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528 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
how long is a SAFE maintained
sexual assault forensic exam
1 year
what instruction governs SARP
SECNAVINST 1752.4A
what is reprisal
taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action
what is "quid pro quo"
an exchange of sexual favors for better treatment or jobs
what is performed after a foreign anthem at a ceremony
star spangled banner
what is played only for the president
hail to the chief
when walking junior personnel should be on what side
left
who can have a 21 gun salute
president
also used when entering a foreign port
how long is their between each shot in a gun salute
.5 seconds
when is the union jack displayed
at port between 0800 and sunset
what is candidiasis
fungal infection of the mouth, looks red or white
what types of malignant tumors are there for dental
carcinoma
adenocarcinoma
sarconoma
what is the most common oral disease
marginal gingivitis
what do dental cries look like
chalky white spots
what type of mouth lesion hurt more lying down
acute pulpitis
what is another name for periapical abscess
gumboil
how do you drain a dental abscess
puncture with explorer
what are the types of tooth fracture and what do they consist of
type1 enamel only
type2 dentin and enamel
type3 pulp exposure
type4 root fracture
what is the most effective form of dental anesthesia
block
what dental medicine is known to discolor teeth of infants if the mother takes it while still pregnant
tetracyline
what are rod shaped bacteria
bacilli
how many calories is 1 gram of protein
4
at what temperature does mercury vaporize
room temperature
how far from a patients face should a dental light be placed
30-36 inches
what is an injury to a ligament called
sprain
what is an injury to a muscle or tendon called
strain
how large can a female's earring be in uniform
6mm
how long is a pace for a male
30 inches
what is SORN
standard operating regulations of navy
what is the one day EMI is not authorized
Sabbath (Sunday)
how long and of what rank must someone be to become a warrant officer
chief with 12-24 years
do warrant officers require a collage degree
no
what is SECNAVINST 5216.5D
standard navy letter
what is the minimum amount of paragraphs needed for a letter
no minimum
what size font must be used in a navy letter and what sized border
10-12 font
inch border
in a navy letter where must the signature be
4 spaces from body
centered
what are the terrorist threat levels
high, significant, moderate and low
what are the force protection conditions
normal, alpha, bravo, charlie, and delta
what are the 2 elements of shipboard organization
battle and admin
what is an act or verbal expression of respect
courtesy
what is the most common form of salute
hand salute
what is the procedure for coming aboard a naval vessel
salute ensign, salute OOD and request permission
what does 1 blast aboard ship signify
attention starboard
what does 2 blasts aboard ship signify
attention port
what occurs when 2 ship pass close to each other in port
passing honors
how close must ships be for passing honors
600 yards
how close must boats be for passing honors
400 yards
what is NAVPERS 15665
uniform regulations and awards
when are large metals worn
in full dress uniform
how large can a stencil on uniform items be
1/2-1inch
who wears 3 god stars above and eagle above a star
MCPON
where are ribbons worn
1/4 inch above left breast pocket
how long can male hair be
4 inches and tapered to 3/4 inch
how much can military cash awrds be
up to $25000
what is the most important log on ship
deck log
how long are most shipboard watches
4 hrs
what is midwatch
0000-0400
what is morning watch
0400-0800
what is forenoon watch
0800-1200
what is afternoon watch
1200-1600
what is 1st dog watch
1600-1800
what is 2nd dog watch
1800-2000
what is evening watch
20000-2400
what is the navy b-day
13OCT1775
what is only considered part of the DON at war time
coast guard, the rest of the time it is DOT
what is SSIC
4-5 digit code that stands for a documents subject
what is the SSIC for military personnel
1000
what is the SSIC for telecommunications
2000
what is the SSIC for operations and readiness
3000
what is the SSIC for logistics
4000
what is the SSIC code for general administrative
5000
what is the SSIC for Medical and Dental
6000
what is the SSIC for financial
7000
what is the SSIC for ordnance
8000
what is the SSIC for ship design
9000
what is the SSIC for general or Miscellaneous
10000
what is the SSIC for facilities and ashor facility management
11000
what is the SSIC for aeronautical and astronautical
12000
what is the SSIC for coast guard
13000
what is an easy way to remember SSIC
put those open legs around my face or send my friggan check attention coast guard
what is BUMEDINST 54405C
health service augmentation
who approves BSO
surgeon general
how long after checking into a command does it take to be ready s , from an admin view point
30 days
how long after check in are you eligible to deploy
6 months
how long must you wait between deployments
6 months
what is HSS lvl 3
hospital ship
what is HSS lvl 2
construction ship
for marine forces how long does it take to get ready for a routine deployment and how often can they go
5 days to get ready and
every 6 month
for marine forces how long does it take to be surge ready
30 days with 500 beds
for marine force how long does it take to get ready for and emergency surge
120 days with 500 beds
what is NEC 8752
dental lab tech
what is NEC 8753
advanced dental tech
what is the purpose of DEERS
reduce health care fraud
what is NAVMED 6600/5
daily dental appointment
what is NAVMED 6600/6
dental appointment card
what is NAVMED 6600/11
DIRS
what is SF 502
narrative summary
what is SF 509
progress note
what is SF 513
consult sheet
what is SF 515
tissue examination
what is NAVMED 6150/7
pink card, health record receipt
what does a temporary SSN for foreign personnel consist of
800 and then their birthday (mmddyy)
how many bones in the skull
28
at what age do skull bones fuse
5-6 years
what are the salivary glands
bulingal smallest
submandibular walnut sided
parotid largest
what is an abscess
localized collection of puss
what is a cyst
enclosed pouch or sac
what is an ulcer
disruption of skin
what is vesicual
small elevation of fluid
what is pulpalgia
pain in dental pulp
what is pulpitis
inflammation of dental pulp
what is another name for trench mouth
acute necrotizing ulcertive gingivitis
how must clothing of a chemical agent casualty be disposed of
sealed, leak-proof container, downwind at least 75 yards from MTF
what is the quickest form of decon
wile clothing is on
when was biological warfare research ceased
1969
what is the best method of delivery for a biological agent
unconventional
what is the most effective method of delivery for a biological agent
aerosols
what removes salt from water
ROWPU
how much iodine must be used for a canteen
2 tablets
how long must you weight after putting iodine in a canteen to drink
5 minutes and shake then 30 minutes
how often must water be tested
daily
what is the highest a thawing temp can be
80F
what is the shelf life of a MRE
48 months
how far from a water source must trenches be
100ft
how far from a berthing must a trench be
50ft
how far from a water source must you go to bury garbage
100ft
how far from camp can you be to incinerate garbage
50yards
which anthropoid sprays venom
millipede
which anthropoid bites
centipede
where does a blister beetle attack
joints
what is a vector
intermediate host or reservoir
what is OPNAVINST 6250.4
pest management program
what are the sypes of sprays
fine 100-400 microns in diameter
course over 400 microns in diameter
how many eggs can a house fly lay and at what intervals
20eggs at 3-4 day intervals
what can a house fly carry
cholera, and typhoid
which sand flyies bite
females only
what can an eye gnat carry
conjunctivitis
what does a flesh fly look like
3 inch black fly
what types of mosquitoes are there
anopheles, aedes, and culex
what is the most common roach
German, identified by LT stripes
what is the largest roach
American
describe a Norway rat
brown or gray
tail smaller than head and body
burrower
describe a roof rat
gray bellied
climber
tail longer than head and body
how large is a rat guard and where is it placed
36 inches in diameter
6ft from shore and 2ft from boat
what is aerobic waste
with o2
what is gray water
ship generated waste water, like from laundry
what is black water
generated from the human body
waht is effluent
partially treated
what is OPNAVINST 5090.1
environmental and natural resources protection manual
what is NEPMU
naval environmental protection medial unit
how large is a pit privary
10-25 by 15-25
what is a cesspool
covered pit for raw sewage
what is a septic tank
air tight underground storage are for raw sewage
what does primary treatment of raw sewage do
screen, remove large things
where is NEPMU 3
hawaii
where is NEPMU 5
San DIego
what does NAVSEASYSCOM do
designs and constructs water systems
who is called the water king aboard ship
engineering department
what type of water is used for fire mains
seawater
how often is water on-board a ship tested and treated
daily
how much fresh water is required aboard ship per man
2 gallons
new ships carry 50 gallons
how is water tubing sanitized
at 100ppm for 2minutes
who must be informed of any breaks to water line surfaces aboard ships
engineering department
what color cap is used to indicate a water line
blue
must label portable water only
how often does the P & T committee meed
quarterly
what are the schedules for controlled substances
1-5
where are schedule 1 and 2 controlled substances stored
vault
where and schedule 3-5 controlled substances stored
in locked cabinet
how often must controlled substances be inventories ashore; and on ship
shore is monthly
ship is quarterly
who must bad or expired controlled substances be reported to
CO
what is NAVMED P-117
manual of the medical department for fleet marine force
who is ultimately responsible for FMF
commandant
who advices the commandant on health matters
medical officers
what are the 4 FMF categories
op force
reserve
supporting establishment
headquarters
how many basic structures are there in the marine air ground task force
4
what two members of the FMF command team has no command function
force surgeon
force dental officer
how many personnel can be assigned to a battalion aid station
1-2 medical officers
65 HM
how many personnel can be assigned to a squadron medical section
flight surgeon
3-4 HM
what is the H & S company
admin
what does a surgical company consist of
3 operating rooms and 60 beds
what is the smallest and most mobile med battalion
shock trauma platoon
who can inspect HREC
CO
authorized medical inspectors
fleet medical officer
how often are HREC's verified
annually
upon reporting or transfer
at time of physical exam
how are HREC's filed
by groups color coded base on second to last digit of SSN
what is NAVMED 1300/16
report of suitability for overseas
what color is HREC's with 00
orange
what color are HREC's with 10
green
what color are HREC's with 20
yellow
what color are HREC's with 30
gray
what color are HREC's with 40
tan
what color are HREC's with 50
blue
what color are HREC's with 60
white
what color are HREC's with 70
almond/brown
what color are HREC's with 80
pink
what color are HREC's with 90
red
a yellow retired record is from what years
1993, 1999, 2005, 2011
a white retired record is from what year
1994, 2000, 2005, 2012
a green retired record is from what year
1995. 2001. 2006. 2013
a red retired record is from what year
1996, 2002, 2007
a blue retired record is from what year
1997, 2003, 2008
a black retired record is from what year
1998, 2004, 2010
what is NAVMED 6150/20
summary of care
what is NAVMED 1300/1
overseas screening
what is SF 509
medical record progress note
what is DD 2807-1
report of medical history
what is DD 2808
report of medical exam
what is TDRL
temporary duty retired list
how often must TDRL personnel have a physical exam
every 18 months
who do scholarship students end physicals to and when do they do so
BUMED
01OCT the year before they graduate
how long do you have to do a recruit screening
14 days
how close to your EAOS must your separation physical be
6 months
what is DD 2697
report of med assessment
how old must members be to be tested for HCV
over 35
what test check for color blindness
faliant and PIP
what are the medical classes for aviation
1- pilot
2-copilot and aircrew
3-crew not in air
how often must a flight physical be documented
every 5 years until 50
who can do a diving physical
DMO or MO
what are the requirements to be a diver
no older than 35
non smoker
physical every 5 years
what is NAVMED P-5055
radiation health
who has the final say in all medical waivers
BUMED
what is AEC
accountable equipment code
a general AEC is up to what amount
$5000
can be classified or general
what is PPM
personal property manager
how long do you have to find lost equipment
30 days or until end of PM cycle
what must be filled out for lost equipment
DD 200
what is AFC XH
operating and maintenance equipment worth less than $100,000 (expense)
what is AFC MH
operating and maintenance equipment worth $100,000-$250,000 (capital)
what is AFC EH
miscellaneous equipment and anything over $250,000
how accurate must an inventory be
98%
what percent of equipment inventory must be checked quarterly
10%
how often must you do a full inventory inspection of equipment
every 3 years
how long can a temporary loan of equipment be for
less than 60 days
what form must be filled out to transfer equipment
DD 1348-1A
keep for 36 months
what is NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1
Decedent Affairs
what programs fall under decedent affairs, and when are they used
current death- for peacetime
graves registration-temporary grave at military outpost
concurrent death- a mix of first two
return of remains- used if no of the others work
who contacts next of kin in the event of a death and how long do they have to do so
CACO has 24 hours from 0500-1600 only
what is PNOK
primary next of kin
what types of funeral expenses exist
primary - items that touch body (coffin, cloths)
secondary-additional (choir, preacher, flowers)
memorial- no body
what is DA 2386-R
used for spouses to be buried together called agreement of aturnment
if a military member dies with-in _______ of a naval hospital the hospital deals with corpse
40 miles
what is DD 565
statement of recognition
what is SF 503
autopsy protocol
what is SF 523A
disposition of body
what is a notice
a brief one time use directive canceled on the last day of the month
where would you find a notice's cancellation date
2nd paragraph or purpose paragraph
what has the same force as an instruction
a notice
how long do you have to send a intermittent message change
90 days and must be marked urgent
what is the normal urine volume for an adult male
600-2000ml
when is a bag valve mask used
for unconsious patient
with a bag valve mask 5lt of o2 creates what percent of oxygen
50%
what is a 50ft long steel cable called
lifeline
how much can a stokes stretcher carry
1 casualty or 400ibs
in the NFPA 704 labeling system what color indicates reactivity
yellow
what is therapeutic dosed calculated based on
a 24 year old 150Ibs male
what is young's rule
child age/age+12
what is clark's rule
age/150
what are the 6 rights
pt, medication, dose, route, time, and documentation
what is an astringent
causes skin and mucous membrane shrinkage
what is an emmolient used for
makes skin pliant and soft
what was the 1st broad spectrum antibiotic
tetracycline
what is DD 1289
DOD one medication prescription
what is a schedule 1 medication
high abuse potential, prescriptions are 1 use only
what is SF 545
lab report
what are the rules when collecting capillary blood
do not collect parallel to fingerprint
wipe first drop away
what types of lens are used in microscopes
10x, 40x and 100x
what is the normal hemoglobin level for women and men
women 12-16 gram per 100mL
men 14-18 gram per 100mL
what is the normal hematocrit level for men or women
women 37-47% per blood
men 42-52% per blood
what amount of hemoglobin is indicative of anemia
below 7
what is a normal amount of leukocytes
4800-10800
what do bacteria need to grow
temperature, O2, nutrients and moisture
what are the parts of a bacteria's structure
coccus, bacillus, and spirochetes
what does RPR test for
syphilis
what is DOD 6480.4
blood products
what is the marine core order for AMAL/ADAL
4400
how many days worth of blood supplies are carried at any time
60
who coordinates the re-supply of blood products
SIMLM
who does joint ops work through
army
when disposing of materials what must be followed
local laws
burn or bury over 6ft deep
what rules does the Geneva Conviction set for medical supplies
cannot destroy, must abandon unless mixed with other gear
what are the 4 dental treatment zones
static=11-2 oclock a non traffic area
assistant=2-4 oclock
operator=8-11 oclock
transfer=4-8 oclock and from chest to chin
what is the most common type of x-ray
chest
what test uses a bonbardment of atams
MRI
what is Alara's rule
says you must use as low amount of radiation as reasonably achievable
to reduse radiation exposure what do you due
reduce time
increase distance
and add shielding
what is the maximum amount of radiation permissible for a worker; and a pt
worker=500mRem
pt+5000mRem
what is SF 5119
radiological consult
what kVp is used for a normal bone
87
what is the most common type of film processor
automatic
what are the 6 essential nutrients
water, carbs, protein, fan, vitamins, and minerals
after how many consecutive days active duty do you require a separation physical
31
what is BUMEDINST 1300.2
exceptional family member program
what is DD 2807-1
report of medical history
whatis DD 2808
medical exam
what is DD 2697
medical assessment
what is NAVMED 6100/5
medical evaluation board report
what is NAVMED 1300/1
medical/dental and education screening
what is DD 2215
reference audio-gram
what is DD 2216
hearing conservation
what are the dental classes
1-no treatment or re eval for 12 months
2-no expected emergency in 12 months
3-expected emergency in months
4-unkown, in need of exam
what is EZ603
accord of dental treatment
what are 2 most common local anesthetics for dentistry
lidocain and mepicaine 2% each
what is a complex cavity
cavity involving 3 surfaces
BUMEDINST 6260.3
mercury control for dental
what causes a periodental abscess
continued irritation often from brushing too hard
how far from shore must you be to dispose of waste
3 nautical miles
how long must you cleanse a needle stick with water
15min
what are barriers
engineered controls
what is the most common form of fungi
athletes foot
how long does is take to disinfect with waterless hand washing
20sec
what must bio be stored in
a red puncture resistant container
how do you perform a surgical scrub
wash for 30sec from fingertips to 2 inches above elbow
what is another name for a regional anasthesia
a local
where is a saddle block placed
between third and fourth lumbar vertebrae
what is OPNAVINST 16110.1
navy fitness and nutrition
what is the most importent nutrient
water
what do carbohydrates do
provide energy
what is the simplest carb
sugar
what are starches
complex carbs
what is fiber
non digestible and nonessential
your diet should consist of what percent of carbs
40-60%
what are proteins
the bodies building blocks
how many amino acids are in the body
20, 9 of which are essential
what is another name for fats and how much of caloric intake of them is recommended
lipids
20-30%
what are the major minerals
calcium, phosphorus, and sulfur
what are the trace minerals
iron, zinc, iodine, and copper
what is ossen
inorganic mineral salts that give bones strength
what is red marrow
found in long bones
makes red blood cells
what bone is responsible for the sense of smell
ethmoid bone
what is the innominate bone made of
illium, ischium, and pubis
what is abduction
away from body
what does tonicity do
gives muscles firmnes
what is the longest bone
sartorius
what is your total blood volume
5-6 liters
what organ is considered the grave yard where old cells are removed
spleen
what is the normal white blood cell count
6000-8000
what is considered the bodies pacemaker
sinoatrial node, it stimulates the heart to contract
what contracts the heart
junctual fibers
what are the meninges layers
dura mater, arachnoid membrane, and pia matter
how many cranial nerves exist in the PNS
12 pairs
what controls the roof of the mouth, vocal cords, and tone of voice
vagus
what is the master gland of the body
pituitary gland
what is the over production of growth hormones called
acromegaly
what is the last stage of tooth growth
bell stage
what is the apex
tip of each tooth root
what is the bodies hardest tissue
enamel capable of withstanding 100,000 Ibs of pressure
what does dentin look like
light yellow and very porous
what is dental pult
soft tissue
what is a cyst
and enclosed sac
what is OPNAV 5211
record of disclosure
where in the dental record are radiographs kept
part 1
how long can it take to get a response from the freedom of information act
10 days
how many digits in the national stock number (NSN)
13
how many digits in the national item identification number (NIIN)
9
when must a bulkhead to bulkhead be done
annually when accuracy is under 90%
where must you submit AMAL/ADAL changes and who approves them
submit to NAVMEDLOGCOM
approved by TYCOM
what is saggital plane
left and right
what is frontal plane
front and rear
what is transverse plane
top and bottom
what is the position of your hands in anatomical position
at sides with palms facing forward
what is caudal
toward lower end of body
what types of muscular tissue are there
skeletal
smooth
when were sick bays mandated
March 2, 1799
what were the first sick bays called
cockpit
what were HM's first called
lollyboy
when did DT and HM first merge
12 Dec 1947
how many medal of honor recipients have been HMs
22
what is chapter 6 of the HM manual
Dental
what is chapter 15 of the HM manual
medical exam
what is CH 16 of HM manual
medical records
what is CH 21 of HM manual
pharmacy
what is CH 22 of HM manual
preventive medicine
what is a battalion aid station comprised of
2 med officers
up to 65 HM
how many beds in a EMF
500 beds
where are retired records sent
after 31 JAN 1944 to VA
before 31JAN 1944 to NRPC
what is the family prefix for active reserve
12
what is DD 2005
privacy act
what is NAVMED 6150
summary of care
what is DD 771
eyeware prescription
what is SF 558
emergency care
what is SF 600
chronological record
what is SF 513
referral
what is DD 2604
death certificate
what is SF 502
narrative summary
what often accompanies gonoccocal infections
chylmidea
what are some signs of gonoccoal infections
men= purulent discharge
small % asymptomatic
women=mucopurulent carvicitis
discharge and bleeding, continues the reproductive tract
how are gonoccocal infections IDed
through gram strain or culture
pink is negative
what type of HIV is less potent
HIV 2
transmission of HIV from mother to baby during birth is called what
vertical transmission
how long does it take for HIV antibodies to appear
1-3 months
what are common opportunistic diseases with HIV
TB and PCP
what changes HIV to AIDS
<14% of CD4+ T-lyphocytes
what is rotavial enteritis
a sporadic and severe gastrovidus disease for babies causing vomiting, fever, diarrhea, and possibly death
when do children get rotavial enteritis
in first 2-3 years (peak time is 6-24 months)
how long does rotaviral enteritis incubate, and how long does it last
incubates-24-72 hours
lasts- 4-6 days
what causes epidemic viral gastroenteropathy
raw shellfish and poor hand hygiene
what is BUPERINST 6224.8A
tuberculosis control program
what are the rules of LTBI
cannot spread TB
does not feel sick
normal chest x-ray
how often are military members screened for TB
annually
what does PPD stand for
purified protein derivative tuberculm
what do you give if a PPD reads positive
5mg INH for 9 months
B6 to fix liver from INH
who must inform NAVENPVTMEDU of a TB reactor, and how long do they have to do so
CO in 24 hours
how many does of INH can be given if 12 months
270
what are the tests for TB
PPD or Quantiferon
what is BUMEDINST 6280.1
management of infectious waste
what is segregation in waste management
separate and label waste at it's point of origin
after how long does infectious waste need to be refrigerated
7 days
pathogens after 24 hours
how long do you hold infectious waste paperwork
2 years
what is the bleach ratio for infectious waste clean up
1:10
what is the most effective form of sterilization
steam heat
what is the most cost effective form of sterilization
dry heat for 90 min @ 320-345F
how long and what temperature is used for chemical vapor sterilization
20 min @ 270F
what is BUMEDINST 6600.10A
dental infection control
what is asepsis
process of preventing access of microorganisms
what is the use of fluid resistant materials to protect surfaces of personnel called
barrier technique
what is the bowie dick test
test of pre vacum sterilizer's ability to remove air from the chamber
what is a nosocomial infection
originates in the hospital or other pt care facility
what is the only accepted method of cleaning
spray wipe spray
when are needle stick followups done
6 week, 12 week, and 6 months
how often must dental workers receive infection control training
within 90 days of arrival and redone annually
what percent of HIV or HBV pt show no symptoms
80
how long must dental personnel flush lines
beginning of day 1 minute
between patients 30 seconds
how long should a patient rinse there mouth out for
3-10 seconds to remove 97% of mocrobs
what method is used to cap needles
scoop method
how often should a mop be washed and in what
daily in a 1:100 dilution of bleach
who is ultimately responsible for immunizations
CO
are jet injectors authorized
no
how many shots can be given in one day
5
where do record immunization data
EITS
what is SF 601
immunization record
what is VAERS-1
documents adverse immunization reaction lasting more than 24 hours or requiring immunization
what is PHS 731
yellow card
international valid certificates of immunization
what is JEV
Japanese encephalitis vaccine
3 dose series
how long is TDAP good for
10 years
after 5 must get redone is exposed
how many doses is MMR
1
how often must you get a typhoid booster
every 2 years
how long is a yellow fever vaccine good for
10 years
how many doses is anthrax
6
when must you get MMR
if deploying for 15 or more days (not Korea)
what are the types of immunization waivers
administrative and medical
how long is a temporary immunization exemption for a military member
up to 365 days
what is BUMEDINST 4010.3
precious metal recovery
who has responsibility for the precious metal recovery program
DLA
how often must a precious metal recovery program be reviewed by an audit board
semiannually
how must precious metals be packaged
heat sealed in a poly ethlene bag
what type of weight system is used for precious metals
troy
what metals are considered precious
silver, gold, platinum and the platinum family of noble metals
how often must precious metal forms be submitted
quarterly by last day of month
what should a precious metal's document include
metal type, quantity, and location
when was WAVES created
12 JAN 1944
ceremonious glands do what
secrete ear wax
what are the types of bones
long, short, flat, and irregular
how long does it take rigor mortis to set in
10 minutes
how long is the large intestine
5 ft
how long must QA program related documentation be maintianed
5 years
how long must QA inquiries and medical records related to a potentially compensable event (PCE) and Judge Advocate General investications be maintained for
minimum of 2 years or as long as needed thereafter
what does the QA's Clinical Performance Profile provide
a format for compiling and summarizing individual-specific information per reference

it is an internal document
when was the annual assessment of the year's QA program be forwarded by and who is ti forwarded to
15 January

BUMED
a medical record is considered delinquent if all required record components are not completed within how long after discharge
30 days
what is a inpatient acquired infection called
nosocomial infection
what form do you use to report a HIV infection to BUMED
CDC Form 50.42A
what is the instruction for Medical Event Reports
BUMEDINST 6220.12
what is the prefered method for medical event reporting
NDRS software program
how long must NAVENPVNTMEDUs keep all MERs for
5 years
if an operational unit must send an urgent MER by message what should its classification be
unclassified
when must you submit a MERs routine report by
no later than the 1st of each month
how long do you have to submit a urgent MERs report
24 hours
how long do you have to submit a suspected outbreak occurring among military personnel report
24 hours
what is the AQ program instruction
BUMEDINST 6010.13
what is the management of infectious waste inistruction
BUMEDINST 6280.1
how often must employees with occupational exposure to infectious waste receive trainign
upon assignment and annually thereafter
what is the solution used to clean up infectious waste spills
approved disinfectant or a solution of household bleach diluted 1:10 with clear water
what is used to test the steriliztion process of infectious waste
bacillus stearothermophilus spore strips

used weekly
what is the instruction for the health services augmentation Program (HSAP)
BUMEDINST 6440.5
what provides recommendation or nominations for CA, XOs and CMC for navy medical platforms
health services augmentation program
personnel must return from deployment how long before release from active duty or seperation
3 months (90days)
how many personnel are assigns to Casualty Receiving and Treatment Ships
84 personnel each tat provide up to LVL 2 HSS
what level of care can a Expeditionary Medical Facility provide
LVL 3 HSS
what is NAVPERS 1740/6
family care certificate
who is generally responsible for travel and TAD expenses for the duration of an deployment
COCOM (Combatant Commander)
What are the SORTS (Status of Resouces and Trainign System) categories
provide five measures of unit readiness indicating the unit's self reported ability to execute its mission
What is SORTS C1
the unit is capable of undertaking the full wartime mission. It is considered fully mission capable
What is SORTS C2
the unit is capable of undertaking the bulk of its wartime mission. It is considered substantially combat ready with only minor deficiencies reproted
What is SORTS C3
the unit is capable of undertaking a major portion of its wartime mission. While it has major deficiencies, it can still perform its assigned mission
What is SORTS C4
The unit is unable to perform its wartime mission unless it is provided with additional resources or training.
What is SORTS C5
the unit is not able to perform its wartime mission and is not mission capable
how long must you keep dental infection control training paperwork for
3 years
how long and at what temperature of water must contaminated laundry be cleaned
at least 25 minutes with a water temperature of at least 160 degrees fahrenheit
how long does it take to disinfect hands with waterless handwashing agents
20 seconds
when are bead sterilizers used
only for intra-appointment sterilization of clean metallic instruments
what do biological monitors do
assess wheter sterilization actually occurred
what are dosage indicatiors
chemical dyes tat change color when exposed to steam, dry heat, or chemical vapor for specific periods of time
how long is sterilized equipment stored in heat sealed overwrapping good for
180 days (heat sealing extend shelf life by 30 days)
what is the shelf life of something storred in a paper envelope sealed with steriliztion tape
365 days
what is the shelf life of something stored in a double muslin wrap
30 days
what is the shelf life of something stored in a double muslin wrap, plastic covered, heats sealed packet
365 days
what is the shelf life for sterilized equipment wrapped in parchment paper or dennison wrap
30 days
what is the instuction for management and procurement of authorized medical and dental allowance list materiel for fleet units
BUMEDINST 6700.13G
how many days worth of medical supplies are a operational unit required to store
60days
if a supply list revision is over 100,000 cumulatively who must approve it
the chief of naval operations
who must appove equipment replacement of AMAL and ADAL equipment when the cost is $5000 or more
NAVMEDLOGCOM
in cutaneous anthrax how londoes it take to for lesions to develop into depressed black echar
2-6 days
what is the fatality rate of cutaneous anthrax
betweet 5-20%
what is the rarest form of anthrax
intestinal
what color is a positvie anthrax test
methylene blue
what is the incubation period of anthrax
normally 1-7 days, though up to 60 days is possible
what is used to treat cutaneous anthrax
penicillin for 5-7 days
what is used to treat inhalation anthrax
ciprofloxacin or ddoxycycline
how many shots is a postexposure anthrax immuniztion
3 shots; the first immediately then at 2 and 4 weeks after exposure
what is the most common clinical finding in staphylococcal disease
a pus-containing lesion
what is scarlet fever chacaterized by
a skin rash

usually a fine erythema, commonly punctate, blanching on prssure, often felt (like sandpaper) better than seen
what is erysipelas
an acute cellulitis characterized by fefer, constitutional symptoms, leucocytosis, and a red, tender, oedematous spreading lesion of the skin with raised border
how is staphylococcal transmitted
large respiratory droplets or direct contact, rarely indirect contact through objuects
what is the incubation period of staphylococcal
usually 1-3 days
what is the primary drug used to treat staphylococcal infections
penicillin
what is syphilis characterized by initially
primary lesion, a secondary eruption involving kin and mucous membranes, long periods of latency, and late lesions of skin, bone, viscera, the CNS and cardiovascular system
what symbol is used to signify missing teeth
large x on the root of tooth not visible
when signifying which tooth one is talking about where does the numbering start
far right (pt side) of maxilla
in dental what is often refered to as "snake eyes"
double occlusal
what is a supernumerary tooth
extra teeth other than the normal 32
what is SF 522
request for Administration of Anesthesia and for Performance of Operations and Other Procedures
what another kname for dry socket
alveolar osteitis
what is the most common material used for sutures in oral surgery
silk
what is NAVMED 6600/2
periodontal chart
what is the normal curing time for self-curing acrylic dental resins
30 minutes at 20 psi
what is the most frequently used solution for irrigation of the root canal
sodium hypochlorite or common household bleach
what is DD 2322
Dental Laboratory Work Authorization
historically in coflict what percent of hospital admissions have been from combat injuries
20%
who was the first hospital corpsman to be awarded the medal of honor
Robert Stanley