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56 Cards in this Set

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What is acquired hypogonadotropic hypogonadism? What is it characterized by? (features in men vs. women?)

Hypogonadism caused by decreased gonadotropins from the pituitary.



Characterized by the gradual loss of facial, axillary, pubic, and body hair (more prominent in patients who are also hypoadrenal). Men may note diminished libido, erectile dysfunction, muscle atrophy, infertility, and osteopenia. (See Male Hypogonadism.) Women have amenorrhea, infertility, and predisposition to osteoporosis. Like men, women with hypogonadism have androgen deficiency and may note muscle atrophy.

Define sexual precocity.

the onset of sexual maturation at any age that is 2.5 standard deviations earlier than the normal age for that population, being usually before the age of 8 years. May be classified as central, or GnRH-dependent, precocious puberty (true); or peripheral, or GnRH-independent, precocious puberty (pseudoprecocious puberty).

What is the pathophysiology of central precocious puberty?

Cause unclear.



Premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis is followed by gonadotropin secretion, which in turn stimulates the gonads to produce steroid hormones and, subsequently, pubertal changes.

Central precocious puberty is more common in ________. Most of them are otherwise __________ children whose pubertal maturation begins at the early end of the normal distribution curve. CNS imaging studies of these __-__ year olds usually reveal no structural abnormalities.

Girls; healthy; 6-8

What are some more rare causes of central precocious puberty?

CNS neoplasms: hypothalamic hamartomas, optic gliomas, and neurofibromas etc.



Cranial irradiation and CNS injuries



Prolonged excessive therapy with exogenous sex steroids or endocrine disorders such as hypothyroidism may accellerate hypothalamic-pituitary axis maturation, resulting in precocious puberty.

What is peripheral GnRH-independent precocious puberty?

appearance of pubertal dvpt but the presence of sex steroids is independent of pituitary gonadotropin release.

Causes of peripheral GnRH-independent precocious puberty?

congenital adrenal hyperplasia, tumors that secrete hCG, tumors of the adrenal gland or gonads, McCune-Albright syndrome (MAS), and exposure to exogenous sex steroid hormones.

Pathophysiology of endogenous estrogen overproduction causing precocious puberty?

some large follicular cysts capable of E production occur occasionally and may cause early feminization.



Benign tumors of the ovary (teratoma, cystadenoma) may produce E or may induce surrounding ovarian tissue to produce steroids.



Granulosa cell tumors capable of estrogen production are a rare cause of prepubertal feminization.



Even more rare causes: adrenal adenomas and hepatomas.

Can exogenous estrogens cause precocious puberty? Give 2 examples.

Yes. Ingestion of estrogens or prolonged use of creams containing estrogens is a possible but uncommon cause of early feminization. A phytoestrogen-enriched diet (mostly soybean extracts) could exert a similar effect.

What is Mccune-Albright syndrome?

Classic MAS consists of at least 2 features of the triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait skin pigmentation, and autonomous endocrine hyperfunction, the most common form of which is GnRH secretion and subsequent precocious puberty.



Other endocrine/nonendocrine tissues may also be affected. (adrenal, thyroid, pituitary, liver, and heart)

What is the first sign of MAS usually?

early vaginal bleeding.

How do you diagnose MAS? Prognosis?

on the basis of skin pigmentation and demonstration of bone lesions or pathologic fractures.



Prognosis is unfavorable... due to endocrinopathies often exist as well...

Early development of a __________ organ can also occur and is much more common. May mimic precocious puberty.

Single (eg, breast tissue). (AKA thelarche-isolated development of breast tissue prior to age 8, most commonly between ages 1-3)

MAS is caused by a ____________ somatic mutation in the gene coding for the subunit of the __________ G protein, which is involved in transmitting hormone signals.

POSTZYGOTIC somatic mutation


coding for the subunit of the STIMULATORY G Protein involved in transmitting hormone signals. cascades activated in the absence of hormone stimulation.

Why do GnRH analogues work in treating central precocious puberty?

GnRH analogues initially cause an increase in the pituitary release of gonadotropins but not long after this does desensitization occur. GnRH receptors are downregulated and therefore are less active in stimulating release of gonadotropins from the pituitary.



GnRH analogues also competetively bind the receptor, have greater resistance to degradation and increased affinity for the pituitary GnRH receptors.

Treatment with GnRH analogues decreases gonadotropins and sex steroids to _________ levels, which is followed by ?

prepubertal; regression of secondary sexual features.

Treatment of precocious puberty with GnRH analogues also causes deceleration in the __________ ___________ rate, preserving or even improving predicted _________.

skeletal maturation rate; height.

In girls with central precocious puberty, when does treatment with GnRH analogues end?

when puberty is appropriate based on her age and emotional maturity. Resumption of puberty occurs promptly after discontinuation of GnRH analogue therapy.

How is GnRH is normally secreted? (quality) How about gonadotropins?

episodic bursts (circhoral secretion)



Gonadotropins are also exerted in a pulsatile fashion so the episodic bursts of GnRH are essential for normal secretion of gonadotropins.

What happens if GnRH is administered by constant infusion vs episodically? (what is the rate of secretion with best LH response?)

Constant infusion: Downregulation of GnRH receptors in the ant pit and LH decreases to low levels.



Episodic (best response at 1 pulse per hour) LH secretion is stimulated.

Frequency of GnRH secretions is ________ by and _________ by progesterone and testosterone.

increased by estrogens, decreased by progesterone and testosterone.

The frequency _________ late in the follicular phase of the cycle, culminating in the LH surge.

increases (due to increased estrogen production)

the frequency decreases during the _______ phase as a result of the action of __________.

secretory; progesterone

When estrogen and progesterone secretion decrease at the end of the cycle, frequency __________.

increases

At the time of the midcycle LH surge, the sensitivity of the gonadotropes to GnRH is greatly _______ because of their exposure to GnRH pulses of the frequency that exist at this time.

increased

Norepinephrine and possibly epinephrine _______ GnRH pulse frequency.

increase.

Opioid peptides (enkephalins and Beta-endorphin) ________ the frequency of GnRH pulses.

reduce

What are the diseases that are commonly treated with GnRH analogues?

precocious puberty, endometriosis, leiomyomas, and cancer of the prostate.

How does estrogen regulate LH secretion?

A moderate, constant amount of circulating estrogen causes negative feedback on LH secretion. An elevated amount of estrogen causes positive feedback on LH secretion (hence the LH surge). It also only causes positive feedback after a minimum of about 36 hours in monkeys... So there must be elevated estrogen for a prolonged period to cause positive feedback.

What color is the adrenal cortex?

yellow due to cholesterol!

Aldosterone is made in which part of the adrenal gland?

Zona glomerulosa

Cortisol is made in which layer?

fasciculata

Sex steroids are made in which layer of the adrenal cortex?

reticularis

What is the mnemonic for remembering layers and their associated hormones?

it gets sweeter as it gets deeper/

What is Cushing Syndrome?

Excess cortisol

What are the clinical features of cushing syndrome?

muscle weakness with thin extremities, moon facies, buffalo hump, and truncal obesity (excess glucose --> insulin --> fat deposition), abdominal striae (ruptured blood vessels due to impaired repair of collagen), HTN (cortisol upregulates the alpha 1 receptors on arterioles), osteoporosis, immune suppression

what are the 3 major mechanisms in which cortisol inhibits immune system?

inhibits phospholipase A2


inhibits IL-2


Inhibits histamine release from mast cells

How do you diagnose cushing syndrome?

24 hour urine cortisol test.

Causes of cushing syndrome?

exogenous corticosteroids (only cause that gives you atrophy of both adrenals)



Primary adrenal adenoma, hyperplasia, or carcinoma (adenoma adrenal will be big, but the neg feedback on ACTH will cause opposite adrenal to be atrophic)



ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma (both adrenals big and producing excess cortisol)



Paraneoplastic ACTH secretion (small cell carcinoma of the lung)

Which diseases do you distinguish when you use a high-dose dexamethasone suppression test? What is the mechanism of this test?

ACTH producing pituitary adenoma vs ectopic ACTH production by small cell lung carcinoma.



Suppresses ACTH production by the pituitary adenoma but does not suppress ACTH production by the small cell lung carcinoma



follow cortisol levels

What is the presentation of hyperaldosteronism?

excess aldosterone: hypernatremia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis (dumping Hydrogen ions), HTN

What is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?

Adrenal adenoma

What are other causes of hyperaldosteronism?

sporadic hyperplasia and carcinoma of the adrenal gland

What do labs show you in primary hyperaldosteronism?

high aldosterone, low renin/

Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to ...?

fibromuscular dysplasia (young woman) thickening of the wall of the blood vessel, activating the JGA.



Atherosclerosis (elderly males) decreases blood flow to the kidney, activating the JGA.



Each of these secrete renin which ultimately results in high aldosterone

Define congenital adrenal hyperplasia briefly.

excess sex steroids with hyperplasia of both adrenal glands. due to a congenital defect in the enzymes necessary for steroidogenesis.

What is the first step in the pathway from cholesterol to mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and sex steroids?

Cholesterol to pregnenolone catalyzed by cholesterol side chain cleavage enzyme.

If patient had clitoral enlargement (female) or precocious puberty (male) with life-threatening hypotension, excess ACTH (big adrenals), and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, and hypovolemic, which enzyme is deficient?

21 hydroxylase. Steroidogenesis is shunted towards sex steroid production. Deficiency of cortisol leads to increased ACTH which results in bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

Clinical features of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

salt wasting with hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypovolemia,



Life-threatening hypotension



Clitoral enlargement (females) or precocious puberty (males)

Which two enzymes do you need to produce glucocorticoids?

21 hydroxylase, and 11 beta hydroxylase

Which enzyme do you need to produce weak mineralocorticoids?

21 hydroxylase

Which enzyme do you need to produce a higher level of mineralocorticoids?

11 beta hydroxylase.

If a patient presents with clitoral enlargement, hypotension, but non-severe hyponatremia (no salt wasting) which enzyme would be deficient?

11 beta hydroxylase. (21 hydroxylase can make a weak mineralocorticoid, deoxycorticosterone)

If patient presents with hypertension, and lack of sexual development, which enzyme is deficient?

17 hydroxylase

in any case of enzyme deficiency of the adrenal gland, you will always have a lack of which hormone? This causes which feature that is shared between all of the enzyme deficiencies?

cortisol, adrenal hyperplasia due to increased ACTH.

What is the most common congenital cardiac malformation in Turner's Syndrome? Usually occurs in __________ but can occur with ______ _________.




What is the murmur?




What happens to the valve over time?

bicuspid aortic valve




Isolation; aortic coarctation




aortic ejection sound, which is an early systolic, high-frequency click heard over the R 2nd interspace.




it calcifies- may result in progressive valvular dysfunction, manifesting with aortic infectious endocarditis due to abnormal leaflet structure and turbulent flow.