Cv Natops

Front 1

The CV NATOPS Manual is issued under whose authority?

Back 1

CNO

Front 2

What is the nomenclature of the CV NATOPS Manual?

Back 2

NAVAIR 00-80T-105

Front 3

What does “NATOPS” stand for?

Back 3

NAVAL AIR TRAINING OPERATING PROCEDURES STANDARDIZATION

Front 4

Who is responsible for having a complete knowledge of the contents of the CV NATOPS Manual?

Back 4

ALL HANDS

Front 5

Recommended changes to the CV NATOPS Manual can be submitted by whom, and in accordance with what publication?

Back 5

ANYONE, 3710.7 (SERIES)

Front 6

How is revised text identified in the CV NATOPS Manual?

Back 6

BOLD BLACK LINE

Front 7

Define “Shall” as it is used in the CV NATOPS Manual.

Back 7

MANDATORY

Front 8

Define “Should” as it is used in the CV NATOPS Manual.

Back 8

RECOMMENDED

Front 9

Define “May” as it is used in the CV NATOPS Manual.

Back 9

OPTIONAL

Front 10

Define “Will” as it is used in the CV NATOPS Manual.

Back 10

FUTURITY

Front 11

Who is responsible for coordinating all squadron pre-deployment training requirements with the ship?

Back 11

AIR WING COMMANDER

Front 12

Who is responsible for the promulgation and distribution of an Air Operations Manual?

Back 12

COMMANDING OFFICER

Front 13

How often should the Air Operations Manual be reviewed for content accuracy and completeness?

Back 13

ANNUALLY

Front 14

Who is responsible for the promulgation and distribution of an OPORD?

Back 14

AIR WING COMMANDER

Front 15

Who is responsible for providing CATCC with a current NATOPS Flight Manual and Pocket Checklist for each aircraft under his/her command?

Back 15

SQUADRON COMMANDER

Front 16

Who is responsible for ensuring that accurate Bingo Fuel and Foul Deck endurance data is available for each model aircraft being deployed?

Back 16

AIR OPERATIONS OFFICER

Front 17

State the purpose of the Daily Airplan.

Back 17

COORDINATE THE EFFICIENT USE OF PERSONNEL AND EQUIPMENT

Front 18

Who are the two coordinating and scheduling agencies for all flight operations?

Back 18

AIR OPERATIONS & STRIKE OPERATIONS

Front 19

The Daily Airplan is submitted by whom__________________, to who_____________________, via who____________________, for approval signature?

Back 19

STRIKE OPERATIONS, OPERATIONS OFFICER, AIR OPERATIONS OFFICER

Front 20

Who is responsible for ensuring strict conformance to the Daily Airplan?

Back 20

HANDLER

Front 21

Who must approve all changes to the Ordnance Load Plan?

Back 21

STRIKE OPERATIONS

Front 22

Who is responsible for ensuring strict conformance to the Ordnance Load Plan?

Back 22

HANDLER

Front 23

CATCC shall be manned a minimum of how many minutes prior to scheduled flight operations?

Back 23

90 MINUTES

Front 24

Does the Case launch or recovery change the time requirement that CATCC shall be manned prior to flight operations?

Back 24

NO

Front 25

How often is the ships weather observation taken during flight operations?

Back 25

EVERY 30 MINUTES

Front 26

Who is responsible for ensuring that all flight crews have been briefed with enough information to complete their assigned mission?

Back 26

SQUADRON COMMANDING OFFICER

Front 27

How far in advance of a scheduled event shall Air Operations complete a pre-launch brief?

Back 27

2 AND ½ HOURS (150 MINUTES)

Front 28

As per CV NATOPS, what 3 circumstances require a flight crew to file a flight plan?

Back 28

PENETRATE AN ADIZ BOUNDARY, TERMINATE ASHORE, FLY OVER LAND

Front 29

Prelaunch procedures require aviation capable ships to exchange airplans and prelaunch information if the ships will be operating with-in how many miles of each other?

Back 29

10 MILES

Front 30

If 2 aviation capable ships are operating with-in close proximity of each other, and the other ship did not acknowledge an attempt to exchange airplans and pre-launch information, can flight operations continue as scheduled?

Back 30

NO

Front 31

Unscheduled launches and recoveries that are caused by emergency or operational necessity are permissible, but must be coordinated with the _______________as soon as possible because of the inherent danger of combined flight operations.

Back 31

OFFICER IN TACTICAL COMMAND (OTC)

Front 32

Who is responsible to the Air Operations Officer for the safe and orderly flow of passengers, mail, and cargo on and off the carrier via aircraft?

Back 32

AIR TRANSFER OFFICER

Front 33

Who is responsible for the control of airborne aircraft, except when control is assigned to other authority?

Back 33

OPERATIONS OFFICER

Front 34

Who is responsible to the Operations Officer for coordination of all matters pertaining to flight operations and the proper functioning of CATCC?

Back 34

AIR OPERATIONS OFFICER

Front 35

Who is responsible for determining the type of approach and required degree of control to be utilized?

Back 35

AIR OPERATIONS OFFICER

Front 36

Who determines the case launch and/or recovery?

Back 36

AIR OFFICER/BOSS

Front 37

Who is responsible for the visual control of all aircraft operating in the carrier control zone?

Back 37

AIR OFFICER

Front 38

Who is the clearing authority for the carrier control zone?

Back 38

AIR OFFICER

Front 39

Is the Air Officer responsible for the visual control of aircraft operating outside of his area of jurisdiction, if the aircraft have been switched to his control frequency? If so, state when?

Back 39

YES, CASE I/II OR SPECIAL OPERATIONS (BOMBING THE WAKE/SLED)

Front 40

The LSO, under the supervision of the__________________, is responsible for the ___________ control of aircraft in the terminal phase of the approach immediately prior to landing.

Back 40

AIR OFFICER, VISUAL

Front 41

All signals given by the LSE are advisory with the exception of___________________and _________________, which in all cases are mandatory.

Back 41

WAVE-OFF & HOLD

Front 42

As directed by OPNAINST 3710.7 series, who is responsible for the safe and orderly conduct of the flight?

Back 42

PILOT

Front 43

Who is responsible for the mission control of all aircraft assigned to him, and is additionally responsible for ensuring that controllers know their responsibility for traffic advisories and safe separation of aircraft operating in visual / instrument conditions?

Back 43

COMBAT DIRECTION CENTER OFFICER

Front 44

What is the most prominent factor considered when determining the type of departure and / or recovery?

Back 44

WEATHER

Front 45

State the 3 types of departure and recovery operations.

Back 45

CASE I, II, III

Front 46

Who, unless otherwise specified by higher authority, determines which case launch and / or recovery will be exercised?

Back 46

AIR OFFICER

Front 47

State the weather minimums for conducting case I operations.

Back 47

3000/5

Front 48

State the weather minimums for conducting case II operations.

Back 48

1000/5

Front 49

State the weather minimums for conducting case III operations.

Back 49

LESS THAN 1000/5

Front 50

State the 4 degrees of control.

Back 50

POSITIVE, ADVISORY, MONITOR, NON-RADAR

Front 51

Under what 5 conditions shall positive control be utilized?

Back 51

FIXED WING LESS THAN 1000/5, HELICOPTER LESS THAN 500/1, ALL FLIGHT OPERATIONS AT NIGHT, DURING MANDATORY LETDOWN IN THUNDERSTORMS, OTHER SITUATIONS AS SUPERVISORS DICTATE

Front 52

Define Advisory control.

Back 52

CONTROL SHALL BE UTILIZED ADJACENT OCEANIC CONTROL AREAS/ROUTES DURING VMC. PILOT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR SEPARATION.

Front 53

Define monitor control.

Back 53

CONTROL SHALL BE UTILIZED DURING VMC OUTSIDE OF CONTROLLED AIRSPACE. PILOT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR SEPARATION.

Front 54

Define non-radar control.

Back 54

CONTROL SHALL BE UTILIZED WHEN SHIPBOARD RADARS ARE INOPERATIVE/SEVERELY DEGRADED.

Front 55

In accordance with NWP 16, NWP 10-4-40, effective operating orders, and other governing directives. Who is responsible for EMCON?

Back 55

OPERATIONS OFFICER

Front 56

Define EMCON.

Back 56

EMMISSIONS CONTROL

Front 57

Define HERO.

Back 57

HAZARDS OF ELECTROMAGNETIC RADIATION TO ORDNANCE

Front 58

Who is responsible for setting the proper HERO conditions for the control of radar and radio emissions while handling ordnance susceptible to RF energy?

Back 58

OPERATIONS OFFICER

Front 59

Who shall establish procedures for alerting flight deck ordnance personnel when the appropriate HERO conditions have been set?

Back 59

Air Officer

Front 60

If the COD is unable to establish communications prior to arriving on station, what will the pilot do?

Back 60

Return to Base

Front 61

What is the minimum RPM that a radar must rotate in excess of to be acceptable for an ASR Approach?

Back 61

7 RPM

Front 62

State the minimum lateral separation between aircraft operating 50 miles or more from the monitoring antenna?

Back 62

5 miles

Front 63

State the minimum lateral separation between aircraft operating less than 50 miles from the monitoring antenna?

Back 63

3 miles

Front 64

State the minimum lateral separation between aircraft established on final within 5 miles.

Back 64

1 1/2 miles

Front 65

State the minimum lateral separation between aircraft being provided positive control with radars that do not rotate in excess of 7 RPM?

Back 65

5 miles

Front 66

State the minimum lateral separation between aircraft being provided non radar control utilizing a published approach.

Back 66

2 minutes 5 miles

Front 67

State the vertical separation between jet and turboprop aircraft operating at altitude up to and including FL290.

Back 67

1,000 feet

Front 68

Vertical separation may be reduced to _________ feet when inside of _________ miles?

Back 68

800 feet, 10 miles

Front 69

State the minimum vertical separation between aircraft operating above FL290.

Back 69

2000 feet

Front 70

State the minimum vertical separation between helicopters.

Back 70

500 feet

Front 71

True/False: Unless dictated otherwise in FLIP Planning, Carrier based aircraft shall fly MSL altitudes below 18,000 feet MSL, and Flight levels at and above 18,000 feet MSL.

Back 71

True

Front 72

All aircraft are considered under _________ communication control while operating at sea unless otherwise directed.

Back 72

positive

Front 73

True/False: Pilots shall shift frequencies with out notifying and/or obtaining permission from the controlling agency?

Back 73

False

Front 74

True/False: Communication procedure during ZIPLIP/EMCON conditions shall be specified during preflight briefing?

Back 74

True

Front 75

State the agency that has primary control of the listed frequencies:

Air Tactical

CCA

Aircraft guard

Land/Launch

Ship-shore air traffic control administrative

Back 75

CDC, CATCC, CDC, PRIMARY, CATCC

Front 76

State the agency that has secondary control of the listed frequencies:

Aircraft Guard

Air Tactical

Ship-Shore ATC administrative

Land/Launch

Departure Control and Final

Back 76

CATCC & PRIMARY

CATCC

CDC

CATCC

PRIMARY

Front 77

True/False: The ships callsign shall not be used on initial contach with Marshal?

Back 77

False

Front 78

True/False: CATCC shall ensure that Prifly frequencies are recorded during Case I/Case II operations.

Back 78

True

Front 79

True/False: Radio circuits used for the control of air traffic shall be recorded continuously during hour of operation.

Back 79

True

Front 80

Define EEFI

Back 80

ESSENTIAL ELEMENTS OF FRIENDLY INFORMATION

Front 81

True/False: E-5 and above peronnel who have access to radio equipment must be briefed that certain restrictions exist on all radio transmissions to prevent disclosure of EEFIs to the enemy.

Back 81

False

Front 82

From a control standpoint, aircraft emergencies fall into which three broad categories?

Back 82

Communication, Navigation, other

Front 83

The initial control responsibility for aircraft emergencies rests with whom?

Back 83

Controlling Agency at the time emergency occurs

Front 84

Who will notmally control aicraft in a state of emergency within visual range of the ship?

Back 84

Air Officer

Front 85

Who shall control aircraft in a state of emergency, outside visual range of the ship?

Back 85

CDC/CATCC

Front 86

Are aircraft in distress requried to change radio frequencies if satisfactory radio contact is established?

Back 86

No

Front 87

What "mode" of transponder is used to squawk "emergency beacon codes"?

Back 87

Mode III

Front 88

Emergency Squawk code is?

Back 88

7700

Front 89

Lost Communication squawk is?

Back 89

7600

Front 90

Hi-jack squawk code is?

Back 90

7500

Front 91

"HEFOE" Squawks are broadcast on what mode of transponder?

Back 91

Mode I

Front 92

What does each letter of "HEFOE" stand for?

Back 92

Hydraulic, Electrical, Fuel, Oxygen, Engine

Front 93

List in order, what digit would be used in the first digit position to indicate a "HEFOE" condition.

Back 93

0=Okey, 1=Hydraulic, 2=Electrical, 3=Fuel, 4=Oxygen, 5=Engine

Front 94

List what digit would be used in the second digit position, and what it indicates.

Back 94

0=No radio reception Pals; 1=No radio reception (TACAN Okay); 2=No radio reception (ADF Okay); 3=Radio Reception Okay (No NAVAIDS)

Front 95

What emergency code is to be used when squawking a HEFOE code?

Back 95

7700

Front 96

List the 3 Assistance required squawks and what they indicate.

Back 96

70=Desire Tanker to Join, 71=Intend Bingo; 72=Desire Aircraft to Assist

Front 97

All 3 assistance required squawks indicate what?

Back 97

No reciever/No NAVAIDs

Front 98

When squawking assistance require squawk, what is the mode 3 squawk used to indicate?

Back 98

Fuel on Board

Front 99

List the 3 limited communication squawks and what they indicate.

Back 99

60=Auxiliary receive (ADF Channel __); 61=No NAVAIDs (recieve on channel ___); 62=TACAN Okay (Receive on channel___).

Front 100

When squawking a limited communications squawk, what is the mode 3 squawk used to indicate.

Back 100

Channel Useable

Front 101

True/False: Limited communications squawks require a 1 minute cycling of mode 3 from emergency code to desired indication?

Back 101

True

Front 102

Who will normally be responsibe for controlling plane guard efforts when they are within sight of the ship?

Back 102

Air Officer

Front 103

Who will normally control plane guard efforts outside of visual contact of the ship?

Back 103

CDC/CATCC

Front 104

Who is normally responsible as the ships overall plane guard coordinator?

Back 104

CDC Officer

Front 105

True/False: A switch to a discrete plane guard frequency will be made only when directed by the controlling agency.

Back 105

True

Front 106

During recovery of aircraft with forward firing ordnance, the plane guard helicopter shall not be positioned where?

Back 106

Forward of the island

Front 107

Describe the Starboard holding pattern for Helicpoters.

Back 107

045-110, 300 feet and below, 3-5 miles wide (no closer than 1 mile), right hand pattern

Front 108

A helicopter, when designated primary plane guard, shall be under the operational control of who during launches and recoveries?

Back 108

Air Officer

Front 109

Who is responsible for providing the plane guard helicopter with updates to the BRC, and all course changes, during case II or III opertions or advisory control?

Back 109

CATCC

Front 110

Updates to the BRC and all course changes shall be provided on a frequency monitored by whom?

Back 110

Primary Flight Control

Front 111

CATCC shall conduct a radio check with the plane guard helicopter during which case of operation?

Back 111

Case III

Front 112

At what time interval does CATCC contuct a radio check with the plane gurad helicopter during Case III operations?

Back 112

Every 20 Minutes

Front 113

True/False: Concurrent USW/plane guard helicopter operations may be conducted provided a responsive plane guard capability is maintained during launch and recovery.

Back 113

True

Front 114

For concurrent operations during launch and recovery, the designated SAR helicopter is "on station" ___________________NM (day, or ______________NM (night) of the carrier.

Back 114

20 day, 10 night

Front 115

True/False: During CQ landings, the plane guard helicopter shall remain in the Starboard holding pattern?

Back 115

False

Front 116

During launch/recovery, NO concurrent USW/plane guard operations shall be conducted within __________________ mile(s) of the ship without the explicit approval of the air officer? (no radial restrictions)

Back 116

Within 1 mile of the ship

Front 117

Forward of the ship, during launch/recovery, NO concurrent USW/plane guard operations shall be conducted within ________ mile(s) of the ship without the explicit approval of the air officer between what two radials? (list the mileage and radials)

Back 117

between the 340-020 radials, 5 to 10 miles at or below 200 feet

Front 118

Aft of the ship, during launch/recovery, NO concurrent USW/plane guard operations shall be conducted within _________ mile(s) of the ship without the explicit approval of the air officer between what two radials? (list the mileage and radials)

Back 118

020 to 150 radials, at or below 400 feet, 150 to 340 radials at or below 300 feet

Front 119

With the exception of the protected area forward of the ship, concurrent operations outside of 5 NM may be conducted at what altitude(s), between what radials? (list all radials/altitudes to complete the circle around the ship out to 5 NM)

Back 119

020 to 340, 400 feet and belwo, 340 to 020 at or belwo 200 feet

Front 120

For plane guard helicopter restrictions, at what mileage does the altitude restriction for helicopter plane guards no longer apply?

Back 120

10 miles

Front 121

How many minutes prior to flight time are flight crews requried to man their aircraft?

Back 121

45 minutes

Front 122

True/False: The ATO or his assistant are not required to be present prior to the offload of any cargo or passengers from the COD.

Back 122

False

Front 123

Who is responsible for providing vectors to an aircraft, which is having an emergency after launch during a night/IMC departure?

Back 123

Departure Control

Front 124

True/False: If an aircraft is experiencing an emergency after launch during a night/IMC departure, every effort shall be made to retain an aircraft on the departure frequency until safely abourd.

Back 124

True

Front 125

True/False: Aircraft experiencing emergencies after launch, which do not require immediate recovery will continue normal departure procedures and be given positive control until either recovered or diverted.

Back 125

True

Front 126

Briefly describe a condition I fixed wing aircraft posture.

Back 126

spotted on the cat, pilot in aircraft, all equipment ready for immediate launch

Front 127

Briefly describe a condtition 2 fixed wing aircraft posture.

Back 127

spotted on the cat, pilot at flight deck level, all equipment ready for immediate launch

Front 128

Briefly describe a condition 3 fixed wing aircraft posture.

Back 128

Flight crews in ready rooms, equipment immediately available

Front 129

What is the difference between fixed wing condition 3 and condition 4?

Back 129

minor maintenance may be performed

Front 130

Briefly describe a condition 1 helicopter aircraft posture.

Back 130

Blades spread, ready for immediate launch, crew in aircraft

Front 131

Briefly describe a condition 2 helicopter aircraft posture.

Back 131

blades spread, ready for immediate launch, crew in ready room

Front 132

Briefly describe a condition 3 helicopter aircraft posture.

Back 132

blades folded, crew standby in designated location

Front 133

What is the difference between helicopter condition 3 and condition 4?

Back 133

minor maintenance may be performed

Front 134

Primary responsibility for adherence to the assinged departre rests with whom?

Back 134

pilot

Front 135

Advisory control in normally exercied on departure, state the reasons that a shift to positive control would be required.

Back 135

Weather conditions, upon request, or assigned departure is not being adhered to

Front 136

Departure radials are based on the use of ________ for providing lateral separation.

Back 136

TACAN

Front 137

The minimum standard separation of departure radials under instrument conditions is _____ degrees.

Back 137

20 degrees

Front 138

Assignemtn of departure radials is normally dependent on what 4 factors?

Back 138

Mission, number of carriers, topographical features, radials reserved for emergencies/letdown

Front 139

True/False: Direct routing will be utlized as much as possible in order to lesson delay time in the execution of departures

Back 139

True

Front 140

True/False: Aircraft shall normally launch on the departure frequency that shall be monitored by the tower.

Back 140

True

Front 141

True/False: Conditon/CAP launches will be a frequency designated by CATCC and monitored by the tower and CDC.

Back 141

False

Front 142

Where single frequency departures are not possible, single piloted aircraft shall not be required to change radio frequencies or IFF codes after launch until at least ___________ feet of alititude.

Back 142

2,500

Front 143

Single piloted aircraft assigned operational altitudes below __________ feet, shall not change frequencies or IFF codes until _______________.

Back 143

2,500; straight and level flight

Front 144

True/False: Guard channel shall be montiored at all times while on a single frequency departure.

Back 144

True

Front 145

What are the 7 commonly used voice reports on departure?

Back 145

Airborne, passing 2.5, arcing, outbound, popeye, on-top, kilo

Front 146

Whe n in IMC, _______ will be a mandatory report for departing aircraft passing ___________ (or assigned altitude if lower) if not on top.

Back 146

popeye (FL180)

Front 147

If an aircraft looses communications during departure, in VMC condiditons, what can the aircraft be expected to do?

Back 147

Return overhead and await for join-up

Front 148

If an aircraft looses communications during departure, if on top/IMC, what can the aircraft be expected to do?

Back 148

Proceed to emergency marshal and commence at EEAT

Front 149

Describe the departure procedure an aircraft can be expected to do in the event of lost communications and a loss of TACAN DME on departure.

Back 149

Continue with departure, DR to 50 miles, reverse course, proceed inbound on departure radial at emergency marshal altitude, entering overhead holding, conserve fuel, be alert for join-up and commence at EEAT

Front 150

Describe the departure procedures for an aircraft experiencing lost communications on departre if the aircraft still has good azimuth and good TACAN DME.

Back 150

Continue with departure, proceed to 50 miles, commence left hand holding between 40 to 50 miles, hold for 30 minutes, proceed incound at emergency marshal assigned altitude, arc shortest distance to emergency marshal fix, commence at EEAT.

Front 151

State the procedures to be followed by a Helicopter experiencing lost communications, and requiring immediate landing.

Back 151

Remain at or belwo 300 feet, arc to starboard delta then fly close aboard starboard side, landing and flood lights on, if electrical failure (red flare to see with)

Front 152

State the procedures to be followed by a helicopter experiencing lost communications, and not requireing recovery until the next scheduled recovery.

Back 152

Remain at or below 300 feet, arc to starboard delta then fly or hover on starboard side, navigation and anti-collision light on

Front 153

State the minimum ceiling and visibility requirements for conducting case I flight operations

Back 153

3000/5

Front 154

State the lowest ceiling and visibility required for conducting case II flight operations.

Back 154

1000/5

Front 155

State the conditions that would require flight operations to be conducted utilizing case III procedures.

Back 155

less than 1000/5, all night time operations

Front 156

Describe the case I departure procedure for a jet aircraft.

Back 156

clearing turn, 500 feet, paralleling the BRC until 7 miles then cleared to climb

Front 157

Describe the case I departure procedures for a turbo prop aircraft.

Back 157

clearing turn, 500 feet, paralleling the BRC until 7 miles then cleared to climb

Front 158

Describe the case II departure procedures for a jet aircraft.

Back 158

clearing turn, 500 feet, parelling the BRC, 7 miles turn to intercept 10 mile arc to assigned departure radial, clear to climb at 7 if VMC (maintain 300 knots until VMC on top)

Front 159

Describe the case II departure procedures for a turbo prop aircraft.

Back 159

clearing turn, 500 feet, parelling the BRC, 6 miles turn to intercept 7 mile arc to assigned departure radial, maintain 500 feet till 12 miles

Front 160

Describe the case III departure procedures for a turbo prop aircraft.

Back 160

Straight ahead, accelerating to 300 knots, cross 5 miles at or above 1,500 feet at 7 miels turn to intercept 10 mile arc to assigned departure radial

Front 161

Describe the case III departure procedures for a turbo prop aircraft.

Back 161

straight ahead, accelerated to 250 when level, 5 miles to intercept 7 mile arc to assigned departuer radial, maintain 1,000 feet til 12 miles

Front 162

Describe the case II departure procedure for a COD.

Back 162

straight ahead, 500 feet until 12 miles

Front 163

Describe the case III departure procedures for a COD.

Back 163

straight ahead, 1,000 feet until 12 miles

Front 164

Describe the case I depature procedures for a Helicopter.

Back 164

as tower directs

Front 165

Describe the case II departure procedures for a Helicopter.

Back 165

As tower directs

Front 166

Describe the case III departure procedures for a helicopter.

Back 166

300 feet, arc within 3 miles to the assigned departure radial, commence climb outside of 12 miles

Front 167

Describe case I fixed wing rendezvous.

Back 167

In accordance with air wing doctrine

Front 168

Describe case II fixed wing rendezvous.

Back 168

Between 20 and 50 miles, left side of departure radial, at pre-briefed altitude.

Front 169

Describe case III fixed wing rendezvous.

Back 169

between 20 and 50 miles, left side of departrue radial, at a pre-briefed altitude

Front 170

Describe the procedures to be followed if a departing aircraft encounter IMC at their departure altitude.

Back 170

Report passing FL180, then the departure controller shall assigne aircraft altitude to ensure separation

Front 171

When in VMC, inbound aircraft that were unable to check into strike, mission, or marshal control because of communications difficulties can be expected to proceed inbound how?

Back 171

Maintain VMC, join-up if possible, enter landing pattern, squawk 7600, watch for light signals (pilot should broadcast his intentions in the blind periodically)

Front 172

When in IMC, inbound aircraft that were unable to check into strike, mission, or marshal control because of communications difficulties can be expected to proceed inbound how?

Back 172

transition to VMC, proceed to emergency marshal, squawk 7600, watch for join-up, commence approach at EEAT (pilot should broadcast his intentions in the blind periodically)