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370 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What does ORM stand for?
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Operational Risk Management
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(True/False) The purpose of ORM is to increase readiness by anticipating hazards to gain competative advantage in combat.
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True
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How many steps are in the ORM process?
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5
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The fourth step of the ORM process?
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Implementing Controls
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The second step of the ORM process?
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Assessing Hazards
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OPNAVINST 5102.1(series) governs ________ and mishap reporting.
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Safety
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OPNAVINST 5102.1(series) governs safety and _________ reporting.
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Mishap
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What instruction governs safety and mishap reporting?
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OPNAVINST 5102.1D
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Name one of the 4 Hazard Severity Codes used in the ORM Model.
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CAT-IV
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What hazard may cause death, loss of facility/asset or result in grave damage to national interests?
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CAT-I
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How many hazard severity codes are there?
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4
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(True/False) Mishap Probability is an assessment of the likelihood that, given exposure to a hazard, an accident will result.
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True
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What sub-category of ORM is likely to occurr immediately or within a short time?
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A
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What sub-category of ORM will probably occur in time?
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B
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How many RAC's are there in the ORM model?
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5
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What does RAC stand for in the ORM model?
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Risk Assessment Code
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What does RAC code 2 mean when discussing ORM
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Serious Risk
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All mishap reports must be submitted within how many days?
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30
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What does the acronym SIB mean when discussing safety?
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Safety Investigation Board
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(True/False) A SITREP stands for Situation Report?
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True
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How many required mishap reportable items are there?
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4
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What instruction governs mishap reportable items?
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OPNAVINST 5102.1D
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(True/False) A fuel spill on a naval air station is a required reportable mishap?
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FALSE
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What instruction states the purpose of a HAZREP message?
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OPNAVINST 5102.1D
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Identifying __________ factors and formulating corrective measures prevents mishap recurrence.
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casual
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Identifying casual factors and formulating __________ measures prevents mishap recurrence.
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corrective
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How many objectives are there to first aid?
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3
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Which of the following is NOT and objective of first aid?
A: Save Lives B: Prevent Further Injury C: Control Bleeding D: Prevent Infection |
C: Control Bleeding
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What are the objectives of first aid?
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Save Lives, Prevent Further Injury & Prevent Infection
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How many methods are there to control bleeding?
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3
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Which of the following is NOT a method to control bleeding?
A: Direct Pressure B: Band-Aid C: Pressure Points D: Tourniquet |
B: Band-Aid
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What is the last method to be used to control bleeding?
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Tourniquet
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How many pressure points are there?
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20
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(True/False) There is a pressure point on the ankle?
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True
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(True/False) There is a pressure point on the outer thigh?
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False
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What is shock?
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Disruption of the circulatory system.
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What is NOT a symptom of shock?
A: Nausea B: Warm, clammy skin C: Weak or absent pulse D: Shallow or irregular breathing |
B: Warm, clammy skin
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What is NOT a treatment of shock:
A: Elevate feet 6-12 inches B: Lay victim down C: Keep victim calm D: Keep victim cool |
D: Keep victim cool
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How many types of fractures are there?
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2
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(True/False) An open fracture protrudes from the skin
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True
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(True/False) A closed fracture protrudes from the skin?
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FALSE
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What is the first thing you should do when someone is being shocked?
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Shut down power or remove them from the source safely.
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Should you keep a person warm or cool when treating for shock?
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Warm
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(True/False) You should never touch a person that is being shocked?
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True
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How many methods are there for clearing an obstructed airway?
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4
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When conducting the standing abdominal thrust how many thrusts should you give before checking to see if the airway is cleared?
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4
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What is the only thrust delivered slowly?
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Reclining chest thrust
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What is hypothermia?
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General cooling of the whole body.
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What is NOT a symptom of heatstroke?
A: headache B: nausea C: excessive sweating D: dizziness |
excessive sweating
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(True/False) Heat exhaustion is more severe than heat stroke?
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FALSE
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What does HERO stand for?
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Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance
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What does HERP stand for?
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Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Personnel
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What does HERF stand for?
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Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuel
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What instructions defines HAZMAT?
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NAVEDTRA 14325
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What are the three things HAZMAT can cause harm to?
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Humans, Animals, Environment
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What is not a type of HAZMAT?
A: Biological B: Chemical C: Physical D: Environmental |
Environmental
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(True/False) Acids should be stored seperately from bases.
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True
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(True/False) Oxidizers should be stored away from flammables.
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False
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Why should dry materials be stored above liquids?
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Liquids may leak down onto dry materials
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Improperly stored HAZMAT can cause __________ or a reaction that could be life threatening.
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Injury
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When is it okay to mix HAZMAT?
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Never or after reading the MSDS?
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What does HAZMAT mean?
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Hazardous Materials
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What does MSDS mean?
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Material Safety Data Sheet
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What languages are MSDS required to be printed in?
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English
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What is NOT listed on the MSDS?
A: Identity B: Reactivity C: Chemical Weight D: Control Measures |
C: Chemical Weight
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How many types of PPE are there?
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7
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What does PPE stand for?
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Personal Protective Equipment
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What is NOT a form or eye protection?
A: Solarized Goggles B: Chemical Goggles C: Impact Goggles D: Welding Helmets |
A: Solarized Goggles
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The goal of the hearing convservation program (HCP) is to prevent ___________ hearing loss and assure auditory fitness for duty of all Navy personnel.
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Occupational
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What instruction covers the Navy Hearing Conservation Program?
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OPNAVINST 5100.19E
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The Hearing Conservation Program applies to ________ personnel?
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ALL
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How many areas of Naval Doctrine are there?
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6
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What doctrine describes the inherent nature and enduring principles of naval force?
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Naval Warfare
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What doctrine provides the basic concepts to fulfill the nees of commanders, forces, and weapons systems?
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Naval Command and Control
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How many principles are there of Naval Logistics?
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7
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What is NOT a principle of Naval Logistics?
A: Simplicity B: Complexity C: Flexibility D: Economy |
B: Complexity
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(True/False) There are 6 principles of Naval Logistics?
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FALSE - 7
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What was the first ship named after an enlisted man?
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Osmand Ingram
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When was the Osmond Ingram launched?
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February 28th, 1919
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(True/False) Ingram was the first enlisted man killed in WWI.
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True
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What is the Navy's birthday?
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October 13th, 1775
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How many vessels did the second continental congress authorize the Navy to buy?
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2
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When did the second continental congress convene?
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May 10th, 1775
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What three classes of naval vessels existed at the inception of the Navy?
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3
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What is NOT one of the three original vessel types?
A: Destroyers B: Frigates C: Ships-of-the-Line D: Sloops-of-War |
A: Destroyers
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What was the largest vessel?
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Ships-of-the-Line
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How many gun salutes does an admiral receive?
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17
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(True/False) The hand salute is believed to originate from armored knights raising their visor so they could be identified.
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True
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When boarding a ship, who is required to salute the ensign?
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XO only?
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When did the Battle of the Coral Sea take place?
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7-8 May 1942
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What battle was considered the turning point of the Pacific?
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Midway
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What was the purpose of the Great White Fleet?
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Demonstrate the strength of the Navy.
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What was the purpose of Mercury 3?
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Close the space race with Russia.
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How many flights were involved in Gemini 3?
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12
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How many Apollo missions were there?
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8
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What was the purpose of the On-The-Roof Gang?
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To intercept Japanese radio messages
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What was the date of the D-Day landing?
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June 6th, 1944
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What is the only successful anti-ship missile attack against the US Navy?
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Attack on the USS Stark
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(True/False) Naval expeditionary forces are defensive in nature?
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False
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(True/False) Naval expeditionary foreces are offensive in nature?
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True
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How many qualities characterize the modern naval force?
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4
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How many levels of war are there?
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3
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What are the three levels of war?
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Tactical, Operational, Strategic
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What level of war involves details of individual engagements?
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Strategic
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Who was the Secretary of Defense?
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James Forrestal
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The Department of War and the _________ merged to form the National Military Establishment.
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Department of the Navy
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What was the U.S.'s first peace time intelligence agency?
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Central Intelligence Agency
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Who set forth the Navy Core Values?
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Admiral Frank Kelso
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What are the three Navy Core Values?
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Honor, Courage, Commitment
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What is the value that gives me the moral and mental strength to do what is right, with confidence and resolution, even in the face of temptation or adversity?
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Courage
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When was the Sailors Creed written?
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1999
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Who is required to memorize the Sailors Creed?
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All Hands
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Who is responsible for the establishment of the Sailors Creed?
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Admiral Kelso
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What was RADM Grace Hopper's best known contribution to computing during her military career?
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The Compiler
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What is a compiler?
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Translates English to Computer Language.
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RADM Grace Hopper first joined the Navy as a ___________?
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WAVE
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What was the name of the first computer?
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ENIAC
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Where was the first computer located?
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University of Pennsylvania
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When did ENIAC go operational?
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1945
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When was ARPANET developed?
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1966
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What is ARPANET?
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A first generation internet system.
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Who published the first paper on packet switching theory?
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Leonard Kleinrock
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How did John Walker become involved in espionage?
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Walked into the Russian Embassy.
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How many people did John Walker recruit to spy with him?
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4
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How was John Walker caught?
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Wrote a letter to the FBI
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What is the oldest intelligence agency in the U.S. Navy?
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Office of Intelligence.
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The Office of Intelligence was established under whose authority?
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Chief of the Bureau of Navigation
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What general order established the Office of Intelligence?
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General Order No. 292
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When was the office of Intelligence established?
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1882
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Who founded the Office of Naval Intelligence?
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Lietenant Theodus Bailey Myers Mason
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In what year did congress expand the Office of Naval Intelligence duties to include domestic operations?
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1916
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What does DON CIO stand for?
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Department of the Navy Chief Information Officer
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Who was the first DON CIO?
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Dr. Marvin J. Langston
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When was the DON CIO position established?
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1997?
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What two departments formed the Office of Naval Intelligence?
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Department Library and Office of Naval Intelligence.
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(True/False) The Office of Intelligence was established prior to the Office of Naval Intelligence.
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True
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(True/False) Three departments were combined to form the Office of Naval Intelligence.
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False
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(True/False) The mission of the Navy is to maintain, train and equip combat-ready Naval forces capable of winning wars, deterring aggression and maintaining freedom of the seas.
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True
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(True/False) The mission of the US Navy is to enforce the policies of the President.
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False
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What does the NCA stand for?
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National Command Authority
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What does the NCA consist of?
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The President and the Secretary of Defense
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What is OPCON?
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Operational Control
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What is ADCON?
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Administrative Control
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How many unified combatant commands are there?
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10
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What does the TYCOM stand for?
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Type Command
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Who is responsible for providing capable Special Operations Forces to defend the US and its interests?
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SOCOM
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(True/False) STRATCOM is on of the 10 Unified Commands?
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True
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What does ONI stand for?
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Office of Naval Intelligence
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What does NNWC stand for?
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Naval Network Warfare Command
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What Fleet is responsible for the Arabian Gulf?
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5th Fleet
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What Fleet is responsible for the Atlantic?
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2nd Fleet
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What is a TF?
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Task Force
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What is a TG?
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Task Group
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(True/False) CTT stands for Cryptologic Technician Technical.
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True
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(True/False) CTM stands for Cryptological Technician Material.
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False
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Where is NCTAMS LANT located?
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Norfolk, VA
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Where is NCTAMS PAC located?
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Wahiawa, HI
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(True/False) C4ISR is the Concept of Command, Control, Communication, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance.
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True
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What is not part of C4ISR?
A: Command B: Intelligence C: Reconnaissance D: Coordinate |
D: Coordinate
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What is DISA?
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Defense Information Systems Agency
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(True/False) DISA engineers and provides command and control capabilities and enterprise infrastructure to continuously operate and assure a global net-centric enterprise in direct support to joint warfighters, National level leaders, and other mission and coalition partners across the full spectrum of operations.
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True
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When was NASIC established?
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2003
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What is NCDOC?
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Navy Cyber Defense Operations Command
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(True/False) C4ISR is not part of the NAASIC?
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False
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When was the NCDOC established?
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2006
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What does the DOE stand for?
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Department of Equality
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What does DOT stand for?
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Department of Transportation
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Who is the current Secretary of the Navy?
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Ray Mabus
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Who is the current Chief of Naval Operations?
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ADM Greenert
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Who is the commanding officer's top enlisted advisor?
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CMC
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Who is the highest ranking enlisted person in the Navy?
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MCPON
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What does CCRI stand for?
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Command Cyber Readiness Inspection
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What agency is responsible for conducting CCRI's?
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DISA
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(True/False) NAVCYBERFOR plays no role in the CCRI.
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False
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(True/False) NAVCYBERFOR was the precursor to NETWARCOM
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False
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How many sections are there in the EDVR?
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12
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What does ODCR stand for
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Officer Distribution Control Report
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A ________ report provides a record of significant performance that was not directly observable by the regular reporting senior.
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Concurrent
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(True/False) Evaluation reports are given to enlisted Sailors?
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True
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What is found on a Page 2?
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Personal Information
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What is found on a Page 13?
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Administrative Remarks
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(True/False) The purpose of a SITREP is to provide a system to report significant events and incidents to the highest levels of command.
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TRUE
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How many classes of SITREPS are there?
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3
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What does IG stand for?
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Inspector General
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Who provides policy direction for audits, evaluations, inspections and investigations relating to fraud, waste and abuse program effectiveness?
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IG (Inspector General)
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What is the Navy Correspondence Manual?
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SECNAVINST 5216.5
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____________ provides uniform standards for the management and preparation of correspondence?
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SECNAVINST 5216.5
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What does PTS stand for?
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Perform to Serve
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What is the earliest a PTS application can be submitted?
|
15 months
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How many officer accession programs are there?
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6
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Which of the following is not an officer accession program?
A: OCS B: STA-21 C: ADV-23 D: LDO |
C: ADV-23
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What does DLTP stand for?
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Defense Language Testing Program
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What test is used to measure aptitude of a foreign language?
|
DLAB
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___________ assists the Executive Officer in administering educational programs?
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ESO
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What does ESO stand for?
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Educational Services Officer
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What is the minimum percentage of personnel that must be tested monthly for urinalysis?
|
10%
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Which of the following is the "Drug and Alcohol Prevention Control" instruction?
|
OPNAVINST 5350.4D
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What program addresses sponsorship, indoctrination, career development boards, mentorship, individual recognition and a rigorous ombudsman/family outreach program?
|
Brilliant on the Basics
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How many aspects are there to the Brilliant on the Basics?
|
6
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What does PAO stand for?
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Public Affairs Officer
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(True/False) The purpose of teh PAO is to ensure the Navy avoid any negative media attention.
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FALSE
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What is the purpose of 3-M/PMS?
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Provide efficient and uniform methods of conducting preventive maintenance
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What are the 3 "Ms" in the Navy 3M system?
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Maintenance Material Management
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What is the purpose of DPAS?
|
To track physical accountability of DOD property.
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(True/False) DPAS is a paper based tracking system?
|
FALSE
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What does MOV stand for?
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Material Obligation Validation
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What is the purpose of the MOV program?
|
To ensure a checks and balance system for military pay.
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What does DLR stand for?
|
Depot Level Repariables
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A repariable is a component, module, assembly, or equipment determined to be economically repairable when it becomes _____________.
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Unserviceable
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What is the difference between a turn-in and a RIP?
|
Turn-in items can be turned in but RIP items have to remain in place until a replacement part arrives.
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What does RIP stand for?
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Remain in place
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What does MAM stand for?
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Maintenance Assistance Module
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What are bulkhead mounted spares?
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Material authorized for stowage in other spaces
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How many CASREP categories are there?
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4
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What CASREP category is submitted when equipment which has been the subject of causalty reporting is repaired and back in operational condition?
|
Correction
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What does NSN stand for?
|
National Stock Number
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What doe NIS stand for?
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Not in stock
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What form is used to requisition material that cannot be identified by a national stock number?
|
DD Form 1348-6
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What form is for the solicitation/Contract/Order for Commercial Items?
|
SF 1449
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Which of the following is operated by an ashore supply activity?
|
ServMart
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Which of the following deal with the management of hazardous material?
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CHRIMP
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(True/False) The purpose of the IMPAC program is to save the Navy money?
|
FALSE
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(True/False) For commercial invoices above the micro-purchase threshold, use of the purchase card as a method of payment is highly encouraged.
|
TRUE
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What does OPTAR stand for?
|
Operational Target
|
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What is OPTAR?
|
Estimated amount of money that will be required to perform assigned tasks.
|
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What is NOT one of the types of power?
A: Normal Power B: Standard Power C: Emergency Power D: Uniterrupted Power |
B: Standard Power
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What type of power supply is recommended for equipment that cannot risk loss of data or performance?
|
Uniterrupted Power
|
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Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining a personnel security policy?
|
SECNAV
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|
What directive governs personnel security?
|
SECNAVINST M-5510.30
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What color is TOP SECRET documents?
|
Orange
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What color is UNCLASSIFIED documents?
|
Green
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What is a determination that an individual requires access to specific classified information in the performance of(or to assist in the performance of) lawful and authorized government functions and duties?
|
Need to know
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Who determines the need to know of the classified information?
|
Authorized holder?
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How often is a TOP SECRET investigation updated?
|
5 yrs
|
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How often is a SECRET investigation updated?
|
10 yrs
|
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What does SAER stand for?
|
Security Access Eligibility Report
|
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Which of the following instructions define a SAER?
A: DoD 5105.21-M-1 B: SECNAVINST M-5510.30 C: UCMJ Art 90 D: SECNAVINST 6625.1 |
A: DoD 5105.21-M-1
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What does SSO stand for?
|
Special Security Officer
|
|
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What instruction discusses incidents that have to be reported to the SSO?
|
DoD 5105.21-M-1
|
|
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What does SCIF stand for?
|
Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility
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|
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Who has overall authority of and controls access to SCIF?
|
SSO
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|
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What form that contains vital information about the security container in which it is located. This information includes location, container number, lock serial number, and contact information if the container is found open and unattended?
|
SF-700
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What form is a checklist that is filled out at the end of each day to insure that classified materials are secured properly and allows for employee accountability in the event that irregularities are discovered?
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SF-701
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How often must combination locks be changed?
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24mos
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What instruction states how often combinations need to be changed?
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DoD 5105.21-M-1
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What instruction defines the responsibilities of the Foreign Disclosure Office?
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Foreign Disclosure Manual
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What doe FDO stand for?
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Foreign Disclosure Office
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What does DCS stand for?
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Defense Courier Service
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What instruction governs the Defense Courier Service?
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DoD 5200.33
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What is the max weight a package can be that is shipped DCS?
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300lbs
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___________ shall ensure that only appropriately cleared personnel or authorized carriers transmit, transport, escort, or handcarry classified information.
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Commanding Officers
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(TRUE/FALSE) The TSCO must be an O4 or above?
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False
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Who designates a TSCO?
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Commanding Officers
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How many THREATCONS are there?
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4
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How many FPCONS are there?
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4
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What is a RAM?
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Random Anti-Terrorism Measure
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(TRUE/FALSE) Military bases only apply RAMs during FPCON Delta.
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FALSE
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What doe EAP stand for?
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Emergency Action Plan
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What instruction states the purpose of an EAP?
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EKMS????
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What is the top priority when conducting emergency destruction?
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TOP SECRET
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What has the lowest priority when conducting emergency destruction?
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CONFIDENTIAL
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Who can give the order to initiate Emergency Destruction?
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Commanding Officers
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How fast must priority on material be destroyed while afloat?
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30min
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How long do you have to destroy SECRET material?
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15 min
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What is the emergency procedure by which printed material is rendered unrecognizable, electronic equipment rendered inoperable and all COMSEC material destroyed?
|
Emergency Destruction Plan
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During Emergency Destruction, in what order is material destroyed?
|
Crypto, tactical operations codes, COMSEC equipment manuals, classified COMSEC doctrine publications, classified elements of COMSEC......
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What organization must SCI request be cleared by?
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PSD
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What does the acronym "SCI" stand fore?
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Sensitive Compartmented Information
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Define SCI?
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Sensitive Compartmented Information
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What instruction states which items are banned from a SCIF?
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ICPG 705.5
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(TRUE/FALSE) Shareware is allowed in computers in the SCIF.
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FALSE
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Who approves IT software prior to use in a SCIF?
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ISSM
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(TRUE/FALSE) A security violation is more serious than a possible danger to security.
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TRUE
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What constitutes a security violation?
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Use of a thumbdrive in a secure facility.
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(TRUE/FALSE) Every security violation must be reported.
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TRUE
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What instruction explains the security requirements of a T-SCIF?
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ICPG 705.5
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What instruction explains the security requirements of a SCIF?
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ICPG 705.5
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Who authorizes personnel to work in a SCIF?
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Commanding Officer
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What does the acronym "T-SCIF" stand for?
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Tactical Secure Compartmented Information Facility.
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What instruction covers vault recertification?
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DoD 5105.21-M-1
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What instruction covers recurring inspections?
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DoD 5105.21-M-1
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Who inspects and recertifies a container/vault door to be used to protect classified material?
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GSA
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Which door is authorized for storage/protection of classified material?
|
A secure door authorized by GSA
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When two people are required to access secure information it is called ____________.
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Two Person Integrity?
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A list of people that are authorized to access a secure space is called an __________.
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Access List
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Who must sign the visitors log in the secure space they are visiting?
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Non-Authorized Personnel
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Access lists are updated how often?
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Every time someone reports or transfers
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Who is not authorized to serve as an escort?
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Family Member
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Who is not required to sign visitor records or display ID badges as visitors?
|
Flag Officers
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Who cannot be assigned security escort duties?
|
2-Star Admiral
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(TRUE/FALSE) Flag officers are required to display ID badges while being escorted.
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FALSE
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What instruction discusses the procedures for sanitizing a secure area?
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DoD 5105.21-M-1
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(TRUE/FALSE) Only TOP SECRET information needs to be sanitized when viewed by non-cleared personnel.
|
FALSE
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|
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When sanitizing a space, what items are NOT required to be removed?
|
A DVD playing on a TV
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What is considered "sanitizing" a space?
|
Removing all classified/sensitive material
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|
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(TRUE/FALSE) PII is part of INFOSEC.
|
TRUE
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What does PSP stand for?
|
Personnel Security Program
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What is COMSEC?
|
Communications Security
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The principal means that the Director of National Intelligence release guidance is through ________.
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ICDs
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What does ICD stand for?
|
Intelligence Community Directives
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Who manages COMSEC material?
|
EKMS Accounts
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(TRUE/FALSE) COMSEC material is used to protect the transmissions, communications and processing of classified material of the US and its Allies.
|
FALSE
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|
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What does SSO stand for?
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Special Security Officer Navy
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|
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Who implements SCI security policy and procedures?
|
SSO
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The SSO handles all ________ material.
|
SCI
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Who manages and administers the SCI program?
|
SSO
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Who does the SSO advise and is directly responsible to regarding security?
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Commanding Officer
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What does CSM stand for?
|
Command Security Manager
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Who designates the CSM?
|
Commanding Officer
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|
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(TRUE/FALSE) A GS-16 civilian with a valid background check can be designated the CSM.
|
TRUE
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|
|
What re the eligibility requirements to be the Command Security Manager?
|
Officer, GS-11 civilian, US Citizenship, background check in the last 5 years.
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Who is responsible for implementing the ISP and shall have direct access to the commanding officer?
|
CSM
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Who serves as the principle advisor and representative to the commanding officer in matters pertaining to the classification, safeguarding, transmission, and destruction of classified material?
|
CSM
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Who does the CSM report to?
|
Commanding Officer
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What is a system that uses NIPRNET to connect all DoD security personnel around the world with their Central Adjudication facility?
|
JPAS
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|
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What does JPAS stand for?
|
Joint Person Adjudication System
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|
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What system connects personnel to the CAF(Central Adjudication Facility)?
|
JPAS
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|
|
What does DONCAF stand for?
|
Department of the Navy Combined Access Facility
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|
|
What organization determines eligibility for a security clearance?
|
DONCAF
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|
Once a command suspends a members access to classified information what is the only organization that can reinstate the access?
|
DONCAF
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|
|
How long can the CO suspend access?
|
180 days
|
|
|
Who revokes a clearance?
|
DONCAF
|
|
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How many levels of INFOCAN are there?
|
5
|
|
|
Who many levels of INFOCON are there?
|
5
|
|
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What level of INFOCON is the "maximum readiness"?
|
1
|
|
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(TRUE/FALSE) Electronic and Magnetic media do not need to be labeled unless they leave a secure workspace.
|
FALSE
|
|
|
(TRUE/FALSE) Labels need only include color and not a verbal description of the classification.
|
FALSE
|
|
|
What is Magnetic Media?
|
A system that retains information without using power
|
|
|
(TRUE/FALSE) Government PEDs are not controlled items.
|
FALSE
|
|
|
What is the only email address used on government computers?
|
.mil
|
|
|
(TRUE/FALSE) The preferred email addresses to be used on government computers end in .com
|
FALSE
|
|
|
Who has exclusive use of the .mil domain?
|
US DoD
|
|
|
What does DNS stand for?
|
Domain Name System
|
|
|
What does IA stand for?
|
Information Assurance
|
|
|
(TRUE/FALSE) The definition of IA is the protection of individual's personal information.
|
FALSE
|
|
|
What is accreditation?
|
The official management decision to operate an IS in a specified environment.
|
|
|
What does DAA stand for?
|
Designated Approving Authority
|
|
|
(TRUE/FALSE) Data-transfer procedures must be worth the risks associated with all aspects of this activity.
|
FALSE
|
|
|
(TRUE/FALSE) Careless methods, shortcuts, and untrained users can compromise sensitive and classified information vital to national security and operational processes.
|
TRUE
|
|
|
What is the purpose of risk management?
|
To balance the operational and economic cost while still completing the mission.
|
|
|
In a networked environment, a risk to one system is a risk to _______ systems.
|
all
|
|
|
How many attributes of IA are there?
|
5
|
|
|
What is not an attribute of IA?
A: Confidentiality B: Integrity C: Responsibility D: Availability |
C: Responsibility
|
|
|
How many categories of computer incidents are there?
|
9
|
|
|
What category of computer incident denies, degrades and disrupts normal functionality of a system or network?
|
4
|
|
|
(TRUE/FALSE) The need to provide public information to the Navy's and MC's various audiences must be balanced with the need to protect operational security, privacy of information, information security, and personal safety.
|
TRUE
|
|
|
The Web is specifically designed to be ________ and _______ to a global audience.
|
open, accessible
|
|
|
IAVA announces a computer application software or operating system vulnerability notification in the form of an _________.
|
Alert
|
|
|
What component is place between computers and networks to help eliminate undesired access?
|
Firewall
|
|
|
What is a networking device that forwards packets between networks using information in protocol headers and forwarding tables to determine the best next router for each packet?
|
Router
|
|
|
What is not a layer of routing?
A: Access B: Security C: Distribution D: Core |
B: Security
|
|
|
How many layers of routing are there?
|
3
|
|
|
The physical arrangement of a LAN's components is called ___________?
|
Topology
|
|
|
A privately-owned network(s) within a single building or campus of up to a few kilometers called a __________?
|
LAN
|
|
|
How many layers in the OSI model?
|
7
|
|
|
How many layers in the TCP/IP model?
|
5
|
|
|
The IPv4 utilizes ___ bits to form its address.
|
32
|
|
|
The real intent of __________ is to increase the efficiency of network management and routing.
|
IPv6
|
|
|
The _______ is a composite of DoD owned and leased telecommunications subsystems and networks.
|
DISN
|
|
|
The ________ is a Navy-wide initiative to install a common and secure IT infrastructure to OCONUS navy locations.
|
ONENET
|
|
|
What is considered the "natural language" of a particular computer, defined by the computers hardware design?
|
machine language
|
|
|
An ________ is software that controls a computer.
|
Operating System
|
|
|
A _________ is a malicious code written with an intention to damage the user's computer.
|
Virus
|
|
|
A _____ is malware that appears to perform a desirable function for the user prior to run or install but instead facilitates unauthorized access of the users computer system.
|
Trojan
|
|
|
The creation of a computer system/LAN list or inventory items is called?
|
Network Enumeration
|
|
|
A situation where a program writes data beyond the buffer space allocated in memory is called___________?
|
Buffer Overflow
|
|
|
What does PKI stand for?
|
Public Key Infrastructure
|
|
|
What is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, distribute, use, store, and revoke digital certificates?
|
PKI
|
|
|
What is the name of the resolution system that translates alphabetic domain names into numeric IP addresses?
|
DNS
|
|
|
What does DNS stand for?
|
Domain Name System
|
