoms:


-tears


-dry throat


-nausea


-vomiting


-headache

What is a M9?

A chemical agent Detector paper.

How does a M9 work?

Detects the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning red or a reddish color. (Does not detect in vapor)

What is a Atropine/2-PAM-Chloride Auto Injector?

Use as specific therapy for nerve agent casualties



Issued for:



-Intramuscular injection



-Self-aid or First-aid

What is biological Warfare?

The use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces.

The basic division of biological agents is?

1) Pathogens


2) Toxins

What are the Pathogens used in Biological Warfare?

Bacteria, Rickettsia, Viruses, Fungi, Protozoa and Prions.

What are Toxins?

The major grouping:



Bacteria, Algal, Animal Venom, and Plant toxins.



The Primary group:



Neurotoxins, Cytotoxins, Enterotoxins and Dermatoxins.

What does IPE stand for?

Individual Protective Equipment.

What does IPE for Chemical/Biological agents consist of?

-Protective Mask (MCU-2P with components (C-2 canister filter)).



-Advanced Chemical Protective Garment (ACPG).



-Chemical Protective gloves and linear.



-Chemical Protective overboots and laces.



-Skin decontamination kit.

What is Radiological Warfare?

Nuclear explosions.



The deliberate use of Radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life.

Different types of Nuclear explosions are?

-High altitude air burst


(Occurs at altitudes in excess of 100,000 feet with ionosphere disruption and EMP)



-Air burst


(fire ball does not reach the surface)



-Surface burst


(Fireball touching the surface which results in massive radioactive fallout)



-Shallow under water burst


(A small fireball and blast wave, causes large waves and water contamination)



-Deep under water burst


(Similar to shallow underwater burst but with less visual effects and greater contaminated water)


How are shipboard shield stations categorized?

-Ready shelter stations



-Deep shelter stations

What are ready shelter stations?

Inside the weather envelope with access to deep shelter.



Provides minimum shielding from nuclear radiation and allow the crew to remain close to battle stations.


What are deep shelter stations?

Low in the ship and near the centerline.



Provides maximum shielding from nuclear radiation, often requiring personnel to be far removed from battle stations.

What is DT-60 Dosimeter?

A non-self reading high range casualty Dosimeter.



Placed in a special radiac computer-indicator to determines the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer is exposed in the 0-600 roentgens.

What does MOPP stand for?

Mission Oriented Protective Posture

What is MOPP?

A management tool that is used to coordinate the use of systems and equipment in Chemical or Biological environment.

How many MOPP levels are there?

5 MOPP levels:



1) MOPP level 0



2) MOPP level 1



3) MOPP level 2



4) MOPP level 3



5) MOPP level 4

Describe MOPP level 0?

Issue IPE, accessible within 5 min.

Describe MOPP level 1?

Afloat:


JSLIST, Mask, Gloves readily accessible.



Ashore:


Don protective equipment, M9 tape.

Describe MOPP Level 2?

Afloat:


Mask carried, decon supplies stage.



Ashore:


Additional to level 1 is don protective over-boots.


Describe MOPP Level 3?

Afloat:


GQ, install filters, don over-boots.



Ashore:


Fill Canteens, activate decon stations.

The primary duty of the firefighter is?

Saving lives

Describe MOPP Level 4?

Afloat:


Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle William, countermeasures wash down.



Ashore:


Gloves with liners, untie bow in retention cord, loop between legs and secure to web belt.

The secondary responsibility of firefighters is?

To extinguish fires and limit the damage to aircraft, shipboard, airfield installed equipment, and/or airfield structures.

What is the fire triangle?

Heat



Fuel



Oxygen

What is the fire tetrahedron?

Heat



Fuel



Oxygen



Chemical reaction

How many classes of fire are there?

Four classes



Class Alpha



Class Bravo



Class Charlie



Class Delta

Describe class Alpha fires?

Wood or cloth fires.



Extinguishing Agents



-H2O (Water)


-AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam)

Describe class Bravo fires?

Flammable liquids



Extinguishing Agents



-AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam)


-Halen 1211


-PKP (Purple K Powder)


-CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)

Describe class Charlie fires?

Electrical fires



Extinguishing Agents (Energized)



-CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)


-Halon 1211


-PKP (Purple K Powder)


-H2O (Water)



Extinguishing Agents (De-Energized)



-Treat as a class Alpha, Bravo, or Delta fire.

Describe class Delta fires?

Combustible Metals



Extinguishing Agents



-H2O (Water)

The required flight line protective equipment?

-Flight deck (steel-toed) safety boots.



-Cranial impact helmet.



-Protective eye goggles.



-Leather gloves.

What are Safety Guidelines?

Extensive flight line training given for the airfield environment.

What are the 10 airfield components?

1) Runways.



2) Threshold Markings.



3) Overrun Area.



4) MA-1 Series Overrun Barrier.



5) Emergency Shore Based Recovery Equipment.



6) Taxiways.



7) Parking Apron.



8) Compass Calibration Pad (Compass Rose).



9) Runway Numbering System.



10) Airfield Roatating Beacon.

Describe a Runway?

Paved areas that are used for aircraft takeoff and landings.

Describe a Threshold Marking?

Parallel stripes on the end of the runway.



12 feet wide by 150 feet long.



Designates the landing area

Describe Overrun Area?

Paved or unpaved section on the end of the runway.

Describe MA-1 Series Overrun Barrier?

Designed to stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft not equipped with tail hook.



Always on standby status in case there is an aborted takeoff or emergency overrun landing.

Describe Emergency Shore Based Recovery Equipment.

Used during in-flight emergencies that require stopping the aircraft during landing in the shortest distance possible to minimize the chance of injury to pilot or aircrew and damage to aircraft.

Describe Taxiways?

Paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services.

Describe Parking Aprons?

Open paved areas adjacent to hangers and flight lines.



Used for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft.



Connected to runways and taxiways.

Describe the Compass Calibration Pad (Compass Rose)?

A paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated.

Describe Runway Numbering System?

Runways are numbered in relation to their magnetic heading round off to the nearest 10 degrees.



A runway heading of 250 degree is runway 25.

Describe Airfield Roatating Beacons?

Use during Visual Flight Rules weather conditions.



Rotates clockwise at a constant speed.



Military airfields use 2 white lights and one green flashing 12 to 15 times per minute.

The five required Flight deck protective equipment?

-Flight deck (steel-toed) safety shoes.



-Protective Jersey.



-Cranial impact helmet.



-Protective eye goggles.



-Leather gloves.

What is the Color Coded Classification System?

Crewmembers who have specific functions will be recognized by the color coded jerseys and helmets.

What are Yellow Jerseys?

-Aircraft Handling Officers.



-Flight Deck Officers.



-Catipult Officers.



-Air Bos'n



-Arresting Gear Officers.



-Plane Directors

What are White Jerseys?

-Safety Department.



-Air Transport Officers.



-Landing Signal Officers.



-Squadron Plane Inspectors.


(Troubleshooters).



-Medical.

What are Brown Jerseys?

-Plane Captain.

What are Blue Jerseys?

-Aircraft Handling and Chock Crewman.



-Elevator Operators.

What are Green Jerseys?

-Catipult and Arresting Gear Personnel.



-Squadron Aircraft Maintenance Personnel.



-Helicopter Landing Signal Enlisted man.



-Photographers.

What are Red Jerseys?

-Crash and Salvage.



-Explosive Ordinance Disposal.



-Ordinance Handling Personnel.

What are Purple Jerseys?

-Aviation Fuel Crew.

What are the different types of fire fighting agents?

-Purple K Powder (PKP).



-Saltwater Stations.



-CO2 Bottle Stowage.



-AFFF Station.



-Bomb Jettison Ramp.



-Steam Smothering.

What's the Procedure for grounding an Aircraft?

Ground first than jet.

How Many tie down points are on the aircraft?

12.

What determines the tie-down category?

Wind velocity.

When is initial tie-down used?

Immediately prior to, in between, or immediately after flight.

Describe initial tie-down?

-Up to 45 Knots.



-a minimum of 6 chains.

Describe normal weather tie-down?

-Up to 45 Knots.



-9 chains required.

Describe moderate tie-down?

-46 to 60 Knots.



-14 chains required.

Describe Heavy weather tie-down?

-Above 60 Knots.



-20 chains required.

What is the maximum aircraft towing speed?

-5 MPH.



-The speed of the slowest walker.

How many personnel are required to move an Aircraft?

-6 to 10 personnel.

What positions are there for a move crew?

-Move director.



-Brake Rider.



-Chock Walker's.



-Safety Observers.



-Tractor Driver.

What does FPCON stand for?

-Force Protection Conditions.

Describe FPCON?

A series of measures designed to increase the level of a unit's defense against terrorist attacks.

How are FPCON'S selected?

-The terrorists threat level.



-the capability to penetrate existing physical security systems.



-The risk of terrorist attack to which personnel and assets are exposed.



-The assets ability to execute it's mission even if attacked.



-The protected assets criticality to their missions.

Who sets FPCON levels?

Commanders at any level.

How many FPCON levels are there?

Five FPCON levels.



Describe FPCON Normal?

Applies when a general global theater of possible terrorist activity exist.

Describe FPCON Alpha?

Applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities.

Describe FPCON Bravo?

Applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exist.

Describe FPCON Charlie?

Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.

Describe FPCON Delta?

Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.

What does DEFCON stand for?

Defense Readiness Conditions

What are DEFCON's?

-Alert posture used by the United States Armed Forces.



-DEFCON system was developed by the Joint Chief of Staff.

How many levels of DEFCON's are there?

Five DEFCON LEVELS.



(5 being the least severe)


(1 being the most severe)



-DEFCON 5



-DEFCON 4



-DEFCON 3



-DEFCON 2



-DEFCON 1

Describe DEFCON 5?

Normal peacetime readiness.

Describe DEFCON 4?

Normal, increased intelligence and strengthened security measures.

Describe DEFCON 3?

Increase in force readiness above normal readiness.

Describe DEFCON 2?

Further increase in force readiness, but less than maximum.

Describe DEFCON 1?

Maximum force readiness.

What does NAMP stand for?

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program

What is the objective of the NAMP?

To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards established by the CNO/ COMNAVAIRFOR, with coordination from the CMC, with optimum use of manpower, material, facilities,and funds.

What is the Maintenance officer's (MO) job?

Manage the maintenance department.

What is the Assistant Maintenance Officer's (AMO) job?

Assist the Maintenance Officer.

What is the Maintenance/ Material Control Officer's (MMCO) job?

The overall production and material support for the department.

What is the Maintenance Master Cheif Petty Officer's (MMCPO) job?

Senior enlisted advisor for the Maintenance Department.



Reports to the MO



Advises the CO on matters affecting the department, maintenance, and operations.

What is the Quality Assurance Officer's (QAO) job?

In charge of QA.

What is the Material Control Officer's (MCO) job?

Supply Corp officer in charge of handling finances and material requisition.

What are the three levels of maintenance?

- I Level



- O level



- D level

What is O-Level Maintenance?

Maintenance performed by operating unit on a day-to-day basis in support of its own mission.

What is I-level Maintenance?

Enhance and sustain the combat readiness and mission capability of supported activities by providing quality and timely material support at the nearest location.

What is D-level Maintenance?

Performed at FRC

What are the two types of Maintenance the NAMP describes?

-Rework



-Upkeep

List of upkeep inspection/maintenance?

-Turnaround



-Daily



-Special



-Acceptance



-Preservation



-Transfer



-Conditional



-Phase

What is upkeep?

The preventive, restoration, or addictive work performed on aircraft, equipment, and SE by operating units and aircraft SE activities.

What is Rework?

(Performed at D-level)


The restorative or addictive work performed on aircraft, aircraft equipment, and aircraft SE at FRCs, contractors plants, and such other industrial establishments designed by TYCOMs.

Define management?

The efficient attainment of objectives.

What are the two most critical aspects in Naval Aviation?

-Release of aircraft safe for flight.



-Acceptance of Aircraft.

What does MMP stand for?

Monthly Maintenance Plan

What is the Aircraft logbook?

A hard bound record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, and installed equipment.

What is Quality Assurance (QA) job?

Prevent the occurrence of defects.

What is QA?

A relatively small group of highly skilled personnel.

What are the different levels of QA inspectors?

-QAR


(Quality Assurance Representative)



-CDQAR


(Collateral Duty QAR)



-CDI


(Collateral Duty Inspector)



What are the programs managed by QA?

G-SE Misuse/Abuse



A-Aircraft Confined Spaces Program.



S-Maintenance Department/ Division Safety.



C-Central Technical Publication Library.


(CTPL)



A-Quality Assurance Audit Program.


(Special, program, and work center)



N-Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program. (NAMDRP)

What does NATOPS stand for?

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization.

When was NATOPS established?

In 1961 by the Navy.

What's a "Warning"?

May Result in injury or death to personnel.

What's a "Caution"?

May result in damage to equipment.

What's a "Note"?

Must be emphasized

What's a "Shall"?

A procedure that is mandatory.

What's a "Should"?

Procedure that is recommended.

What's a "May"?

Procedure that is optional.

What's a "Will"?

Procedure not indicated as required

What is "COMNAVAIRLANT"(Atlantic) Visual identification marking?

First Character "A through M".



Second Character "A through Z".

What is "COMNAVAIRPAC" (Pacific) Visual identification marking?

-First Character "N through Z".



-Second Character "A through Z".

What is "CNATRA" (Central) Visual identification marking?

First Character "A through G"



No Second Character.

When was the first take-off from a ship and what ship was it and who was the pilot and what did he fly?

November 14th, 1910.



USS BIRMINGHAM



Eugene Ely (civilian pilot)



50-hp Curtiss plane

When is the birthday of Naval Aviation?

May 8th, 1911.

When was the first death in Naval Aviation who was it and how did he die and what was he flying and where was it?

June 20th, 1913.



Ensign William D. Billingsley


(Co pilot "John H. Towers)



Thrown from the plane and fell to his death.



B-2



1,600 feet over the water near Annapolis, MD.

What year was inspector school established?

October 22, 1917.

What year did "The Jupiter" (a former coal-carrier) become recomissioned as The Navy's first Carrier "The USS Langley" (CV-1)?

March 20th, 1922.

What year did the first Navy jet make its first Carrier landing on "The USS Boxer" (CV-21)?

March 10th, 1948.

When was the battle of "Coral Sea" and what was so significant about it?

-May 7-8th, 1942



-Thanks to breaking the Japanese Navy Code the U.S. was alerted to the Japanese plans to to move to the Coral Sea and seize Port Moresby on southern coast of New Guinea.



-The first Carrier to Carrier battle.



-The Aircraft's passed each other in the clouds unseen.



-One Japanese Carrier was damaged.



-"The USS Lexington" was sunk.



-"The USS Yorktown" damaged.



-Both sides withdrew.



-Japanese never threatened Australia again.

When was the battle of "Midway" and what was so significant about it?

-June 3-5th, 1942.



-The turning point of the Pacific War.



-The breaking of the Japanese Navy Code was the key element.

When was the battle of "Guadalcanal" and what was so significant about it?

-November 13-15th, 1942.



-The five Sullivan brother's (from Waterloo, Iowa) all died on board "The USS Juneau" when it was Torpedoed.

Define "Acceleration"?

The rate of change in speed and velocity of matter with time.

Define "Speed"?

The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in time.

Define "Velocity"?

The speed of an object in a given time and direction.

What is Newton's first law?

-Inertia.



-An object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will remain in motion unless acted on by an unbalanced force.

What is Newton's second law?

-Force.



-An object moving with uniformed speed is acted upon by an external force.



-The acceleration of an object as produced by a net force is directly proportional to the magnitude of the net force, in the same direction as the net force, and inversely proportional to the mass of the object.

What is Newton's third law?

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

What is Bernoulli's principle?

(Thumb on water holes)



-When a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid is increased and the pressure is decreased.


What is lift?

The force that acts in a upward motion.

What is weight?

The force of gravity pulling in a downward motion.

What is drag?

The force that tends to hold an object back.

What is thrust?

-developed by the Engine.



-The force that acts in a forward motion.

What is Longitudinal axis?

An imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail.

What is Lateral axis?

An imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings.

What is vertical axis?

An imaginary reference line running from the top to bottom of the aircraft.

What do the Elevators produce?

Pitch (lateral axis)

What do the Ailerons produce?

Roll (Longitudinal axis)

What do the Rudders produce?

Yaw (vertical axis)

What does "The Cyclic Sticks? Produce?

(Roll/ Pitch)



-Gives the helicopter it's directional motion by changing the direction of the lift.

What does "The Tail Rotor" produce?

Yaw (Vertical axis)



-counteracts torque of the main rotor by increasing or decreasing the amount of horizontal thrust the tail rotor produces.

List non axis affecting flight controls?

-Flaps



(Creates extra lift)



-Spoilers



(Used to decrease or spoil wing lift)



-Speed brakes



(Used to reduce speed of aircraft)



-Slats



(Movable control surfaces attached to leading edge of wing.)



(Used to control airspeeds below normal landing speeds)

Define "Angle of Attack"?

The angle between the chord line of the wing and the relative wind.

What is autorotation?

A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without engine power.

Describe the basic aircraft hydraulic system?

P- Pump



A- Actuating Unit



R- Reservoir



T- Tubing



S- Selector Valve

What are the landing gear main components and their purpose?

-Shock Strut Assembly.



(Absorbs shock)



-Tires.



(Allows aircraft to roll and provides traction during takeoff and landings)



-Wheel Brake Assembly.



(Used to slow and stop the aircraft)



-Retracting and Extending Mechanism.



(All necessary hardware to electrically or hydraulically extend and retract landing gear)



-Side Struts and Supports.


(Provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear)

What does NALCOMIS stand for?

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System.

What does OOMA stand for?

Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity.

What does OIMA stand for?

Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity.

What does NALCOMIS provide?

The capability to manage maintenance and supply functions.

What are the modules of OOMA?

-Maintenance subsystems.



-Material subsystems.



-Flight subsystems.



-CM/Logs and records subsystems.



-Platform software interface.

What is OOMA?

A management tool that provides essential, real-time information on a continuing basis through the online Visual Electronic Displays (VEDs) and MAINT- 1-6 reports as well as Adhoc data extraction.

What's a JCN?

-Job Control Number.



-9 characters.

What's a WO?

Work Order.

What's a WC?

Work center.

What's a WUC?

Work Unit Code.

List of WO's?

-DM (Discrepancy Maintenance)



-TS (Troubleshooting)



-CM (Cannibalization Maintenance)



-AD (Assist Maintenance)



-FO (Facilitate Other Maintenance)



-CL (Conditional Look Phase)



-CF (Conditional Fix Phase)



-SX (Special Inspection One Workcenter)



-SC (Special Inspection Control)



-TD (Technical Directive)

What does OIMA provide?

The capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes at the intermediate level.

What's the Navy's 6 core capabilities?

-Forward Presence.


(Deployablity)



-Deterrence.


(Scare the enemy from acting harshly)



-Sea Control.


(Protect the ability to operate freely at sea)



-Power Projection.


(Ability to project from the sea)


"strength"



-Maritime Security.


(Maintaining security at sea)



-Humanitarian Assistance/Disaster Relief.


(A human obligation, a foundation of human character)

Aviation communities and their missions?

Helicopter Sea Combat (HSC)


-Rescue, Logistics, Mine Countermeasures, Combat search-and-rescue.



Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM)


"Primary"-Anti-submarine/surface Warfare.


"Secondary"-Logistics and Rescue



Helicopter Training (HT)


-Train student Aviotors.



Tactical Electronic Warfare (VAQ)


-Tactics against enemy electromagnetic defenses and offensive systems.



Carrier Airborne Early Warning (VAW)


-Provides early warning against weather, missiles, shipping, and aircraft.



Fleet Composite (VC)


-Provides air services for the fleet such as simulation and target towing.



Strike Fighter (VFA)


-Fighter and attack missions.



Patrol (VP)


-Performs anti-submarine/surface warfare, reconnaissance, and mining.



Fleet Air Reconnaissance (VQ)


-Provides Electronic Warfare support.



Aircraft Logistics Support (VR)


-Trasports personnel and supplies.



Carrier Logistics Support (VCR)


-Transports personnel and supplies for carrier on board delivery.



Training (VT)


-Provides basic and advanced training for student naval aviators and flight officers.



Air Test and Evaluation (VX/VXE)


-Test and evaluate the operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment in a operational environment.

What is HAZMAT?

Hazardous Materials.

Define "HAZMAT"?

Any material that may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.

What does MSDS stand for?

Material Safety Data Sheet.

What's the six categories of HAZMAT?

F- Flammable or combustible material.



A- Aerosol containers



T- Toxic materials



C- Corrosive materials



O- Oxidizing materials



C- Compressed gases

List of the type of training all hands should be trained on for Hazmat?

-Types of HAZMAT in their work area.



-What HAZWASTE is and how to dispose it.



-How to read and interpret hazard warning labels.



-What's an MSDS, how to read it, and where is it.



-Emergency procedures.

What's the general steps of a spill response?

-Discovery



-Notification



-Initiation of Action



-Evaluation



-Containment



-Damage Control



-Dispersion of Gases/Vapors



-Cleanup and Decontamination



-Disposal



-Certification for Re-entry



-Follow-up Reports

What are the three types of hangars used by Naval Aviation?

-Type 1



-Type 2



-Type 3

Describe a Type 1 hangar?

-Primarily designed for Carrier aircraft



-Adaptable for Rotary wing and various types of smaller aircraft.



-Hangar bay is 235 feet Wide and 85 feet deep.

Describe a Type 2 hangar?

-Primarily provided for US Marine Corp Aviation.



-Designed to accommodate CH-53 Helicopters, V-22 Ospreys and C-130 Hercules Aircraft.



-May also accommodate Navy versions of the C-130, V-22, and H-53.



-Hangar bay is 119 feet deep and 325 feet wide.

Describe a Type 3 Hangar?

-Designed for land based patrol and large transport aircraft.



-Hangar bay is 165 feet deep and 165 feet wide.

List of peculiar items in shore based hangars?

-Portable CO2 fire extinguishers.



-Aircraft electrical systems with cords.



-A red painted fire line that divides the hangar from the maintenance Workcenters.



-Automatic/Manually operated hangar door.



-Aircraft Grounds.

List of Hangar protection items requirements for protection of high value aircraft?

-A low level AFFF system.



-A closed head water only overhead sprinkler.



-Optical detection system to activate the low level AFFF system.



-Approved Drainage System.



-Draft Curtains to prevent cooling of sprinklers

When was VFA-204 established and where?

July 1st, 1970.


Memphis, TN.

Who's the CO of VFA-204?

CDR Pirrone.

Who's the XO of VFA-204?

CDR Maloney.

Who's the CMC of VFA-204?

CMC Rodgers.

Who's the MO of VFA-204?

Mr.Celantano

Who's the AMO of VFA-204?

Mr.Cambell

What was VFA-204's first aircraft?

A-4C and A-4L Skyhawks

When was VFA -204 moved New Orleans and what aircraft did they start using?

March 1978.


A-7B.

When did VFA-204 transition to A-7E?

1986.

When did VFA -204 transition to FA-18A and redisignate as VFA-204?

-April 1991.



-May 1991.

When did VFA -204 complete it's transition to the F/A-18 Hornet?

March 1993.

When did VFA -204 embark on "The USS John C. Stennis?

1996



-First night cyclic operation for VFA-204.

What movie did VFA -204 make an appearance in and when?

-"Tears of the Sun"



-2003

When did VFA -204 deploy with "The USS Nimitz" around the horn of Africa?

-2001.