Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
505 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
The motherboard form factor describes the physical size and layout of the motherboard, its power supply, connected components, and computer case.
|
AT (Advanced Technologies) and baby AT form factors were the most popular until 1997.
|
|
|
The AT motherboard is 12" X 13" and the baby AT motherboard is 9" X 10".
|
In 1987, Western Digital introduced the LPX (Low Profile Extension) motherboard form factor.
|
|
|
Intel redesigned the LPX form factor an dnamed it NLX (InteLex).
|
The ATX motherboard form factor was designed to solve problelms associated with the baby AT form factor.
|
|
|
The ATX motherboard is 12" X 9.6". The mini AX is typically 11.2" X 8.2".
|
ATX form factor:
Connections to the physical serail and parallel ports are integrated on the motherboard. |
|
|
ATX from factor:
Uses a 20-pin keyed plastic power supply connector. |
ATX form factor:
Integrated PS/2 mouse connector. |
|
|
ATX form factor:
PS/2 mouse ports are color coded green |
ATX form factor:
The keyboard on a PS/2 system is color coded purple |
|
|
The ATX form factor offers easier access to components and offers more room for additional components.
|
The ATX form factor supports 3.3V power from the ATX power supply.
|
|
|
The ATX form factor offers "soft switch" power support which enables you to use power management utilities.
|
ATX form factor:
The CPU is moved closer to teh power supply for better air circulation and cooling. |
|
|
Most AT form factors use 5-pin DIN keyboard connectors.
|
The ATX form factor uses 6-pin mini DIN (PS/2) keyboard connectors.
|
|
|
The PS/2 keyboard connector is identical to the PS/2 mouse connector.
|
Motherboards uses jumpers to configure certain onboard settings which include the clock speed.
|
|
|
The MicroATX form factor offers all the functionality, the same poer connectors, uses similar mounting pin structure, and supports the same chipsets as the ATX.
|
The MicroATX form factor is backward compatible with ATX.
|
|
|
The MicroATX form factor has a maximum size of 244mm X 244mm.
|
The FlexATX form factor is interchangeable with MicroATX and ATX chassis.
|
|
|
The FlexATX motherboards can be no larger than 9.0" X 7.5". It is the smallest ATX form factor.
|
Intel developed the BTX (Balanced Technollogy Extended) to alleviate some of the heat related problems and restraints caused by newer graphics cards, processors, heat sinks, and other components.
|
|
|
The BTX form factor has a lower profile design than the ATX, a more efficient thermal design, and a better overall structural design.
|
CPUs are installed on motherboards in either a socket or slot design.
|
|
|
Socket designs are made for PGA (Pin Grid Array) or SPGA (Staggered Pin Grid Array) chip packages.
|
PGA sockets are known as ZIF (Zero Insertion Force) sockets.
|
|
|
Socket 7:
Pentium (75MHz) MMX X86 Cyrix MLL AMD K-5 AMD K-6 |
Socket 8:
Pentium Pro |
|
|
Socket 370:
Pentium III PGA Celeron PGA |
Socket 423:
Pentium 4 (423-pin Willamette) Pentium Northwood Celeron Willamette |
|
|
Socket 478:
Secon-Gen. Pentium 4 (478-pin Northewood) Willamette Celeron Family (478-pin Northwood) |
The MicroATX form factor offers all the functionality, the same poer connectors, uses similar mounting pin structure, and supports the same chipsets as the ATX.
|
|
|
The MicroATX form factor is backward compatible with ATX.
|
The MicroATX form factor has a maximum size of 244mm X 244mm.
|
|
|
The FlexATX form factor is interchangeable with MicroATX and ATX chassis.
|
The FlexATX motherboards can be no larger than 9.0" X 7.5". It is the smallest ATX form factor.
|
|
|
The BTX form factor features a lower profile design than the ATX, a more efficient thermal design, and an overall better architectural design.
|
.
|
|
|
Socket 479:
Pentium M (Banias and Dothan Cores) Celeron M (Banias and Dothan Cores) |
Sockets 603 and 604:
Intel Xeon processors based on Northwood and Willamette P4 cores. |
|
|
Socket A:
AMD Athlon PGA AMD Duron AMD Athlon XP Sempron |
Socket M:
Intel Processors based on Yonah core. |
|
|
Socket 754:
Low-end AMD 64 (single channel memory support) Low-end Sempron (single channel memory support) |
Socket T\\LGA 775:
Pentium 4 and Celeron based on Northwood, Prescott, Conroe, Kentsfield, and Cedar Mill cores. |
|
|
Socket 939:
AMD athlon 64 AMD Athlon 64 FX AMD Athlon 64 X2 AMD Opteron (All with dual-channel memory support) |
Socket 940:
AMD Opteron First AMD Athlon FX processors |
|
|
Socket AM2:
Sempron AMD Athlon 64 AMD Athlon 64 X2 AMD Athlon 64 FX AMD Opteron |
Socket F:
AMD Opteron Higher-end AMD Athlon 64 FX |
|
|
Slot 1:
Pentium II Pentium III SEC Celeron SEP |
Slot A:
AMD Athlon SEC |
|
|
Slot 2:
Pentium II Xeon Pentium III Xeon |
Socket 7:
321 Pin Holes (19 X 19) SPGA ZIF Socket |
|
|
Socket 8:
387 Pin Holes (24 X 26) MSPGA ZIF Socket |
Socket A:
453 Pin Holes (19 X 19) SPGA ZIF Socket |
|
|
Slot 1:
242 Leads SEC Slot |
Slot A:
242 Leads SEC Slot |
|
|
Slot 2:
330 Leads SEC Slot |
Socket 423:
423 Pinholes PPGA |
|
|
Socket 478:
478 Pinholes PPGA FC-PGA2 |
The amount of electricity moving accross a wire is the current. The current is measured in amps.
|
|
|
DC (Direct Current) is when the flow of electricity is in one direction.
|
AC (Alternating Current) is when the flow of electricity is bidirectional.
|
|
|
Resistance is a measure of how much an object holds back the flow of current. Resistance is measured in ohms.
|
Voltage is a measure of the pressure on electrons as they are being pushed through a medium.
|
|
|
Wattage is the amount of work that an electrical current is capable of performing.
|
The main function of your computer's power supply is to convert AC to DC. It converts the typically 110V AC to the +5V, -5V, +12V, -12V DC current that the motherboard and its components require.
|
|
|
A Digital Multimeter is a usefull tool to test the voltage coming from the power supply.
|
In older motherboard form factors accept the P8 and P9 connectors from the power supply. When connecting to the motherboard, the black ground wires must be next to each other.
|
|
|
When testing a fuse with a digital multimeter, a good fuse will measure a resistance of 0 ohms. A bad fuse will measure a resistance of infinity ohms.
|
I an online UPS, the battery is contained in a circuit.
In a standby UPS, the battery is nnot contained in a circuit. A line-interactive UPS has the best characteristics of the online and standby UPSs. |
|
|
Alaser printer should never be plugged into a UPS.
|
Surge protectors protect devices from transient voltage or "spikes".
|
|
|
An ESD strap contains a resistor. NEVER use an ESD strap when workig on a monitor.
|
Cleaning:
Use special vacuum that does not generate ESD. |
|
|
Cleaning:
Dip ROM media into a diluted cleaning solution and let air dry. |
Cleaning:
Use condensed air and a small brush to clean the inside of a computer. |
|
|
Clean the circuit board with a contact cleaning solution.
|
EMI is caused when wires are too close to each other or when the wires cross each other.
|
|
|
APW extinguishers should never be used for chemical or electrical fire.
|
Computer related electrical fires should be extinguished with extinguishers rated for class "C" fires.
|
|
|
Dry Chemical, CO2, Halon, and FM-200 are good extinguishers for computer related fires.
|
MSDSs are documents created and posted in work areas that specifies a set of guidlines regarding the proper handling, transporting, storing, and dispozing of hazardous materials and chemicals. Most contain information regarding first aid treatment.
|
|
|
CMOS (Complimentary Metal Oxide Semiconductor) is backed by a CMOS battery.
|
CMOS memory can be flashed.
|
|
|
CMOS is read by the system BIOS at startup.
|
If the CMOS battery begins to loose some of its charge, a "CMOS checksum" error may appear at startup.
|
|
|
You can change the system settings by pressing F2 or Delete during boot-up. You can change settings such as system setup, password, system date and time, boot sequence, parallel port settings, com/serial ports, hard drive type and size, memory, floppy drive, and plug-and-play options.
|
The system BIOS service is mad up of a group of tiny programs that control input and output services to devices internal to teh computer.
|
|
|
BIOS is usually stored in a ROM chip that is soldered to the motherboard. Newer BIOSs come in the form of flash ROM.
|
The major manufacturers of BIOS are Pheonix, Award, and AMI.
|
|
|
PROM (Programmable ROM) is a BIOS chip that cannot be changed.
|
EPROM (Erasable PROM) BIOS chips are erasable. It has a little window that is used to shine an ultraviolet light through to erase the contents.
|
|
|
EEPROM BIOS chips can be elecctronically erased and written to by applying ahigher voltage to one of its pins.
|
PnP was introduced with Windows 95.
|
|
|
There are 3 requirements to meet the PnP standard: PnP hardware, PnP BIOS, and PnP OS.
|
PnP BIOS autodetects PnP devcies connected to the system, checks an ESCD db on the CMOS chip for available resources, and then assigns resources to the device.
|
|
|
PnP settings are configured in the BIOS under the Advanced Settings option. Legacy and non-PnP devices are normally configured first.
|
OSes that are PnP compliant:
Windows 9.X Windows ME Windows 2000 Windows XP Windows Vista |
|
|
POST is a self-diagnostic program that runs tests on RAM, I/O devices, and the CPU on system startup.
|
POST is stored in ROM BIOS.
|
|
|
POST needs at least a processor, memory, and a video adapter to complete its test.
|
Common POST error codes:
1XX - System Board error 201 - Memory error 301 - Keyboard error 5XX - Monitor error 601 - Floppy Drive/Adapter error 1101 - Serial Card error 1701 - Hard Drive Controller error |
|
|
Common IBM POST beep codes:
No Beep - Motherboard or power failure 1 Short Beep - POST completed successfully 2 Short Beeps - POST error 1 Long Beep, 1 Short Beep - Motherboard error 1 Long Beep, 2 Short Beeps - Video Adapter failed 1 Long Beep, 3 Short Beeps - Video Adapter error 3 Long Beeps - Keyboard failure |
Expansion buses are slots located on the motherboard, developed with different architectures that accept integrated circuit boards (expansion cards).
|
|
|
Most motherboards use AGP, PCI, and ISA slots.
|
ISA slots:
8 or 16 bits 8 or 8.33 MHz |
|
|
EISA slots:
32 bits Supports PnP & bus mastering ISA slot compatible |
VL-Bus slot:
32 bits Supports Bus Mastering Compatible with ISA |
|
|
MCA slot:
16 or 32 bits Supports PnP &Bus Mastering Older proprietary architecture |
PCI slots:
32 bits Supports PnP & Bus Mastering Supports Burst Mode Uses a host bridge to communicate with other expansion slots |
|
|
PCI-2 slots:
64 bits Supports PnP & Bus Mastering PCI slot compatible |
PCI-X slots:
64 bits Supports PnP & Bus Mastering PCI slot compatible Replaced by PCI-e |
|
|
PCI-e slots:
8 Gbps (x32) Supports PnP Replaces most PCI, PCI-X, and AGP |
AGP slots:
32 or 64 bits Designed for accelerated graphics and video processing |
|
|
Most of the motherboards on the market today implement a PCI 32-bit bus that runs at 33MHz.
|
Prior to the PCI expansion bus technology, PCs used the much larger (and slower)
EISA and VLB expansion slots. |
|
|
A PCI 64-bit bus runs at clock speeds of 33 and 66 MHz and has a throughput rate of up to 133 MBps.
|
A PCI 64-bit bus uses double 32-bit PCI cycles called Dual Address Cycle (DAC), which allows a 64-bit PCI bus to access up to 17 billio gigabytes of memory space.
|
|
|
PCI-X was developed by HP, IBM, and Compaq to replace the generic PCI.
|
PCI-X doubles the data bus throughput rate therefore doubling the transfer rate.
|
|
|
PCI-e uses serial links called "lanes".
|
PCI-e version 1.1 supports x1, x2, x4, x8, x16, and x32 lanes.
Each of these lanes carry 250 MBps in each direction, making it a dual simplex link that is able to transmit and receive signals over a single lane at the same time. |
|
|
PCI-e is not compatible with the PCI bus.The PCI-e connectors and voltage requirements differ from the PCI standard.
|
Mini PCI is a bus version made specifically for laptops.
|
|
|
Mini PCI supports bus mastering and DMA.
|
Mini PCI use a 32-bit, 33MHz bus.
|
|
|
The 3 Mini PCI form factors are Type I, Type II, and Type III cards. Type I and II use a 100 pin stacking connector. The Type III form uses a 124-pin edge connector.
|
The AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) design offered a faster and clearer display of graphical images such as 3D and video.
|
|
|
AGP technology works on its own point-to-point dedicated channel and allows a graphic's controller to directly access computer's RAM to provide faster production of images.
|
AGP technology uses memory dynamically which means that when it is not using the memory, the memory is restored to the OS for other purposes.
|
|
|
AGP comes in different acceleration speeds: 2x, 4x, and 8x.
|
AGP Specification revision 2.0 defines interfaces supporting AGP 1x and 2x.
|
|
|
AGP Specifiction 3.0 defines AGP 4x and 8x technology.
|
AGP 8x technology is able to deliver more than 2.1 GB.
|
|
|
Today's fastest graphics card operate over the PCI-e bus.
|
AGP 1x:
66 MHz Maximum data rate of 266 MBps |
|
|
AGP 2x:
133 MHz Maximum data rate of 533 MBps |
AGP 4x:
266 MHz Maximum data rate of 1,066 MBps |
|
|
AGP 8x:
533 MHz Maximum data rate of 2.133 MBps |
USB is a serial bus PnP architecture that uses the PCI bus to communicate between the CPU and memory.
|
|
|
USB 1.0 offers speeds up to 12 Mbps.
|
USB 2.0 offers speeds up to 480 Mbps.
|
|
|
USB allows the user to attach many low-speed devices to a computer without the need for an expansion card.
|
Devices such as mice, keyboards, printers, and CD-ROMs have been designed with their own built-in controllers that accept the USB standard.
|
|
|
You can connect up to 127 peripheral devices to a system with the use of one USB port which only requires the use of one IRQ.
|
USB supports up to 127 devices and is used as a high-speed interface to attach peripheral devices such as cameras, printers, and scanners to a computer system.
|
|
|
PCI riser cards provide additional slots for both 64-bit and 32-bit adapter cards.
|
Riser cards allow for technologies to be developed faster by placing them above the motherboard on a riser card.
|
|
|
Audio Modem Riser (AMR) specification allows analog I/O functions to be separate from the motherboard by placing them on a riser card that contains a codec (compressor/decompressor) chip.
|
AMR technology offers high quality audio.
|
|
|
The Audio Modem Riser technology has been superseded by Intel created Communication Network Riser (CNR).
|
A CNR card is an ATX-compatible PCI riser card that offers logic support for such technologies as audio, modem, LAN, and USB.
|
|
|
PCI architecture is based on the concept of bridging. A PCI bus has a north bridge and a south bridge.
|
The north bridge of the PCI architecture communicates with the CPU and is used to send signals to devices that run at higher speeds such as memory, AGP, CPU, or PCI-e.
|
|
|
The south bridge of the PCI architecture communicates with a super I/O chip and is used to send signals to slower devices, such as ISA slots, COM, and LPT ports.
|
The two major expansion card technologies for laptop systems are PCMCIA (PC Cards), which can be either a 16- or 32-bitexpansion card technology, and Mini PCI, which is a 32-bit bus technology.
|
|
|
PCMCIA Type I:
3.3mm thick Typically used for memory such as RAM, OTP, Flash memory, or SRAM cards. |
PCMCIA Type II:
5mm thick Used for modems, TV, and NIC cards. |
|
|
PCMCIA Type III:
10.5mm thick Used for hard drives |
Mini PCI is a 32-bit 33 MHz technology that is based on the PCI form factor.
|
|
|
Mini PCI Type I:
Connects via a twisted-pair cable to the phone (RJ11) or network (RJ45) connectors inside a laptop or system. Connects to the system board with a 100-pin stacking connector. |
.Mini PCI Type II:
Based on their design, Type II cards must be located at the edge of the system board or docking station chassis to connect the card's built-in RJ11 or RJ45 I/O connectors directly to the mounted external RJ11 and RJ45 ports. Like the Type I Mini PCI form factor, Type II connects to the system board with a 100-pin stacking connector. |
|
|
Mini PCI Type III:
Type III cards have the flexibility of connecting to external I/O (RJ11 and RJ45) ports via the same cable connection type as that used with a Type I card. They differ from Type I and Type II Mini PCI cards in the way they connect to the system board. |
Type III uses a 124-pin card-edge connector that is similar to the connector used by small outline, dual in-line memory modules (SODIMMs) to connect to the system board.
Type III Mini PCI cards have a lower profile, which allows manufactures to create smaller laptops. |
|
|
The CPU accepts data input, processes the data, and carries out instructions.
|
The CPU handles logical and mathematical functions.
|
|
|
The speed of a CPU is measured in megahertz.
|
The motherboard contains an oscillating system crystal, or oscillator which is a built-in timer or clock controls the speed at which the CPU can transfer information to and from memory and communicate with peripheral devices.
|
|
|
Clock speed is normally expressed in megahertz (MHz).
|
One MHz is equal to 1 million cycles per second of the oscillating clock.
|
|
|
The clock speed on the motherboard can be configured with little plastic jumpers located on the motherboard itself.
|
Most motherboards are designed to run at multiple clock speeds. It is important to set the CPU and other motherboard components to run at the maximum clock speed of the motherboard.
|
|
|
Bus speed is measured by the width of the bus. The width of the bus is calculated by the number of bits of information the bus can move at a given time.
|
Most systems today have 64-bit wide buses that run at 100 MHz. Newer chipsets on the market run at 133 MHz.
|
|
|
The External Data Bus is made up of tiny wires integrated into the motherboard that the CPU uses as a means to communicate with peripheral devices.
|
The CPU uses the address bus, which is also made up of tiny wires integrated into the motherboard, to access areas of memory by the Memory Controller Chip (MCC).
|
|
|
The address bus keeps track of locations in memory called memory addresses. The number of memory addresses in a system is based on the size, or "width," of the address bus.
|
The processing and calculation of information takes place inside the processor itself. When the processor needs quick, predetermined information, it relies on cached memory.
|
|
|
Cached memory is a special set of memory chips that are internal or external to the processor itself.
|
Cached memory is physically closer to the CPU than RAM and is therefore much faster.
|
|
|
Cache memory is designed for quick access by the processor.
|
Level 1 Cache:
Internal or Primary Cache. Internal to the processor. |
|
|
Level 1 cache is fast memory that the CPU uses first for quick storage and calculation.
|
Level 1 cache is not very large in storage capacity. Its storage capability ranges from 8 KB to 64 KB.
|
|
|
Level 2 Cache:
External or Secondary. External to the processor. Slower than Level 1 Cache. |
Level 2 Cache can provide more than 512 KB of storage space.
|
|
|
Performance gains are mostly realized from the storage capacity of the Level 2 cache.
|
Level 3 cache has dramatically increased the speed at which a processor or dual processors can access stored information.
|
|
|
Level 3 Cache brings an additional 1 MB (1024 KB) of storage space.
|
Interfaces known as Chipsets have been developed to handle transition or buffering of information between the CPU and peripheral devices.
|
|
|
The bus controller chip handles or "supervises" the flow of information on the different motherboard buses.
|
The DMA controller allows devices to use addressed memory without interacting with the CPU.
|
|
|
The math coprocessor supervises the flow of information between the math coprocessor and the CPU.
|
The super I/O controller combined the functions of older, separate controller chips into one smart chip.
|
|
|
Some of the major functions controlled by the super I/O include control of serial port Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transceiver (UART), control and support for floppy disk and tape drives, and control functions related to parallel ports and their enhanced capabilities.
|
Chipsets are designed to support specific devices, motherboards, CPUs, and computers that they will control.
|
|
|
The Enhanced Integrated Drive Electronics (EIDE) controller is used to communicate and support devices such as hard disk drives, floppy disk drives, CD-ROMs, and other storage devices.
|
Most computers today have chipset support for two EIDE onboard controllers.
|
|
|
The memory controller controls the flow of data in and out of memory. Devices that need access to the system memory or RAM must first pass through this controller.
|
PCI bridge: PCI bridging, or north and south bridge, is used to connect the PCI interface on the motherboard with older devices, such as ISA.
|
|
|
The DMA controller manages the availability and support for ISA and AT Attachment (ATA) devices.
|
ATA is a set of rules or specifications that apply to the IDE controller.
|
|
|
SCSI adapters, network interface cards, and sound cards use DMA channels to move data in and out of system memory without assistance from a CPU.
|
The Real-Time Clock (RTC) controls the system date and time.
|
|
|
The PS/2 controller provides a direct interface between the PS/2 mouse and the processor.
|
The Keyboard controller controls functions between the keyboard and the CPU.
|
|
|
The IRDA (Infrared Data Association) controller is packaged with most laptop computers.
|
RISC and CISC are terms that apply to the programming and instruction sets of chipsets.
|
|
|
Reduced Instruction Set Computer (RISC)
|
Complex Instruction Set Computing (CISC)
|
|
|
RISC is a technology used in high-end computing systems that uses a limited number of instructions and fewer transistors than CISC. The result is a less expensive chipset. Most Sun computing systems incorporate RISC technology.
|
Most conventional computing systems use CISC. CISC architecture is capable of supporting many more instructions than RISC. Pentium systems use CISC technology.
|
|
|
Slot technology integrates the processor onto a circuit board or IC board.
|
Many modern processors use either the SEC (Single Edge Connector) or SEP (Single Edge Processor) packaging and employ the slot technology.
|
|
|
Intel's SEC design contains both a CPU and a Level 2 cache.
|
Modern processors like the Core 2 Duo use the PGA package.
|
|
|
Socket technology typically uses a ZIF socket on the motherboard.
|
A second design of the PGA standard is SPGA, in which the tiny pins underneath the processor are staggered, thereby allowing the processor to be smaller.
|
|
|
The 8086 processor was introduced in 1978.
|
Provided by the 8086 (XT) processor, real-mode processing offers the processor access to the limited memory space or environment of 1 MB (1024 KB of memory addresses). Real mode uses a 16-bit data path and has a direct access path to RAM.
|
|
|
Introduced with the 80286 processor, protected mode allows the processor to access memory above 1 MB (1024 KB) and up to 16 MB. Protected mode allows programs to use a 32-bit data path.
|
Introduced with the 80386 processor, virtual real (protected) mode allows multiple programs to run at the same time in their own protected separate memory addresses or Virtual Machines (VMs). If one of these programs or VMs fails, the other programs are not affected.
|
|
|
Made of CMOS material, the 386DX provides 32-bit processing power and can run in virtual real mode.
|
An 80386 processor operates at +5V, is capable of addressing up to 4 GB of memory, and has an internal cache. The clock speeds for 386DX range from 16 MHz to 33 MHz.
|
|
|
The 80386 SX processor was released in 1988. It is a scaled down version of the 80386 DX.
|
In 1990, the 386SL was introduced to meet the demand for a smaller processor with lower power consumption for laptop computing.
|
|
|
The 80386SL processor is basically the 386SX designed for laptops and their power management capabilities. The 80386SL was offered with a 25 MHz clock speed.
|
The 486DX featured 32-bit internal and external memory address buses. It offered internal Level 1 cache at 8 KB. This processor introduced burst mode memory and had a coprocessor or Floating-Point Unit (FPU) integrated into the CPU chip.
|
|
|
The 486SX is a scaled-down version of the 486DX processor. The math coprocessor was disabled by the manufacturer and sold as a lower-cost alternative to the DX model.
|
The 486DX2 was designed to run at double the speed (with the exception of the external bus) of its predecessor, the 486DX. The 486DX2 processor operates at +3.3V.
|
|
|
The AMD K5 was offered as a 75 MHz to 133 MHz processor, released by AMD.
|
The AMD K5 offered 50, 60, and 66 bus speeds, and an internal (primary) cache of 24 KB.
|
|
|
The AMD K5 uses Socket 7 technology.
|
The K5 has a Level 1 cache of 24 KB.
|
|
|
Teh AMD K5 was released to compete with the early Pentiums.
|
Cyrix 5X86 is a Socket 7-type CPU released to compete with early Pentiums.
|
|
|
Pentium I was offered in 1992. It operated with a data bus of 64 bits, an address bus of 32 bits, and a memory of 64 bits.
|
Pentium I offered 16 KB of level 1 cache.
|
|
|
The Pentium I introduced the single-cycle instruction technology known as dual pipelining.
|
The Pentium Pro offered onboard Level 1 cache at 16 KB and Level 2 cache at 256 KB, 512 KB, or 1 MB.
|
|
|
Pentium Pro introduced the concept of quad pipelining and dynamic processing.
|
Pentium Pro did NOT handle 16 bit (DOS) application code well.
|
|
|
The AMD K6 was developed as competition for the Pentium Pro.
|
The AMD K6 offered speeds of 166 MHz, 200 MHz, 233 MHz, 266 MHz, and a Super Socket 7 version designed to run at 100 MHz motherboard bus speed and higher clock speeds.
|
|
|
The AMD K6 has an internal cache size of 64 KB.
|
The Cyrix 6x86MX processors ranged from PR-166 to PR-366. The 6x86 had an external bus speed of 75 MHz.
|
|
|
Celeron packages came in PGA or FC-PGA format and required a 66 MHz motherboard.
|
The Celeron is compatible with Multimedia Extensions (MMX). It has a Level 1 cache of 32 KB.
|
|
|
I May of 2002, Intel introduced the Celeron Socket 478 processor. This Socket 478 processor came in speeds of 1.7 GHz and 1.8 GHz, offered 128KB of L2 cache (as opposed to the Pentium 4's 256 KB), ran at 1.75V, and had a 400 MHz front side bus (100 MHz quad pumped effective at 400 MHz).
|
In November of 2002, Intel would release a newer, updated Celeron model based on the Pentium 4 Northwood Core. It was offered as a 2.0 GHz product (Socket 478) running at 1.5V, with 128 KB of L2 cache, and a 400 MHz front side bus (100 MHz quad pumped effective at 400 MHz).
|
|
|
The Xeon processor succeeded the Pentium Pro. It was meant to be a server computer processor, primarily because of its choices of Level 2 cache, which was available at 512 KB, 1 MB, or 2 MB. Xeon was also noted for its capability to support up to eight processors in one computer and up to 64 GB of memory.
|
The Pentium II processor is available in 233 MHz, 266 MHz, 300 MHz, 333 MHz, 350 MHz, 400 MHz, and 450 MHz clock speeds.
|
|
|
Pentium II took full advantage of MMX technology. MMX introduced new hardware technology processing that is integrated into the system for better calculation and acceleration of multimedia.
|
The Pentium II provides a larger pipeline cache size than its predecessor, the Pentium I. It has a Level 1 cache of 32 KB and a Level 2 cache of 512 KB.
|
|
|
The Pentium II uses Slot 1 technology.
|
Pentium II Processor Speed and Motherboard Clock Speed:
233 MHz - 66 MHz 266 MHz - 66 MHz 300 MHz - 66 MHz 333 MHz - 66 MHz 350 MHz - 100 MHz 400 MHz - 100 MHz 450 MHz - 100 MHz |
|
|
Pentium III offers 32 KB of Level 1 cache and fully supports Level 2 cache at 512 KB.
|
Pentium III is offered with clock speeds that range from 450 MHz to 1.4 GHz.
|
|
|
Pentium III uses a second-g.eneration SEC package known as SECC2
|
Pentium III uses both Slot 1 and Socket 370 technologies.
|
|
|
The AMD 1 GHz Athlon processor is available in both slot A and Socket A formats and boasts a 200 MHz to 400 MHz Alpha EV-6 bus.
|
The AMD Duron processor was meant to be the Celeron's major competitor.
|
|
|
The AMD Duron clock speeds range from 600 MHz through 1.3 GHz.
|
The AMD Duron used either Slot A or Socket A technology, has the Level 2 cache internal to the processor (unlike the Athlon, which has the Level 2 cache external to the processor), and is rated at a motherboard speed of 100 MHz.
|
|
|
AMD Athlon XP's range in speed from 1.33 GHz to 2.167 GHz.
|
Originally introduced on July 2, 2001, the Pentium 4 ranges in speed from 1.3 GHz to 3.20 GHz.It was available as a Socket 423 and (in later processor models) Socket 478 processor.
|
|
|
In early 2002, however, the current iteration of the Pentium 4 was introduced: the Northwood. The Northwood is based solely on Socket 478 technology and out of the gate offered 512 KB L2 cache.
|
Pentium 4 introduced Hyperthreading, which is Intel's trademark for the implementation of the simultaneous multithreading technology on the Pentium 4 series of microprocessors.
|
|
|
The first Itanium microprocessor chip was released by Intel in 2001 and has since been superseded by the Itanium 2 Chip, which currently has a code name of Montecito.
|
The Itanium family of Itaniums is based on Intel's 64-bit architecture that was formally known as IA-64.
|
|
|
Released in laptop computers in early 2007, the first Dual Core Pentiums were released and based on one of three architectures: the 32-bit Pentium M, Yonah, or 64-bit Core Allendale cores.
|
In June of 2007, Intel released the Pentium E2140 and E216 processors with support for Intel 64 extensions. These are based on the 64-bit Allendale core.
|
|
|
CPU overclocking is a process of tweaking the CPU's clock rate to achieve a higher rate than it was originally intended for.
|
The CPUs clock rate is measured in Hertz, which is the basic measurement used to calculate cycles per second.
|
|
|
The clock rate for a typical CPU can be adjusted in the computer's BIOS settings.
|
If you improperly overclock and do not follow certain specifications or benchmarks, components can be in danger of overheating.
|
|
|
CPU throttling is a method used to lower the clock frequency of a CPU, thus reducing the amount of power used to operate a system.
|
AMD uses a technology called Cool'n'Quiet in desktops and servers and a CPU throttling technology called PowerNow! in its laptop systems.
|
|
|
Thermal card or chip creep - when a component on the motherboard becomes loose over time due to the constant expansion and contraction as a result of continual temperature changes.
|
The cooling fan usually sits on top of the processor, drawing heat from it and pushing the heat out and away from the motherboard, where it can be drawn out of the system unit by the power supply fan.
|
|
|
A heat sink can be placed between the processor and the cooling fan to assist with the extraction of heat from the processor.
|
Liquid cooling cool water with a radiator, pump that water over the CPU to absorb heat, and then pump the water back to the radiator to recool and dissipate that heat.
|
|
|
All liquid cooling devices have the same basic parts: a radiator (with fan to help dissipate heat from the radiator), tubing, a water reservoir, a water block (which acts as a sort of heat sink for the processor) that water flows through (this is where the heat transfer takes place), and a pump.
|
A thermal compound is defined as a semifluidic grease that conducts heat several times more efficiently than air.
|
|
|
Thermal compound is used to fill the space between the mating surfaces and help transfer heat from the CPU to the heat sink.
|
A VRM (Voltage Regulator Module) is a motherboard-installable module that regulates the electrical voltage that is fed to the system's microprocessor. Most motherboards today have a built-in voltage regulator or a VRM.
|
|
|
Various processors require different amount of voltage for basic I/O functions and core operations, and the VRM's job is to detect this voltage amount. It then supplies a constant voltage to the processor.
|
You may need to add a VRM to your motherboard when upgrading the processor.
|
|
|
A computer on your network is unable to communicate with other computers. What would you check first?
|
The computer's IP address configuration.
If a single computer on your network cannot communicate with other systems on the same network, the IP address is probably invalid or the system has not received an IP address from a DHCP server, which hands out IP addresses randomly on the network. |
|
|
For two computers to communicate with each other, they must have a common language. What is this common language called?
|
Protocol
For two computers to communicate, they must have a common language or set of rules known as a protocol. Binary conversion is a process used to convert binary numbers to decimal numbers to binary. |
|
|
What are two tools you can use to test a modem?
|
A loopback plug or analog loopback adapter can be used to test the integrity of a modem. A digital multimeter is used to troubleshoot system power-related issues.
|
|
|
You want to connect a new computer to your Ethernet network. What device must you install to do so?
|
To communicate with your Ethernet network, you would need to install and configure a NIC with associated software drivers. Keep in mind that most newer systems have Gb Ethernet cards built in.
|
|
|
Ten users on your network have all downloaded a fancy game from the same Internet site. Unfortunately, none of the computers will work anymore. What question would ask each of the 10 users?
|
Did you virus scan the game's executable program before running?
|
|
|
Where do most computer viruses come from?
|
Most computer viruses arrive through a borrowed floppy or other removable media disk or the Internet.
|
|
|
A customer cannot log in to the network. Others on the network segment can log in without an issue. You are logged in to the network using your computer and the customer's ID and password without an issue. What is most likely causing login issue at the customer's workstation?
|
The customer is entering the wrong password at his workstation.
The NIC in the customer's workstation is malfunctioning. The patch cable that attaches the customer's workstation to the network is bad. |
|
|
What type of connections can be used with TCP/IP?
|
Ethernet, token ring, and analog modem dial-up connection.
|
|
|
How can configuration settings on a NIC be changed?
|
You can configure your NIC settings with onboard jumpers or NIC configuration software usually provided by the manufacturer. If you are using a PnP operating system, your NIC setting can be configured automatically in most cases.
|
|
|
Which of the following represent peer-to-peer networks?
A. Centralized administration and security B. Limited number of computers (usually less than 10) C. One computer acting as a client and a server D. Requires a high-end server computer to provide login authentication and provide resources |
B and C
|
|
|
You have a NIC that doesn't have jumpers and is not PnP compliant. How will you configure it to be used with your system?
|
Use manufacturer's configuration software.
Legacy NICs were configured with the use of jumpers or DIP switches on the card itself. Today, most NIC settings are configured with the use of software provided by the manufacturer or simply by letting PnP make the necessary settings automatically. |
|
|
You are attempting to install a 64-bit video card driver for a newly purchase video card, but when you try to install the driver, nothing happens. What could be the problem?
|
Your antiviral software or a firewall may be blocking your install abilities.
You may have to disable real-time protection or disable your entire antivirus suite before installing new software. |
|
|
Which are considered to have the least amount of overhead and are meant for efficient communications in small networks or LANS?
|
NetBIOS and NetBEUI
NetBIOS is not routable. NetBIOS works well in LANs but not WANs. For WAN communication, you need TCP/P. NetBEUI is a nonroutable, small, efficient transport layer protocol meant for use in small networks with 1 to 200 workstations. |
|
|
With which type of DSL is the data rate considered the same in both directions?
|
SDSL (Symmetric DSL)
SDSL (Symmetric DSL) is well suited for business applications and programs that require and depend on the same speed for sending and receiving data. With SDSL, your upstream speed is the same as your downstream speed. |
|
|
Which statement is true regarding DSL?
A. DSL most often uses exiting POTS lines. B. ADSL and SDSL are DSL transmission types. C. DSL most often requires a special DSL modem and splitter. D. DSL is less secure than a cable modem Internet connection because a single DSL is shared. E. All of the above statements are true. |
A, B, and C
Unlike using less secure cable modem services, DSL is not a shared service connection. To be more specific, you do not share your DSL connection with your neighbors as cable subscribers do. |
|
|
Which statement is true regarding satellite Internet connectivity?
A. Satellite modems communicate with your PC through an Ethernet or USB connection. B. A two-way geosynchronous satellite is used. C. Satellite connections are ideal for those located outside the range of cable and DSL services. D. To use a satellite Internet connection, you need a satellite dish antenna. E. All of the above statements are true. |
Correct Answer = E
|
|
|
Which IEEE specification is concerned primarily with security?
|
802.10
802.3 is concerned with Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) in local area Ethernet networks. The 802.5 specification is for Token Ring LANs. 802.11 is an IEEE specification for wireless communications. |
|
|
Which type of network cabling is the most difficult to tap into and considered the most secure?
|
Fiber-optic cable is much more difficult to tap into than other types of network cable. Special equipment and skilled hands are required to carry out such a task. This is not the case with twisted pair, shielded twist pair, and coaxial types of cable.
|
|
|
How do firewalls protect your network.
|
Properly configured firewalls will protect an internal network from an external network. An antivirus program and updated operating system service packs are used to protect your internal network from a virus that resides on a workstation on your internal network. Firewalls do not provide protection through dial-up modem connections.
|
|
|
Which of the following describe an FDDI ring? (Choose Three)
A. Offer up to 100 Mbps data transmission speeds B. Are composed of dual rings with data traveling in opposite directions C. Can serve as a network backbone D. The easiest topology to tap into E. Uses CSMA/CD technology |
A, B, and C
Option D is a sort of a trick. FDDI uses fiber cable, which as you are already aware is more difficult to tap into than most other cable types. FDDI uses token-passing technology not CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection). CSMA/CD is used in Ethernet networks. |
|
|
Which of the following choices forms a sort of tunnel for two hosts to communicate?
A. Packet filter B. Circuit gateway C. Application proxy D. FDDI |
Correct Answer = B
A circuit gateway forms a sort of tunnel through a firewall allowing two specified hosts to interact. Packet filters examine UDP, TCP ports, and packet header information. They can identify good from bad packet information. Application proxies (or gateways) are concerned more with specific applications and actual data. FDDI is a network topology standard that uses dual fiber-optic rings. |
|
|
Which protocol uses a one-way hash function to assist with the authentication process?
|
CHAP uses a secret one-way hash value that is generated by the requestor and sent to the server. PAP is a basic type of authentication where a user-name and password are transmitted unencrypted across a network to an authenticating host. PPP is a full-duplex serial communication protocol that operates at the data link layers of the OSI reference model. SLIP is an older TCP/IP communications protocol used to connect two computer systems together.
|
|
|
Which of the following protocols is used to map or "resolve" an IP address to a system's physical hardware address?
|
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to map an IP (Internet Protocol) address at the network layer of the OSI model to a physical hardware address at the MAC (Media Access Control) sublayer.
|
|
|
Which of the following provides a type of firewall by hiding internal IP addresses from outside networks?
A. ARP B. NAT C. PAP D. RPC |
B. NAT
Network Address Translation (NAT) is an Internet standard most often used with routers to provide firewall security by hiding an internal private network's range of IP addresses from outside networks. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to map an IP (Internet Protocol) address at the network layer of the OSI model to a physical hardware address at the MAC (Media Access Control) sublayer. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) is a basic type of authentication where a username and password are transmitted unencrypted across a network to an authenticating host. Secure Remote Procedure Call (RPC) is essentially a protocol that is used to allow a client-side application program to execute or request a service from a server computer without being concerned with network intricacies or server procedures. |
|
|
Which device does not forward all broadcast traffic and has the ability to forward data packets to other networks based on IP address information?
|
A router operates at the network layer of the OSI reference model and has the ability to forward information based on a network's or individual computer's TCP/IP address. A router has the ability to filter out broadcast traffic.
|
|
|
Which TCP port is HTTP associated with?
|
HTTP traffic uses TCP port 80. FTP uses TCP port 21. SMTP uses TCP port 25. DNS uses UDP port 53.
|
|
|
How long are IPv6 addresses?
|
128 bits
IPv6 allows for IP addresses to be lengthened from the IPv4 limitation of 32 bits to 128 bits. IPv6 also allows for better authentication, privacy and improved data delivery assurance. |
|
|
FTP uses which TCP ports?
|
FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21
SMTP uses TCP port 25, TELNET uses TCP port 23, and HTTP uses TCP port 80. |
|
|
You are configuring e-mail for one of your remote clients on your Microsoft Exchange e-mail server so they can send and receive e-mail. What two protocols allow the client to send and receive e-mail?
|
SMTP and POP3
Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol that e-mail servers use to transmit messages. |
|
|
Which Internet protocol is used to establish a secure connection?
|
HTTPS
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) enables systems on a TCP/IP network to share status and error information. POP3 (Post Office Protocol) is an e-mail protocol used to receive e-mails. Telnet provides a virtual terminal that allows remote login access across a network. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is a protocol used for exchanging files, messages, sound, and video on the Web. It is not a secure protocol. HTTPS (Secure HTTP) protocol is used for accessing secure Web servers and pages on the Internet. |
|
|
What is the main type of cabling implemented in a Bus topology network?
|
10Base2
|
|
|
What type of network protocol is commonly used for Ethernet, Token Ring, and Internet or network dial-up connections?
|
TCP/IP
|
|
|
What are Bridges?
|
Bridges are hardware devices that operate at the MAC sublayer of the OSI reference model's data link layer. Bridges are used to segment or separate LANs.
|
|
|
What services do bridges provide on a network?
|
Reduce network traffic that results from too many computers being attached to a network.
Connect different types of media connections, such as coaxial cable and TP cable. Expand the length of a network segment. Connect different network typologies together, such as Token Ring and Ethernet. |
|
|
What is a Router?
|
A router is a device that connects different network segments.
|
|
|
What is the difference between a Router and a Bridge?
|
A router does not use a computer's MAC address to forward information. Instead, a router operates at the network layer of the OSI reference model and has the ability to forward information based on a network or an individual computer's TCP/IP address.
A router has the ability to send a request to a specific location without broadcasting to all the other computer nodes on a network or network segment. |
|
|
What are the primary tasks of a Router?
|
Provide filtering of packets and reduce broadcast storms.
Segment networks into smaller, more manageable pieces. Provide a network security layer between separate networks (a firewall). |
|
|
What special protocols do Routers use to communicate with each other and carry out their advanced functions?
|
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) Routing Information Protocol (RIP) |
|
|
What is NAT?
|
Network Address Translation (NAT) is an Internet standard that is most often used with routers to provide firewall security by hiding the internal private network's range of IP addresses from outside networks.
|
|
|
What is a Switch?
|
A Switch is a network device that chooses certain paths or routes on which to send data in a network. A switch that has the ability to operate at the network layer is known as a layer 3 or IP switch. Switches can connect networks and subnetworks comprised of the same or different cable types. They can send units of data (packets) faster than most routers based on digital packet-switching technology. Switches typically connect LAN segments that use the same protocol.
|
|
|
What is a Hub?
|
A hub is a network device that acts as a central point used to connect computers together. In network terms, a hub is a simple connection device that sends all data packets to all connected systems. A basic hub operates at the physical layer of the OSI reference model. Generally speaking, in a basic networking setup, if the hub goes down or becomes dysfunctional, all systems connected to the hub will be unable to communicate with each other.
|
|
|
What is the Uniform Resource Locator (URL) format?
|
The first part of the line is the Internet protocol to be used—for example, http:. The second part of the URL line is used for the Internet address you are trying to access. It can be an IP address or a domain name.
|
|
|
What is HTTP?
|
Hypertext Transfer Protocol is an internet protocol used to transmit instructions to the Web from a Web browser.
|
|
|
What is HTML?
|
Hypertext Markup Language allows Web pages to be formatted with graphics and symbols other than plain text. HTML provides the Web page with a set of instructions pertaining to how the page should be displayed to the end user.
|
|
|
What is XML?
|
Extensible Markup Language is similar to HTML, but XML offers developers and designers more flexibility in creating Web pages through the use of call tags. Call tags are responsible for calling methods inside the objects created in a program.
|
|
|
What are Viruses?
|
A program or specific piece of code that is designed, when executed, to duplicate itself and/or spread itself to other areas of a system or other systems in a networked environment.
|
|
|
What is a Worm?
|
A type of virus that gets its name from its inherent ability to spread itself to other networked systems, remain resident in memory, and keep in contact with other segmented pieces of itself until triggered by a certain event to duplicate and spread itself.
|
|
|
What is a Trojan Horse?
|
a program that appears on the outside to be harmless. It masquerades itself as an apparently nondestructive, harmless, and innocent application, program, or message. Trojan horses can carry very dangerous payloads that are highly destructive to networks and systems.
|
|
|
What is DSL?
|
Digital Subscriber Line is a connection technology that uses existing POTS wires. It requires a special modem and typically requires that a signal splitter be installed in the home or office. DSL is a technology that can be remotely activated.
|
|
|
What is the difference between ADSL and SDSL?
|
Asymetric DSL have different upstream and downstream speeds. ADSL supports receiving data rates (downstream rate) from 1.5–9.0 Mbps and sending data rates (upstream rates) from 16–640 Kbps.
Symetric DSL have the same upstream and downstream speeds. SDSL can support data rates up to 3 Mbps. |
|
|
How does Satellite technology work?
|
The satellite dish antenna is mounted on or near your home or business.
The satellite dish antenna is connected to a satellite modem (transceiver) with a coaxial cable. The satellite modem communicates with your PC through an Ethernet or USB connection. Information is transmitted to and received from a two-way geosynchronous satellite that orbits approximately 22,300 miles above the equator. The geosynchronous satellite communicates with a provider facility that is connected to the Internet. |
|
|
What is a Firewall?
|
A firewall is an implementation of software, hardware, or a combination of both specifically designed to keep unauthorized users, programs, and other threats from entering a computer system or network.
|
|
|
What is a Dual Homed Host firewall?
|
A dual homed host, sometimes referred to as multihomed, is a system with two NIC cards. One NIC card supports access to a private network, and one supports access to a public network. This acts as a filter and is also known as a multihomed bastion host.
|
|
|
What is a Packet Filter firewall?
|
Packet sniffing programs and network monitors can capture and analyze network packets coming into or going out of a network.
|
|
|
What is a Circuit Gateway firewall?
|
A circuit gateway operates at the session layer of the OSI reference model. It is essentially a packet filter that relays packets from one host to another based on the protocol and IP address. A circuit gateway forms a sort of tunnel through a firewall, allowing two specified hosts to interact.
|
|
|
What is a Stateful Inspection Firewall?
|
This type of firewall has the ability to remember detailed information about packets that have previously passed through. Then, they are able to compare and analyze this information and decide whether to let certain packets through the firewall. In other words, a stateful firewall can compare incoming requests to outbound messages and see if there is a relationship between the two. If not, the firewall can block the incoming request. Stateful firewalls provide better overall analysis than most other firewall types, such as packet filters.
|
|
|
What is a VPN?
|
A Virtual Private Network is a private network routed through public lines. VPNs use virtual connections established over the Internet as opposed to a dedicated, leased line approach.
|
|
|
How does VPN keep data secure?
|
Firewall
IPSec Encryption. |
|
|
If you have a workstation physically connected to your network, but you cannot PING or communicate with other systems on your network, what should you check first?
|
You should first verify the link status on your NIC to see if it is blinking.
|
|
|
If you are connected to the Internet using a 56 Kbps modem, but your connection speed is only 28 Kbps, what is likely the problem?
|
It is likely that there is noise on your phone line connection, or your ISP is only handing out 28 Kbps connections.
|
|
|
What is the easiest way to connect two computers that both have NICs in a peer-to-peer style network?
|
Connect them using a crossover cable.
|
|
|
What can be used to extend the length of a 10Base2 network?
|
A device called a repeater can be used to extend the length of a 10Base2 network.
|
|
|
What is likely the issue if you keep receiving the message "This page cannot be displayed" while attempting to access a particular Web site?
|
It is very likely that the host computer that provides the resource you are trying to access is having issues or is down.
|
|
|
What is likely happening if you are using a dial-up connection and your mouse pointer freezes on your screen when you attempt to access the Internet?
|
You are likely experiencing an IRQ conflict.
|
|
|
What is considered a better, and faster replacement for ISDN?
|
DSL is considered a better and faster replacement for ISDN.
|
|
|
What is POP3?
|
Post Office Protocol is a protocol used to receive e-mail. A POP3 mail server holds all mail until the requestor or user is ready to receive it.
|
|
|
What IP Address ranges are reserved for private networks?
|
10.0.0.0–10.254.254.254
172.16.0.0–172.31.254.254 192.168.0.0–192.168.254.254 |
|
|
What IP address is reserved for loopback testing on a local computer?
|
127.x.x.x
|
|
|
What is the video resolution of an SVGA?
|
A resolution of 800 x 600 is supported by SVGA. CGA supports 320 x 200 and 640 x 200. VGA supports 640 x 480 and 320 x 200. Monochrome supports 720 x 350.
|
|
|
You should NOT use this when working on a monitor. However, you should use this when installing a video adapter card. What is this?
|
An ESD wrist strap.
|
|
|
Which of the following are printer consumable items?
A. Platen B. Print buffer C. Toner cartridges D. Printer drivers E. Printer paper F. Printer ribbons |
C, E, and F
Toner cartridges, paper, and disposable ribbons are considered printer consumable items. |
|
|
Several users have been trying to print reports to a networked printer. The users complain that their reports are not printing. What would you do to solve this issue?
|
Delete the reports from the printer queue (buffer). Then, stop and start the print spooler service.
With a networked printer, print jobs are typically queued in a printer buffer that is managed by the print spooler service. If print jobs are not printing to a networked printer, this process will clear the print queue and allow print jobs to be resubmitted and printed. |
|
|
Your printed output appears to be fading from left to right. What is causing this problem?
|
The platen is out of alignment.
A misaligned platen commonly results in a faded level of ink application to the paper as it is applied from left to right or may result in uneven lines of output across the paper. |
|
|
A laser printer is producing inconsistent, wavy output. What is a very common cause associated with this problem?
|
The toner cartridge is empty.
|
|
|
Of the following choices, which uses a heat-sensitive print head that moves over a ribbon of transparent colored film.
A. Color impact B. Dye sublimation C. Laser tranformation D. Ink dispersion |
B. Dye sublimation
|
|
|
What are the 4 primary printing colors?
|
Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, and Black
|
|
|
Which of the following is considered the newest and fastest form of connectivity for printers.
A. Serial B. USB C. Parallel D. ECP E. ECC |
B. USB
Currently, the fastest available connection for a printer is realized through USB technology and a USB connection. |
|
|
What should you check first if a printer has no paper, but there is an error code on a printer LED that states there is a paper jam?
|
Paper-feed rollers have sensors to control the proper flow of paper out of the paper tray. It is a common
occurrence to receive a "paper jam" error on the printer LED display but on investigation, you find that there is no paper in the tray. |
|
|
What acronym describes a multifunction device that is used to print, scan, copy, and fax?
|
An MFD is a device that combines functionality of a printer, a copier, a scanner and a fax machine into one unit.
|
|
|
Which of the following are common features of a multifunctional finisher?
A. Ability to stack multiple sheets of letter or ledger-sized paper B. Ability to fold single pages C. Ability to stack sheets into booklets D. Ability to staple sheets of letter or ledger-sized paper E. All of the above |
E. All of the above.
|
|
|
What is the smallest monitor (in terms of size) that can be used to display 1600 x 1200?
|
19-inch CRT
The 15-inch CRT can typically only display up to 1024 x 768, and the 17-inch CRT and LCD can only do 1280 x 1024 (just because the screen is a true 17-inch screen, you are still limited to 1280 x 1024). |
|
|
What is the best way to clean a screen or LCD?
|
Water added to a lint free cloth.
|
|
|
Which of the following are video interface standards? (Choose Three)
A. S-Video B. DVI C. HDMI D. DIVA E. Video-R F. Printer ribbons |
A, B, and C
S-Video is an analog video interface standard that carries video data as two separate signals: brightness and color. It is unlike composite video that carries the whole set of signals in one signal. Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a video interface technology that maximizes the visual quality of digital displays such as flat panel LCD computer displays and digital projectors. The High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is a digital audio/video interface standard capable of transmitting totally uncompressed streams. |
|
|
Which of the following are parallel printer modes?
A. DMA B. STP C. ECP D. IEEE 1394 E. EPP F. Bidirectional |
C, E, and F
You can change parallel printing modes in systems BIOS. The parallel printer modes standards include unidirectional ports, bidirectional ports, enhanced parallel ports (EPP) and enhanced capability ports (ECP). You should remember for the exams that EPP and ECP ports are the fastest of the four parallel transmission modes. |
|
|
Which internal component of a laser printer is most likely to cause harm?
|
The fuser. Caution should be taken when working on the inside of a laser printer. The most likely internal component of a laser printer that can cause harm in the form of burns to a technician or user is the fuser. The fuser gets very hot when it heats up to melt toner onto paper. You should remember this point for the exams.
|
|
|
A customer has swapped good working printers around in the office with other coworkers. They all have different operating systems, and now everyone's printer is printing garbled characters.What most likely happed?
|
If the A+ exams tell you that a printer is printing garbled text, remember the printer drivers are likely incorrect or corrupt. That is most likely the cause of the problem in this example. The fact that the users have different operating systems is also a key to this solution.
|
|
|
Your boss wants you to buy a laptop with the very best resolution possible. Which of the following options offers the highest resolution?
A. VGA B. WXGA+ C. SXGA+ D. UXGA |
D. UXGA
UXGA offer the greatest screen resolution of 1600 x 1200. VGA offers 640 x 480. WXGA+ offers a 1440 x 900 resolution. SXGA+ offers 1400 x 1050 resolution. |
|
|
Which of the following should be avoided when the computer is in operation?
Removing CD-ROM discs Exchanging mouse trackballs Removing SD cards from the system Swapping PS/2 keyboards |
Swapping PS/2 keyboards. Plugging non hot-swappable devices such as the keyboard into the system while it is turned on may cause a system crash or even damage parts of the system.
|
|
|
Describe the first step in installing a USB device.
|
Installing a USB device normally involves enabling the USB resources in the CMOS Setup screen, ifnot enabled by default.
|
|
|
When can you safely disconnect a PS/2 keyboard from a computer?
|
When the computer is turned off. Many newer peripheral devices can safely be unplugged and reattached to the system while power is applied, but this is not so with the standard keyboard. Plugging the keyboard into the system while power is applied may cause the operating system or even the system board to fail due to the power surge and electrostatic discharge (ESD).
|
|
|
Which terms are used to describe the dot information produced by a color monitor?
Picture pod Pixel Trilogy Picture element |
Pixel and Picture Element
A color CRT monitor employs a combination of three color phosphors, red, blue, and green, arranged in adjacent groups of dots or bars, called picture elements (pixels or PELs). In a liquid crystal display's screen, a picture element is created at each spot where a row and a column of electrodes intersect. |
|
|
What is used to prevent the spreading of the electron beam on a color monitor?
|
A Shadow Mask
Color CRTs add a metal grid called a shadow mask in front of the phosphor coating. It ensures that an electron gun assigned to one color doesn't strike a dot of another color. |
|
|
Suppose that you are purchasing a new VGA monitor. Which of the following is the best dot pitch?
.30 .28 .32 .29 |
.28
Hardware resolution can be expressed as a function of how close pixels are grouped together on the screen. The closer the pixels are to one another, the sharper the image. This form of resolution is expressed in terms of dot pitch. A monitor with a .28 dot pitch has pixels that are located .28mm apart. |
|
|
Which video display standard is capable of providing a maximum output resolution of 1600x1200 pixels?
|
The Ultra XGA (UXGA) video display standard is capable of providing a maximum output resolution of 1600x1200 pixels.
|
|
|
Which of the following can connect or "network" two computers together?
A. A 6-pin Mini-DIN B. A serial cable C. 10Base2 D. A parallel cable |
B, C, and D
You can connect two computers together with a serial cable, an Ethernet thinnet 10Base2 cable, or a parallel cable. A 6-pin Mini-DIN connector is used to connect a PS/2 mouse or keyboard to a computer. |
|
|
How does a parallel port transmit data to a device?
|
1 byte at a time.
A parallel port uses parallel transmission methods to transmit or send data 1 byte at a time to a peripheral device. A serial port transmits data 1 bit at a time. |
|
|
If two devices cannot send and receive data and information simultaneously, they are using which form of data transmission?
|
Half Duplex
With half duplex transmission, data can be transmitted in both directions but can only be transmitted in one direction at a time. Full duplex is simultaneous transmission where data or voice can be transmitted at exactly the same time. |
|
|
A parallel printer cable has a different connector on each end. Name the two types of connectors on a parallel printer cable.
|
DB 25-pin male connector and 36-pin Centronics connector.
A parallel port on the back of a computer system is a female DB 25 connector that accepts a DB 25-pin male connector on one end of a parallel cable. The other end of a parallel cable has a 36-pin male Centronics D-shell connector that connects to a Centronics connector located on the back of a printer or device. |
|
|
A connector that has two levels of 15 total pins is which type of cable?
|
Game Port
A game or MIDI female port on the back of system has two levels of 15 total pins that accept a male connector with two levels of 15 total pins. |
|
|
Which is the fastest technology available for printers?
A. SCSI B. Parallel C. USB D. Serial |
A. SCSI
|
|
|
Which technology has the fastest data transfer rates?
A. IEEE 1394 B. Parallel C. USB D. A fast crossover cable |
A. IEEE 1394
FireWire is much faster than USB or parallel; it supports data transfer rates of 100 Mbps to 400 Mbps. |
|
|
Name the minimum category cable type that can be used to support 100BaseT.
|
Category5
Category5 UTP supports 100BaseT or 100BaseTX. |
|
|
Name the minimum category cable type that can be used to support 10BaseT.
|
Category3
|
|
|
Which of the following is an IEEE standard for parallel type C?
|
The newest addition to the IEEE-1284 standard for bidirectional communications and printing is the Type C-Mini 36-pin parallel connector.
|
|
|
Which of the following are associated with parallel printer ports?
A. Bidirectional B. IEEE 1284 C. EPP D. USB E. Omnidirectional |
A, B, and C
Parallel printer ports support bidirectional as well as Enhanced Parallel Port (EPP) application data transmissions. They are associated with the IEEE 1284 parallel standard that is used to connect a computer to peripheral devices such as printers. |
|
|
Which of the following IEEE standards addresses FireWire?
A. IEEE 802.11 B. IEEE 1284 C. IEEE 1234 D. IEEE 1394 E. None of the above |
D. IEEE 1394
The IEEE 1394 standard references FireWire high-speed serial transmissions of up to 400 Mbps (in version 1394a) and 800 Mbps (in version 1394b). |
|
|
What process will a PnP system use to detect connected FireWire-compatible devices?
|
Enumeration
FireWire is PnP-compatible and hot-swappable. It also allows up to 63 devices to be connected to one port. A PnP system uses enumeration to assign an address and autodetect any FireWire-connected devices. |
|
|
A NIC that supports SC or ST connections is an example of which type of technology?
|
Fiber Optic
Fiber-optic cables use special ST- and SC-type connectors to attach to NICs and fiber-optic ports. These connectors are precisely crafted and specially designed to suit fiber-optic cable connection requirements. |
|
|
When a sending host or device uses a transmitter or "emitter" to send pulses of light to a receiving host or device, which technology is being implemented?
|
Infrared
The majority of infrared (IR) transmissions occur between two computers or a single computer and an infrared-enabled device such as a printer or a PDA. The sending host or device uses an IR transmitter or "emitter," which sends pulses of IR light to the receiving host or device, which accepts with an IR receiver. |
|
|
You want to use an IR keyboard with your new desktop system. What must be enabled for you to do this?
|
IR support in your systems BIOS
|
|
|
What is considered the "hub" in a wireless network?
|
Access Point
Wireless access points are sometimes referred to as transceivers because they have the ability to transmit and receive RF signals. They are the "hub" of wireless networks. |
|
|
Your boss has asked you to implement a wireless network solution for your company. What is the first step you should take before implementing this solution?
|
Site Survey
Before you install a wireless network solution into an existing building or between existing buildings (building to building), you should first have a professional site survey conducted by certified RF (Radio Frequency) engineers. |
|
|
Your boss has asked you to implement a fiber-optic solution for your corporate enterprise. You need a solution for fast data transmission over a very long distance. What fiber-optic solution will you recommend?
|
Single-Mode (SM)
SM fiber optic, also referred to as monomode fiber, is a fiber technology meant for very long distance data transmissions. |
|
|
What does multimode (MM) fiber use to generate signals of light rays or "modes"?
|
LED
MM fiber uses LEDs to generate signals of light into the core fibers for transmission over fiber media. This mode of fiber is designed to carry many light signal rays or "modes" at the same time over a shorter distance than SM. |
|
|
Which category of UTP uses a 23-gauge conductor wire and is rated for speeds up to 550 MB or 1,000 MB?
|
CAT6 Cabling
|
|
|
You are making a special length cable and need to attach RJ45 connectors. Which tool would you use?
|
Wire crimpers are used to attach connectors such as RJ45 and RJ11 to cables.
|
|
|
Your boss just got a new laptop and wants everything wireless. This includes a mouse, keyboard, and printer. What technology would you consider for this setup?
|
Bluetooth is definitely the way to go here. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard that operates at 2.4 to 2.48 GHz with speeds up to 720 Kbps.
|
|
|
Which of the following is a code used in WiFi wireless networks that is attached to all packets on the network identifying each packet as part of that wireless network?
A. Codeblue B. Bluecode C. SSID D. SISD |
C. SSID
A service set identifier (SSID) is a code used in WiFi wireless networks that is attached to all packets on the network identifying each packet as part of that wireless network. The SSID code consists of 32 alphanumeric characters and is case sensitive. In a wireless network, all wireless devices must share the same SSID to communicate with each other. |
|
|
PC systems use what type of connector for the VGA video function?
|
The VGA/SVGA adapter on the back of the computer has a 15-pin, 3-row female D-shell connector.
|
|
|
You are helping a nontechnical user over the telephone and you need to have him plug in his SVGA monitor. How would you describe the connector and number of pins in the SVGA connector?
|
Video display monitors are attached to the video adapter card in the system unit (or to built-in adapters on the system board in some cases) via a signal cable or cables. The signal cable permits the monitor to be positioned away from the system unit if desired. With CRT VGA/SVGA monitors, most signal cables are permanently attached to the monitor and plug into the video adapter card using a 3-row, 15-pin D-shell connector.
|
|
|
Which standard ATX ports are often confused with each other?
The serial port and the VGA/SVGA port The docking port and the parallel ports The NIC card and modem connector ports The mouse and keyboard connections |
Themouse and keyboard connectors.
When the ATX specification adopted the same connector for both the keyboard and mouse, it introduced the possibility of plugging these devices into the wrong connector. Later ATX models and peripherals adopted an informal color-coding system (purple for keyboards and green for mice). |
|
|
How many devices can be attached to a single Universal Serial Bus (USB) host?
|
127
The specification allows 127 devices (128–1) to be attached to the USB host. The host accounts for one of the 128 possible USB addresses. |
|
|
Which new serial interface is the fastest?
IrDA ECP IEEE-1394a USB 2.0 |
IEEE-1394
FireWire (IEEE-1394) is capable of using the high-speed isochronous transfer mode described for USB to support data-transfer rates up to 400Mbps. This actually makes the FireWire bus superior to the USB bus |
|
|
What are the type of connectors usually associated with line-in and line-out ports?
|
1/8 inch minijacks
The microphone and speakers are plugged into the appropriate minijacks on the back of the sound card. |
|
|
What types of connectors are normally found on PC-compatible keyboards?
A 6-pin mini-DIN connector A 15-pin D-shell connector A USB Connector An RJ-45 connector |
The ATX and BTX systems use either the PS/2 6-pin mini-DIN connector or a USB connector for keyboards.
|
|
|
Which type of I/O port employs a 2-row, 15-pin, D-shell female connector?
|
The game port connector is a 2-row, 15-pin, D-shell female connector.
|
|
|
Select the option that is not found on the expansion slot cover of a typical audio sound card.
Line-in Line-out Speaker Microphone |
Line-out
Most sound cards support microphones through a mono 1/8-inch minijack. A similar green speaker jack is also normally present on the back of the card. A separate Line In connector is provided for making connections to other pieces of audio equipment that have audio industry standard Line Out connections. |
|
|
If you want to establish a video connection between a media-server PC and a television/video display unit, which of the following connection standard offers the best performance?
SVGA S-video DVI HDMI |
HDMI
High-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) is an advanced version of the DVI interface that offers high-definition video and multichannel (up to 8) audio transfers in a single cable. Like the DVI interface, HDMI is capable of handling signals for video systems running resolutions up to 1080p. |
|
|
Which DMA channel has a dedicated function in a standard PC?
|
Channel 2 for the FDD controller.
|
|
|
How many pins are there in a USB connector?
|
4 pins
USB transfers are conducted over a four-wire cable. The signal travels over a pair of twisted wires (D+ and D–) in a 90-ohm cable. The four wires are connected to four pins within the connector end. |
|
|
What is the proper way to remove a USB mass storage device?
|
Click the Safely Remove Hardware icon in the system tray.
|
|
|
How many pins are there in a XVGA connector?
|
XVGA (Extended Video Graphics Array) 15-pin, 3-row, D-shell connector
|
|
|
You are at a customer site and receive complaints that an important server computer freezes when booting up and displays an error code of 301. What should you check?
|
Keyboard
If the POST detects an issue on boot up, it will display a numeric code. A numeric code of 301 indicates a keyboard-related issue. This is a very common issue and typically just requires the keyboard connector to be reseated into the keyboard port on the back of the system. For the exams, remember that 201 is a memory error, 601 is a floppy drive error, and 1701 is a hard drive controller error. Know your codes for use in the field and on the exams! |
|
|
Your computer will not start. There are no lights whatsoever. What would you do first to troubleshoot this problem?
|
Verify that the AC wall outlet has power.
If you are troubleshooting a "dead" computer, first verify that there is electricity coming from the AC wall outlet. |
|
|
Which of the following devices are compatible with an AGP slot?
A. Type II PC card B. Parallel port C. Serial port D. Video card |
C. Video Card
The AGP slot was designed for accelerated graphics and video processing. |
|
|
You have replaced a bad CMOS battery. What should you check next?
A. COM port settings B. Hard drive settings C. Date and time D. BIOS version |
C. Date and time
After clearing the CMOS settings and reentering setup, you should first check to see if the system date and time are correct. |
|
|
You have experienced a floppy drive failure. What error code will your POST most likely display?
|
601
Error code 601 identifies a Floppy Drive/Adapter Error. |
|
|
A computer is continuously rebooting on its own. What is most likely the problem?
|
The system is not getting enough power.
If your system continuously reboots on its own, it may not be receiving enough power from the power supply. |
|
|
You cannot remember your password to get into the system settings on boot up. How can you address this?
|
Remove the CMOS battery or "Short" the CMOS jumper.
Removing the CMOS battery or "shorting" the CMOS jumper will clear the CMOS settings, which include a previously stored password. This will allow you to reenter CMOS and change the system settings. |
|
|
What information is usually found in a MSDS?
|
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) contain information regarding the proper handling, disposal, and transportation of hazardous material. They also contain first aid instructions should an emergency or exposure to a hazard occur.
|
|
|
Which of the following is an ATX-compatible PCI riser card that offers logic support for such technologies as audio, modem, LAN, and USB?
A. SODIMM ricer card B. Scalable Logic Card Interpreter (SLCI) C. Communication Network Riser (CNR) card D. All of the above E. None of the above |
C. CNR card
The Communication and Network Riser (CNR) is an Intel created standard that applies to riser cards. A CNR card is an ATX-compatible PCI riser card that offers logic support for such technologies as audio, modem, LAN, and USB. |
|
|
Which Intel standard allows analog I/O functions to be separate from the motherboard?
|
AMR
This Audio Modem Riser (AMR) specification for motherboard architecture allows analog I/O functions to be separate from the motherboard by placing them on a riser card that contains a codec chip. Intel developed the AMR standard. |
|
|
Of the following devices, which is used to protect electronic equipment from transient voltage or "spikes"?
A. Multimeter B. Surge suppressor C. Integrated I/O D. AC compressor/decompressor E. None of the above |
Surge suppressor
|
|
|
An educated remote user calls you and states that he needs you to send a replacement modem card for his laptop computer. What type of PCMCIA card will you send?
|
Type II PCMCIA card
Type II PCMCIA cards are used for NICs or modems and are 5mm thick. |
|
|
You company's main server computer is on fire! What type extinguisher should you use?
|
Class "C" rated
Computer related fires should be extinguished with an extinguisher that is rated for class "C" fires. |
|
|
Which type of Mini PCI card must be located at the edge of the system board or docking station chassis to connect the card's built-in RJ11 or RJ45 I/O connectors directly to the mounted external RJ11 and RJ45 ports?
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IX E. None of the above |
Type II
Based on their design, Type II cards must be located at the edge of the system board or docking station chassis to connect the card's built-in RJ11 or RJ45 I/O connectors directly to the mounted external RJ11 and RJ45 ports. |
|
|
Which motherboard chipset is used for handling faster communications for components such as memory, CPU, AGP, or PCI-e?
A. South bridge B. West bridge C. East bridge D. North bridge E. None of the above |
D. North bridge
The north bridge communicates with the CPU and is used to send signals to devices that run at higher speeds such as memory, AGP, CPU, or PCI-e. The south bridge communicates with a super I/O chip and is used to send signals to slower devices, such as ISA slots, COM, and LPT ports. The east and west bridges do not exist and are incorrect answers. |
|
|
What is the maximum data throughput of an AGP 8x slot?
|
2133 MBps
Once again, for the exams, you should remember the AGP specification variations: AGP 1x (66 MHz/Maximum data rate of 266 MBps), AGP 2x (133 MHz/Maximum data rate of 533 MBps), AGP 4x (266 MHz/Maximum data rate of 1,066 MBps), and AGP 8x (533 MHz/Maximum data rate of 2,133 MBps). |
|
|
You are tasked with upgrading 200 client systems at XYZ Company to use the USB 2.0 interface. What speed does the USB 2.0 standard support?
|
480 MBps
USB is a fairly new serial bus PnP architecture that uses the PCI bus to communicate between the CPU and memory. USB 1.0 offers speeds up to 12 Mbps, and USB 2.0 offers speeds up to 480 Mbps. All other answers are incorrect. |
|
|
You have upgraded several components in the main file server at XYZ Company. You are concerned about power and want to see if the server can handle the new components. Which tool would you use to test the power in the recently upgraded file server?
|
Digital Multimeter
The power supply converts AC to the +5V, –5V, +12V, or –12V DC current that the motherboard and its components require. A useful tool to test power (voltage) coming from the power supply and going to the motherboard and components is a digital multimeter. A loopback plug or loop-back adapter is used to test the operation of data ports and connections. |
|
|
For computer bootup purposes, where is the first set of instructions stored in?
|
When a PC is turned on, it begins carrying out software instructions from its BIOS program. This small program is permanently stored in the ROM BIOS memory IC located on the system board. The information stored in this chip represents all the inherent intelligence that the system has until it can load more information from another source, such as a disk drive or remote server computer.
|
|
|
What tests the memory of a computer during startup?
|
The BIOS performs a series of diagnostic tests (called POST or power-on self-tests) on the system to verify that it is operating correctly. While performing its normal tests and bootup functions, the BIOS displays an active RAM memory count as it is being tested.
|
|
|
A good example of firmware is ______.
A. RAM memory B. CD-ROM C. Operating system D. ROM BIOS |
The BIOS software (programming) and hardware (the ROM chip) are referred to as firmware. Some I/O devices, such as video and network adapter cards, have additional firmware that act as extensions to the system's BIOS.
|
|
|
What is the startup sequence of a computer?
|
POST, initialization, then bootup.
When a PC is turned on, the entire system is reset to a predetermined starting condition. From this state, it begins carrying out software instructions from its BIOS program. This small program is permanently stored in the ROM memory IC located on the system board. First, the BIOS performs a series of diagnostic tests (called POST or power-on self-tests) on the system to verify that it is operating correctly. Next, the BIOS places starting values in the system's various programmable devices. These intelligent devices regulate the operation of different portions of the computer's hardware. This process is called initialization. Finally, the BIOS performs the bootstrap sequence where it searches the system for a special program that it can use to load other programs into RAM and start the operating system. |
|
|
How is information stored in the system's BIOS updated in most newer PCs?
|
By electronically flashing the BIOS with new information.
When a major PC component is upgraded, the system's BIOS should be updated with the latest compatible firmware. All newer PCs have the capability to electrically update the BIOS information without removing the device from the system. This is known as flashing the BIOS. If the BIOS does not possess the flash option and does not support the new component, a new BIOS chip that does support it must be obtained. If not, typically the entire system board will need to be upgraded. |
|
|
What system board structure makes it easy to install upgrade processors in a PC system?
|
Special Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) sockets were designed that allowed the microprocessor to be set in the socket without force and then be clamped in place. An arm-activated clamping mechanism in the socket shifts to the side, locking the pins in place.
|
|
|
Which system board structures enable users to install multiple adapter cards in a system to expand its features for different types of uses?
|
Bus slots (also called expansion slot) are standard structures in most PC system boards and enable various types of peripheral devices to be added to the system. The system board communicates with the various optional I/O and memory systems through adapter cards that plug into its expansion slots.
|
|
|
You have upgraded a user's PC significantly and need to install an upgrade power supply to handle all the new equipment you've installed. You use the Internet to check pricing and features and find thousands of power supply listings. What power supply specification is key in choosing a new power supply for the system?
|
When upgrading power supplies, power consumption (expressed as wattage rating) is an important consideration so that enough power will be delivered to drive all components installed.
|
|
|
What type of expansion card is typically plugged into an AGP slot?
|
The AGP interface is a variation of the PCI bus design that has been modified to handle the intense data throughput associated with three-dimensional graphics.
|
|
|
What is the maximum data throughput when connecting an Ultra ATA 66 hard-disk drive with a 40-pin IDE cable?
|
All Ultra ATA versions support 33.3MBps data rates when used with a standard 40-pin/40-conductor IDE signal cable.
|
|
|
What should you do first if the system clock fails to keep proper time after being reset by the operating system?
|
If the time is incorrect on a PC system, the easiest way to reset it is through the operating system; however, if the system continually fails to keep good time, you should start by checking for corrosion on the battery contacts. Clean the contacts with a pencil eraser and retry the battery. If that doesn't work, try replacing the battery. Next, you can try replacing the RTC module. If this does not correct the timekeeping problem, the electronic circuitry that recharges the battery may be defective, and in this case you will need a new motherboard.
|
|
|
What may happen when you change the translation mode setting for an existing PATA drive?
|
Care must be taken when changing the disk drive translation mode setting in CMOS because all data on the drive can be lost in the process.
|
|
|
Which CMOS functions should be disabled when performing an operating system upgrade?
|
BIOS antivirus functions should be turned off when conducting an upgrade to the operating system. The built-in virus warning utility checks the drive's boot sector for changes. The changes that the new operating system will attempt to make to the boot sector will be interpreted as a virus, and the utility will act to prevent the upgrade from occurring.
|
|
|
When your computer boots, you want it to search for a boot sector on a floppy, a CD-ROM drive, and then the hard disk drive. What boot sequence should you set in CMOS?
|
A, CD-ROM, then C
The BIOS Features Setup screen is used to configure different bootup options. These options include establishing the system's bootup sequence. The sequence can be set so that the system checks the floppy drive (A:) for a boot sector first, or so that it checks the hard drive (C:) without checking the floppy drive. Other boot options include CD-ROM drives or a SCSI drive. |
|
|
During which portion of the startup process does the BIOS communicate with the system's PnP devices?
|
The PnP device communicates with the BIOS during the initialization phase of the startup to tell the system what type of device it is, where it is located in the system, and what its resource needs are.
|
|
|
What types of devices require a half-duplex/bidirectional parallel printer cable for proper operation?
A. USB devices B. SPP devices C. EPP devices D. ECP devices |
EPP and ECP devices
Because both of the advanced parallel port modes (EPP and ECP) operate in a bidirectional, half-duplex manner, they require an IEEE 1284-compliant cable. Standard parallel cables designed for older SPP operations may not support these qualities. |
|
|
What are the effects of forgetting the CMOS user password?
|
You cannot boot to the operating system.
Because the CMOS password controls access to all parts of the system, even before the bootup process occurs, some inconvenience occurs in the event that the user forgets his or her password. When this happens, it will be impossible to gain access to the system without completely resetting the content of the CMOS RAM. |
|
|
What action must be taken to restore the system if the CMOS password is forgotten in an ATX system?
|
On some system boards, resetting the content of the CMOS can be accomplished by shorting a special pair of jumpers on the board. With other systems, you will need to remove or short across the backup battery to reset the CMOS information. In ATX systems, it will also be necessary to unplug the power from the commercial outlet to reduce the voltage to the CMOS registers. When the content of the CMOS is reset, you must manually restore any nondefault CMOS settings being used by the system.
|
|
|
Where is the PnP information stored in the CMOS?
|
The BIOS stores the PnP information it collects from the devices in a special section of the CMOS RAM known as the Extended System Configuration Data (ESCD) area. This information is stored in the same manner as standard BIOS settings are stored. The BIOS and the operating system both access the ESCD area each time the system is restarted to see if any information has changed. This enables the BIOS and the operating system to work together in sorting out the needs of the installed devices and assigning them needed system resources.
|
|
|
Which parallel port type has the highest throughput?
A. ECP B. EPP C. XPP D. SPP |
The ECP mode offers higher performance than either the SPP or the EPP mode.
|
|
|
If you place a bootable floppy in drive A: and the system boots to drive C:, what action should you take to correct this?
|
Reconfigure the drive seek sequence in the CMOS setup utility.
|
|
|
What type of BIOS password should be set on machines that are open to public use?
|
The supervisory password is used to control access to the system's CMOS setup utility. Because this system is open for public use, setting a user password would prevent users from accessing the system. The supervisory password will prevent intentional malicious access to the CMOS, where users could disable the system.
|
|
|
You are responsible for computers in your area of the building. You need to secure them so that only your employees can access the systems but they cannot change CMOS settings. Which CMOS password options should you configured for these machines?
A. User access password B. Remote access password C. Admin password D. Supervisor password |
The user password option enables you to establish password access to the systems that you can share with your employees. The supervisor password is required to keep the users from accessing the CMOS settings. This will prevent other employees from accessing the systems without giving your employees access to the CMOS setup utility.
|
|
|
Which of the following are valid AMD processors?
A. Athlon B. Celeron C. K6 D. K9 |
A. Athlon
& C. K6 |
|
|
Which of the following runs at a 66 MHz motherboard speed?
A. Pentium III 500 B. Pentium IV C. Pentium II 300 D. 80386 |
C. Pentium II 300
|
|
|
Which of the following processors runs at a 100 MHz motherboard speed?
A. Pentium III 500 B. XT C. Pentium I D. 80386 |
A. Pentium III 500
|
|
|
Your processor fan has malfunctioned. What result might you expect?
|
If your processor fan has failed or malfunctioned, your system may lock up or "halt," and your processor may suffer irreversible damage due to overheating.
|
|
|
The AMD Duron processor was developed with what type of workstation in mind?
|
The AMD Duron processor was developed for midrange workstations.
|
|
|
What should you always put your processor and other components in when storing or transporting?
|
An antistatic ESD bag will protect your processor as well as other electronic computer components from electrostatic discharge.
|
|
|
You are considering upgrading your processor. What must you also consider for this upgrade?
|
You may need to add a VRM depending upon the voltage requirement of your new processor.
|
|
|
To provide faster access to memory and provide better overall application and system support, CPU manufacturers have added this to newer processors. What is it?
|
The L3 cache addition to newer processors has dramatically increased the speed at which a processor, or dual processors, can access stored information.
|
|
|
Which of the following processor lines have products that use Socket 478 technology?
A. Pentium 4 (Northwood) B. Celeron C. Duron D. Pentium 3 |
A. Pentium 4 (Northwood)
& B. Celeron |
|
|
Teh first series of Pentium 4 processors had how much L2 cache?
|
256 KB
The first Pentium 4's were enabled with 256 K of L2 cache, which has since been updated to 512 KB. |
|
|
Which of these are necessary in a liquid cooling system?
A. Radiator/fan B. Heat sink fan combination C. Water block D. Water filter |
A liquid cooling system requires a radiator (with fan to help dissipate heat from the radiator), tubing, a water reservoir, and a water block (which acts as a sort of heat sink for the processor, that water flows through a radiator/fan and a water block. The water block as the primary cooling device replaces a heat sink fan combination for the CPU in a liquid cooling setup. Although a water filter sounds good in theory, the water/coolant must be changed out routinely to avoid algae/mineral deposits.
|
|
|
You have recently overclocked your boss's computer to achieve faster rates of performance and possibly result in a big raise for you. Unfortunately, her computer is now freezing and rebooting constantly. What is most likely the cause of this problem?
|
One of the most common problems associated with overclocking is a failed processor fan that cannot support cooling the processor running at the higher rate of speed. This can result in a failing processor, which in turn can cause a system to freeze and or reboot continuously.
|
|
|
Which processor introduced the concept of Hyperthreading.
|
Pentium 4 introduced Hyperthreading, which is Intel's trademark for the implementation of the simultaneous multithreading technology on the Pentium 4 series of microprocessors.
|
|
|
The Itanium II uses which socket and runs at which speeds?
|
Socket 611
900 MHz - 1.0 GHz |
|
|
Which of the following are used for computer system cooling purposes?
A. Thermal compounds B. CPU fans C. Heat sinks D. Motherboard form factors E. All of the above |
E. All of the above
|
|
|
Which IC pin is used to align a microprocessor for insertion in a socket?
|
There are notches and dots on the various ICs that provide important alignment keys when a microprocessor is replaced. These notches and dots specify the location of pin 1. This pin must be lined up with the pin-1 notch of the socket.
|
|
|
Which system component executes software instructions and carries out arithmetic operations for the system?
|
The microprocessor is the major component of any system board. It can be thought of as the "brains" of the computer system because it reads, interprets, and executes software instructions and also carries out arithmetic and logical operations for the system.
|
|
|
To obtain higher performance levels from their systems, gamers typically configure their systems to drive the microprocessors at higher speeds than the manufacturers suggest. What is this practice called?
Hyperthreading Processor throttling Overclocking Speed stepping |
Overclocking is the practice of manually configuring the microprocessor clock to run at a higher speed than the IC manufacturer suggests, to squeeze additional performance out of the system.
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a component of a Pentium II SEC cartridge?
Processor core Tag RAM 262-contact socket interface L2 burst SRAM |
The Pentium II's proprietary 242-contact socket design is referred to as the Slot 1 specification.
|
|
|
AMD Athlon 64 processors provide HyperTransport technology. How does this make the AMD systems different from comparable Intel Core Duo systems?
|
The AMD multicore technology also changed the front-side bus arrangement found in existing Pentium/PCI systems. This portion of the system has been redesigned in a Direct Connect Architecture that directly connects the processors, the memory controller, and the Hypertransport (I/O) controller to the CPU through the Crossbar Switch portion of the System Request Interface inside the processor. This gives the processors direct on-chip access to the 128-bit ECC memory controller (in contrast to having to access an external bus to get to the North Bridge).
|
|
|
Which types of system board sockets can accept a Pentium III microprocessor?
Slot 1 Super Socket 7 Socket 370 Socket A |
Slot 1 and Socket 370
|
|
|
Which processors can be used in a Socket 370 system?
Pentium MMX, Celeron Celeron, Pentium III Pentium III, Pentium 4 Celeron, Duron |
Later versions of the Pentium III and Celeron processors were developed for the Intel Socket 370 specification.
|
|
|
Which microprocessor can use a Slot 1 connection?
Athlon K7/550 Duron/600 Celeron/266 Pentium Pro |
Initially, the Celeron was packaged in the Slot 1 (SECC) cartridge.
|
|
|
Which advanced microprocessor architecture enables multiple program segments to be run in different sections of the processor simultaneously to fool the operating system into thinking that two processors are available?
|
Intel's hyperthreading architecture enables multiple program threads to be run in different sections of a single processor simultaneously. Basically, this structure fools the operating system into thinking that two processors are available for use.
|
|
|
What is the appropriate socket for the Pentium II microprocessor?
|
The Pentium II used Slot 1.
|
|
|
You are trying out your new Dual Core Pentium, Windows XP Professional-based notebook computer on a long flight when you notice in System Properties that the system is reporting the wrong processor speed. What should you do?
|
Nothing, the system has throttled back to save power.
|
|
|
What is the appropriate socket for the Pentium 4 microprocessor?
|
The Pentium 4 uses Socket 423 or Socket 478.
|
|
|
What is the appropriate socket for the Duron microprocessor?
|
The Duron uses Socket A.
|
|
|
What is the appropriate socket for a new dual-core Intel microprocessor?
|
All the current and planned dual-core processors from Intel are designed to use a new type of socket called the Land Grid Array (LGA) 775, also referred to as Socket-T.
|
|
|
The unofficial overclocking record for a Pentium 4 processor is 8.32GHz. The overclocking team that accomplished this record pushed the processor's internal clock multiplier to 16. At what speed did the FSB run in this machine?
|
The internal x16 multiplier setting required to achieve a core operating speed of 8.32GHz means that the clock signal the noncore portions of the processor were using (which is also the system clock and the FSB clock) was running at 520MHz (8320/16). The quad-pumped bus signaling technique used by the Pentium 4 provided a maximum theoretical transfer rate of 2080MT/s.
|
|
|
Which processor can be used in a Slot A system board?
|
The Athlon K7 version runs between 500MHz and 700MHz, provides a 128KB L1 cache and a 512KB L2 cache, employs a 100MHz system bus, and uses Slot A.
|
|
|
What is the actual clock frequency of a dual core Pentium D 915 with a quad-pumped FSB running at 800MT/s?
|
Quad pumping a bus (also referred to as a quad data rate or a double data rate 2 bus) transfers data four times during a clock cycle. This means that an FSB featuring an 800MT/s (also commonly referred to as an 800MHz bus) is actually using a bus clock frequency of 200MHz.
|
|
|
Which advanced processor technologies are useful in preventing malicious software programs from taking control of programs and running their own code?
XD-bit technology No-step technology MMX technology NE-bit technology |
XD-bit and NE-bit technology
|
|
|
A technician installs a 2 GB hard drive and proceeds to run the FDISK utility. FDISK only shows a 540 MB hard drive. What action did not take place?
|
The BIOS was never updated.
When installing a new hard drive, it is important to verify that your hard drive settings have been updated in the system BIOS settings. If your BIOS settings for your hard drive are set to AUTO (autodetect), the full capacity of your hard drive should be recognized. |
|
|
What is the maximum number of devices, not including the SCSI controller card, that can be attached to a fast-wide SCSI-2 bus?
|
A fast-wide SCSI-2 bus can support up to 15 devices not including the SCSI controller card. SCSI-1 can support 7 devices.
|
|
|
Wha tis the order of priorities on a SCSI-2 chain?
|
0 - 15
|
|
|
Your computer made a grinding noise and then the screen goes blank. What is the most probable cause?
|
The read/write heads crashed onto the hard drive's platter.
|
|
|
You have noticed that your system is running slower over time, and you also notice several bad sectors. What two utilities would you run to rectify this situation?
|
ScanDisk with the Thorough option and Defrag.
If you are developing bad sectors on your hard drive, it is a good idea to run ScanDisk and select the Thorough option in the ScanDisk settings options. Running Defrag will place the files stored on your hard drive in contiguous order resulting in better file access performance. |
|
|
You want to add a second IDE hard drive to your system. You only have one IDE controller on your motherboard. The controller is already connected to a hard drive and a CD-ROM. What would you do?
|
Install an IDE add-on card.
If your motherboard does not have an IDE/ATA interface, or your system only has one IDE controller, you can purchase an IDE add-on expansion card, such as a PCI card that supports this technology. This will allow you to have up to four devices. |
|
|
You install a 5.25-inch floppy drive. When you power the computer on, the floppy drive light stays on. Where did you go wrong?
|
You plugged the floppy drive cable in backwards.
|
|
|
You power your computer on and receive a "Bad or missing operating system" message. What is most likely the cause of this message?
|
You have a missing or corrupt boot sector.
If your boot sector becomes damaged or corrupt, you will most likely receive a "Bad or missing operating system" error message. |
|
|
A SCSI adapter card can be used with which available expansion slots?
A. PCI B. VL-Bus C. EISA D. USB E. AGP |
A, B, and C
A SCSI adapter card can be plugged into any available PCI, VESA local (VL-Bus), EISA, or ISA expansion slots. |
|
|
A technician installs a brand new hard drive and attempts to format the drive. Unfortunately, the technician receives a message stating, "Invalid media type." What should the technician do?
|
Use the FDISK utility.
You will need to use the FDISK utility to repartition the drive and set the active partition. |
|
|
Which of the following hard drive settings are stored in the CMOS?
A. RMA, HDD, LBA B. Manufacturer, ship date, RMA C. Cylinders, heads, and sectors D. Jumper settings, HDD backup E. HDD, LVD, and HVD F. All of the above |
C. Cylinders, heads, and sectors
If the CMOS hard drive settings are set to auto-detect, the hard drive or drives should be detected for you. If not, you will have to manually set the drive's geometry, including the number of cylinders, sectors, and heads in the CMOS settings. |
|
|
This serial standard is faster than parallel ATA. It is a hot-swappable, point-to-point standard that offers a maximum cable length of 3 feet. What is the standard being described?
|
SATA
The Serial ATA (SATA) specification is a serial link point-to-point disk-interface connection standard that was developed by the Serial ATA Working Group to overcome some of the limitations of ATA (parallel) specifications. SATA is a point-to-point connection that uses a special SATA serial cable. |
|
|
What type of connector does SATA use?
|
SATA uses a 7-pin connector that is much more compact than a traditional ATA connector.
|
|
|
What do you need to run in Ultra ATA/100 mode?
|
An operating system that can handle DMA transfers
An Ultra ATA-capable 40 pin, 80-conductor cable An Ultra ATA/100-compatible device An Ultra ATA/100-capable system board and BIOS An OS that can handle DMA transfers. *Windows 95 (OSR2), 98, Windows Me, Windows 2000, Windows XP and Vista are all capable of this. |
|
|
Low Voltage Differential (LVD) is the new data transmission standard for SCSI devices. Which of the following choices describe LVD?
A. LVD uses 3.3V or 1.5V, which replaces the standard +5V. B. LVD uses a dual wire system and filters noise more effectively. C. LVD allows for the use of longer data cables. D. LVD's autosensing feature is called multimode operation. E. All of the above |
E. All of the above.
|
|
|
What does active termination use to control the impedance of a data signal at both ends of a SCSI bus?
|
Voltage Requlator
Active termination uses a voltage regulator to control the impedance at both ends of a SCSI bus. More stable than passive termination, active termination actually maintains a certain amount of impedance. |
|
|
What does passive termination use at the end of a SCSI bus to reduce reflection?
|
Terminating Resistor
Passive termination uses a terminating resistor at the end of a SCSI bus to reduce the amount of reflection. |
|
|
What was the original standard for SCSI interfaces called?
|
SE
The original SCSI standard for SCSI interfaces was named single ended (SE) SCSI. This specification for SCSI devices proved very susceptible to noise and did not offer long SCSI cable lengths. |
|
|
Which RAID level provides the best level of fault tolerance and performance?
|
Raid 5
RAID level 5 places parity information across all disks in an array. It provides the best combination of fault tolerance and performance of the popular RAID implementations. |
|
|
You are upgrading a system with two new hard drives. One is 120 GB, and the other is 200 GB. You want the 200 GB drive to be the master, and you want both drives on the same IDE channel. How do you configure the master/slave settings on an IDE bus channel?
|
Jumper settings on the hard drive.
Hard drive master/slave configurations are determined by the jumper settings on the hard drives. There can only be two IDE devices attached to one IDE bus. That is why most systems have two IDE controllers so that up to four IDE devices can be attached to a system. For more IDE devices, you could purchase an IDE expansion board. |
|
|
You are a certified A+ Technician. Your apprentice, who states he has the A+ credentials, has just installed two drives on a secondary IDE controller channel. Unfortunately, when the system boots, neither of the drives are recognized. What would you do first to solve this problem?
|
Check the master\slave configuration settings on both of the drives and the IDE cables.
|
|
|
You are upgrading a system that currently has four IDE devices. A DVD drive and three hard drives. You want to add three more IDE hard drives to the system for RAID purposes. How many IDE controllers will be required to support all of the IDE devices you need in this system?
|
4
As mentioned earlier, most systems have two IDE controllers so that up to four IDE devices can be attached to a system. In this case, you would need to get an IDE expansion card to increase the number of IDE controllers. Because one controller can support two devices, you would need four controllers to support the seven IDE devices total you want installed. |
|
|
Four users at your administrative office have been given USB removable hard drives to back up and secure their important data. They all have fairly new systems and use multiple USB devices such as mice and keyboards. You need to implement a solution to support the new USB hard drives the users have been given. What should you do?
|
Get a USB hub (self-powered), and attach the USB devices to it.
USB hard drives typically use .ore power than is available through a bus-powered USB hub |
|
|
What are hard and floppy-disk drive tracks are composed of?
|
Each track on the hard drive is divided into equal-size sectors that contain 512 bytes.
|
|
|
What is the average storage capacity of an optical CD-ROM disc?
|
The average storage capacity of a CD-ROM disc is about 680MB.
|
|
|
Which type of interface would you normally expect to encounter when installing an external CD-ROM drive in a newer PC?
|
Most newer external CD-ROM drives employ USB interface connectors.
|
|
|
Which of these configurations can be set on an IDE drive?
Master Primary Single Slave |
Master, Primary, and Slave
Most IDE drives come from the manufacturer configured for operation as a single drive or as the master drive in a multidrive system. To install the drive as a second, or slave, drive it is usually necessary to install, remove, or move a jumper. |
|
|
How is IDE support provided for system boards that have integrated IDE controllers?
|
Through the BIOS firmware.
|
|
|
What is the maximum permissible length for a standard SCSI daisy chain, including the internal cable?
|
Maximum recommended length for a complete standard SCSI chain is 20 feet (6 meters).
|
|
|
How many devices can be daisy chained on a single standard SCSI controller?
|
A system's first SCSI controller can handle up to seven devices; an additional SCSI controller can boost the system to support up to 14 SCSI devices.
|
|
|
What is the maximum permissible length for a standard SCSI cable segment?
|
A maximum single SCSI segment of less than 3 feet (1 meter) is recommended.
|
|
|
If you are working on an older Pentium system board that supports four PATA drives, how could you install two large HDDs, a CD-ROM/DVD drive, a CD-writer drive, and an IDE tape drive?
|
The older system described in the question employs a two-channel IDE system-level interface that supports up to four PATA devices. The only reasonable option for adding the number and types of devices described in the question to the system is to install a SATA adapter card.
|
|
|
How many SCSI devices can be attached to a Wide SCSI host adapter?
|
A Wide SCSI controller can control up to 15 additional devices.
|
|
|
What is the maximum length for an external standard SCSI daisy chain?
|
Maximum recommended length for a complete standard SCSI chain is 20 feet (6 meters). You can realistically count on about 3–5 feet of internal cable, so reduce the maximum total length of the chain to about 15 feet (4.5 meters).
|
|
|
What is the maximum permissible length for a Fast SCSI daisy chain?
|
The Fast SCSI (Fast SCSI-2) specification allows transfers of up to 10MBps and reduces the maximum length of the SCSI chain to about 10 feet. Fast SCSI allows up to seven devices to be connected using a 50-pin connector.
|
|
|
An internal SCSI ribbon cable is outfitted with what type of connector?
|
The SCSI interface uses a 50-pin flat ribbon cable for internal connections.
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a valid SCSI connector?
25-pin D-shell 34-pin Centronics 50-pin Centronics 68-pin Centronics |
34-pin Centronics
|
|
|
Which part of the system is responsible for assigning drive letters to IDE drives?
|
IDE Controller
Under Microsoft operating systems, the primary partitions of multiple IDE hard drives are assigned the first logical drive identifiers. If a single IDE drive is partitioned into two logical drives, the system will identify them as the C: drive and the D: drive. If a second IDE drive is added as a slave drive with two additional logical drives, the system will reassign the partitions on the first drive to be logical drives C: and E:, and the partitions on the slave drive will be D: and F:. |
|
|
On an ATX system board that integrates the PATA interface connections into the board, how many devices can be attached to each interface connection?
|
2
The EIDE controller supplies two IDE interfaces that can each handle a master and a slave device in a daisy-chained configuration. |
|
|
How many wires are in a standard IDE signal cable?
|
40
The IDE interface used a single 40-pin ribbon cable to connect the hard drive to the host adapter card or system board and supported a maximum throughput of 8.3MBps. |
|
|
Which of the following devices is based on flash-memory technology?
SD cards Floppy disks CD-ROMs DVDs |
SD Cards
Secure Digital (SD) is a flash-memory-card format used in a variety of different portable devices, including digital cameras, notebook computers, and PDAs. |
|
|
What is the mechanism in a CD/DVD ROM drive that is responsible for positioning the drive's read mechanism in the correct position?
|
The Actuator motor.
Like magnetic drives, CD-ROM drives have an actuator motor that moves the laser/detector read or read/write module in and out under the disc to position it in the correct place for reading (or writing). |
|
|
What part of a hard drive actually retrieves the information stored on the magnetic disk?
|
The R/W head mechanism.
To perform a read or write operation, the address of the particular track and sector to be accessed is applied to a stepper motor or voice coil, which moves a Read/Write (R/W) head over the desired track. As the desired sector passes beneath the R/W head, the data transfer occurs. |
|
|
What are floppy disks generally used for in newer PCs?
|
Although many new PC systems do not include a floppy-disk drive as a standard component, many operating systems have provisions for creating an Emergency Start or Emergency Repair disk based on a floppy disk. These disks are designed to be used for booting the failing system to a command prompt when the operating system or hard-disk drive is not functioning properly.
|
|
|
Which of the following types of cables can be used to connect hard drives to a typical BTX system board?
EIDE SATA SCSI IEEE-1394 |
EIDE and SATA
Most newer system boards offer built-in EIDE and SATA drive connections as standards for connecting disk drives to the system. |
|
|
What is the default address used by the primary IDE controller?
|
1F0h
C000-C7FFF is used for the video adapter memory address. 378h is the memory address reserved for LPT1. 3F8h is the memory address reserved for COM1. |
|
|
What is the default address used by the secondary IDE controller?
|
170h
1F0h is the memory address reserved for the primary IDE controller. 3F8h is the memory address reserved for COM1. 378h is the memory address reserved for LPT1. |
|
|
What is the default I/O address for COM2?
|
2F8h
170h is reserved for the secondary IDE controller. 1F0h is the memory address reserved for the primary IDE controller. 378h is the memory address reserved for LPT1. |
|
|
The floppy drive controller uses which DMA channel?
|
DMA channel 2
DMA channels 1 and 7 are available. DMA channel 4 is used for the second DMA controller (cascades to DMA channels 0-3). |
|
|
How many devices can you chain to a single IDE controller or channel?
|
Two devices can be attached to a single IDE controller. For example, the first device attached to the primary IDE controller would be your master or primary hard drive. The second device attached to your primary IDE/ATA controller is your slave or secondary device.
|
|
|
Which IRQ is reserved for the system timer?
|
IRQ 0 is reserved for the system timer.
IRQ 1 is reserved for a standard 101/102 keyboard. IRQ 2 is an interrupt controller (cascaded to IRQ 9). IRQ 9 is cascaded to IRQ 2. |
|
|
Which of the following are valid touchscreen technologies?
A. Capacitive B. Conducive C. Resistive D. Surface Wave E. Switch F. All of the above |
A, C, and D
Common touch screen technologies include capacitive, resistive, and surface wave technologies. |
|
|
What is the most common way to transfer information between 2 PDAs?
|
The most common methods used today to transfer information from one PDA to another PDA are through IR (Infrared)/IrDA (Infrared Data Association) or Bluetooth (Wireless specification standard).
|
|
|
Which of the following ports are most often used when connecting digital cameras to a computer system?
A. SCSI Port B. Port 25 C. USB Port D. Parallel Port E. IEEE 1394 compliant Port F. Port 1099 |
C and E
Most digital cameras are connected to a computer system using a USB port or serial port that is IEEE 1394 compliant. |
|
|
A laptop user using a docking station at work calls you and states that he cannot connect to the network and his LCD screen is "all messed up." What is most likely the problem?
|
One of the most common mistakes made by laptop users is choosing the wrong hardware profile when a system is booted. If you choose a docked profile when the laptop is undocked or vice versa, it is likely that the wrong device drivers will be loaded for video, mouse, keyboard, network, printing, or sound.
|
|
|
Which devices is similar to a docking station with the exception that it doesn't provide extra slots for storage and expansion cards?
|
Port Replicators
|
|
|
Which of the following battery types suffer from the phenomenon known as memory effect?
A. Lithium ion B. NiMH C. NiCad D. Copper tip E. Silver bunny battery F. All of the above |
C. NiCad
Earlier NiCad batteries suffered from a phenomenon known as memory effect. For example, if these battery types are recharged before most of their power is used up, they will lose their capability to become fully charged. |
|
|
What type of battery produces hydrogen that is converted methanol or alcohol and was intended to replace the lithium ion battery?
|
A fuel cell produces hydrogen that is converted from methanol or alcohol. It was proposed that fuel cell would replace the popular lithium ion batteries used in most laptops computer systems. It lasts up to 10 hours without a need to recharge.
|
|
|
Your client wants you to purchase a laptop for him that has the longest battery life. Which of the following offers the longest battery life?
A. Lithium Ion B. NiMH C. NiCad D. Copper tip E. Duracell F. Nickel-Metal-Hydride |
In a nutshell, the battery of choice for most laptops is Li-Ion or Lithium Ion. Lithium Ions do not suffer from memory effects, are light, and have a long battery life.
|
|
|
Your client plugs his laptop into a wall outlet while at work and unplugs it while on the road. The client is now experiencing problems. When he unplugs the laptop it immediately shuts down. What is most likely the problem?
|
It is a sure sign that the laptop battery is no longer holding a charge and should be replaced.
|
|
|
You have been asked to upgrade memory, modems, NICs, and hard drives for your client's roaming sales force. What types of PCMCIA expansion cards will you need to consider?
|
For NICs, modems, and hard drives, the three main PCMCIA card types are Type 1, which are 3.3 mm thick and used for memory; Type II, which are 5.0 mm thick and used for NIC cards, modems, and other peripherals; and Type III, which are 10.5 mm thick and used for hard disk drives.
|
|
|
You have been asked to by the senior administrator to update the drivers in several scanners around your building. Which type of software driver should you be familiar with before attempting this specific task?
|
Today, most scanners use a very common driver known as TWAIN. The TWAIN driver interprets the data between the programs used to scan and communicate with the actual scanner itself.
|
|
|
A client calls and states that users in a remote location are tired of all the cables and wires required to connect to printers and various other peripherals around the office. Which of the following technologies could you offer the client as a possible solution to resolve this issue?
|
Bluetooth technology
|
|
|
At what frequencies do Bluetooth devices operate?
|
2.4 to 2.48 GHz
|
|
|
What does a digitizer do?
|
A digitizer converts analog signals into digital representations of the original analog signal. For example, you use a stylus and tap or write on a digitizer.
|
|
|
Which device or port uses IRQ8 in a PC-compatible system?
|
IRQ8 is used by the system as the Real-Time Clock interrupt.
|
|
|
At what I/O port addresses does the system communicate with the primary hard disk (IDE) controller?
|
1F0-1f7
|
|
|
Which of the following types are valid types of memory modules?
A. ZIMM B. SwapSIM C. RIMM D. DIMM E. ZDRIMM F. SIMM |
C. RIMM
D. DIMM F. SIMM |
|
|
Of the following types of RAM, which is the fastest?
A. Page Fault RAM B. FPM DRAM C. EDO RAM D. Swap File RAM |
C. EDO RAM
Page Fault RAM and Swap File RAM are fictional names. |
|
|
Which type of memory is internal to the processor?
|
Level 1 cache is considered primary cache and is internal or built-in to the processor itself.
|
|
|
Which type of memory uses burst mode to send data.
A. CD-RW RAM B. SDRAM C. High-Speed RAM D. Coast RAM |
B. SDRAM
|
|
|
How many DIMMS are required per memory bank on a motherboard?
|
DIMMS can be installed in units of 1 (one module) per memory bank.
|
|
|
A kilobyte is equal to how many bytes?
|
1,024 bytes
|
|
|
A megabyte is equal to how many bytes?
|
1,048,576 bytes
|
|
|
A gigabyte is equal to how many bytes?
|
1,073,741,824 bytes
|
|
|
Which memory modules are specifically designed for laptop computers?
|
A SODIMM is a smaller DIMM specifically designed for laptop computers. There are two major types of SODIMMS. They come on a module that is 72 pins with a transfer rate of 32 bits or a module with 144 pins at a transfer rate of 64 bits.
|
|
|
What would a technician use WRAM for?
|
WRAM is used for video.
|
|
|
What is true about DDR2?
A. Not backward compatible with DDR B. Packaged in a 240-pin memory module C. Is backward compatible with DDR D. Mainly used in game consoles E. Memory used in mobile devices |
A. Not backward compatible with DDR
B. Packaged in a 240-pin memory module |
|
|
What is GDDR3 and GDDR4?
|
GDDR3 and GDDR4 are graphics card memory specifications developed by ATI Technologies. These types of memory target mainly game consoles such as PlayStations and Xbox 360. MDDR, also called Mobile DDR SDRAM, is memory used in mobile devices such as PDAs, cell phones, and music players.
|
|
|
You have been asked by a client to upgrade the memory in several company laptop systems. Which of the following are valid types of memory that may be options for the laptops?
A. 160-pin SODIMM B. 100-pin SODIMM C. 144-pin SODIMM D. 200-pin SODIMM E. 72-pin SODIMM |
B, C, D, AND E
SODIMMS come in packaging of 72-, 100-, 144- or 200-pins. |
|
|
You need to upgrade the memory in several client computer systems using 240-pin memory modules. What type of memory will you be installing?
|
You will be installing DIMMS. Remember, 240-pin DIMMS are used for DDR2 SDRAM. SIMMs are older memory types that came in 30-pin and 72-pin packages.
|
|
|
You receive a call from a client stating that a system is low on virtual memory. What two options should you consider to rectify this issue?
|
Increase the size of the paging file and add more RAM to the system.
|
|
|
Which type of memory is volatile?
|
RAM is a volatile type of memory; its contents disappear when power is removed from the memory.
|
|
|
Which type of memory is nonvolatile?
|
Read-only memory (ROM). ROM is used to contain the computer's permanent startup programs and any other information that needs to always be available to the system (or that never changes). ROM is nonvolatile and its contents remain with or without power being applied.
|
|
|
When you are discussing the memory capacity of a memory module, what is the capacity is specified in?
|
Bytes
Although the capacity of the module is specified in bytes, the geometry of the device involves an x-by-y format that corresponds to word size. A 512MB memory module designed to work directly with a 64-bit microprocessor would be designed to deliver data in 8-byte words (64-bitsx8 million words). Under this format, the capacity of the device (in bytes) is derived by multiplying the two numbers and then dividing by 8 (or 9 for parity chips). |
|
|
Which of the following qualifies memory as volatile?
The data disappears if the power goes off. The data will not disappear if the power goes off. The data is rewritable. The component is a potential fire hazard. |
All RAM systems have the disadvantage of being volatile. This means that any data stored in RAM will be lost if power to the computer is disrupted for any reason.
|
|
|
What is the process of recharging a DRAM's memory bits called?
Strobe Latency Refresh Survey |
DRAM requires periodic refreshing to maintain data, even if electrical power is applied to the chip.
|
|
|
What is the term used to describe the method of checking memory for errors by adding a status bit to each byte?
|
The most popular form of error detection in PC compatibles is parity checking. In this method, an extra bit is added to each byte in RAM and checked each time it is used. Parity checking is a simple self-test used to detect RAM read-back errors. Like refreshing, parity checking requires additional circuitry and memory overhead to operate.
|
|
|
What type of system error will a memory parity error create?
A fatal exception error An NMI error A corrupt Windows operating system file A GPF error |
When a parity error occurs, an NMI signal is co-generated in the system, causing the BIOS to execute its NMI handler routine. This routine will normally place a parity error message onscreen, along with an option to shut down the system or to continue. In other cases, the system will show a short memory count during the POST and lock up without an error message. Another possibility is that the system will count the memory, lock up, and reboot itself. If the memory error occurs in the higher addresses of the physical memory device, this situation can occur after the operating system and applications have been loaded and started running.
|
|
|
What method is used to correct single-bit errors in RAM?
Refreshing Parity ECC Latency |
An ECC memory module has the capability to detect and correct a single-bit error or to detect errors in two bits.
|
|
|
Where is the L1 cache located in a PC system?
|
On the microprocessor die. The microprocessor's internal first-level cache is also known as an L1 cache.
|
|
|
How many total bits need to be stored in RAM to provide parity for a 64-bit data bus?
|
DIMMs come in 72-bit versions that include a parity checking bit for each byte of storage (for example, a 72-bit DIMM provides 64 data bits and 8 parity bits—one for each byte of data).
|
|
|
What are the possible effects of mixing RAM modules with different speed ratings?
|
Installing slower RAM or mixing RAM speed ratings within a system may cause it not to start or to periodically lock up. At the very least, the system will recognize the different RAM types and operate at the speed of the slower device.
|
|
|
If the RAM count presented during the POST does not equal the amount of RAM actually installed in the system, what type(s) of problem is the system having?
|
The system may have an incorrect RAM module installed in a split-bank system board arrangement. Using wrong RAM speed or mixed RAM types can cause the system to lock up, but should not produce a short RAM count. The system could also have a bad RAM module installed.
|
|
|
What is Cache memory used for?
|
Cache memory is used for increasing the speed of data access. One method of increasing the memory-access speed of a computer is called caching.
|
|
|
Which of the following are types of RAM?
RDRAM ECC SDRAM CAS DRAM ASYNC RAM |
RDRAM and ECC SDRAM are both types of actual RAM modules. There are no such devices as CAS DRAMs or ASYNC RAMs.
|
|
|
What is the effective clock speed for a PC1600 DDR DIMM?
|
The effective clock speed of the memory module (200MHz) is the data transfer rate of 1600MBps divided by the bus size (8 bytes).
|
|
|
Which type of memory is considered volatile?
|
RAM
|
|
|
What distinctive feature enables you to quickly identify an Ultra ATA/66 interface cable?
|
The cable has 40 wires.
|
|
|
Which of these standard SCSI devices has the highest priority?
SCSI ID=0 SCSI ID=1 SCSI ID=6 SCSI ID=7 |
SCSI ID=7
The priority levels assigned to SCSI devices are determined by their ID numbers, with the highest numbered device receiving the highest priority. Each SCSI device in a chain must have a unique ID number assigned to it. |
|
|
Which SCSI ID is typically used for the system's internal hard-disk drive?
|
SCSI ID=0
|
|
|
Which SCSI ID is typically used for the system's SCSI adapter?
|
SCSI ID=7
|
|
|
After installing a scanner at the end of a SCSI daisy chain, you discover that neither the new scanner nor your existing SCSI CD-ROM drive is working. What is likely to be the problem?
|
Both devices are using the same SCSI ID.
|
|
|
When you install SCSI devices in a system, which device or devices should be terminated in the chain?
|
The first and the last SCSI devices. The SCSI daisy chain must be terminated at both ends.
|
|
|
What is the highest drive letter that can be assigned to a logical drive in a FAT-based system?
|
Z
The extended partitions may be subdivided into 23 logical drives (all the letters in the alphabet minus a, b, and c). |
|
|
If you connect four two-partition IDE drives to a system board, what will the drive designation be for the primary partition on the master drive of the secondary IDE controller?
|
E: drive
The hierarchy of assigning logical drive designations in the IDE interface calls for primary partitions to be assigned sequentially from IDE1 master, IDE1 slave, IDE2 master, to IDE2 slave. This is followed by assigning drive letters to the extended partitions for each drive in the same order. |
|
|
What describes th typical configuration-setting otpions associated with an IDE drive?
|
Master and Slave configuration.
|
|
|
You are preparing to install new adapter cards in a desktop PC. Which action should you take first?
|
Unplug the computer from the AC power source.
|
|
|
How do you install dual monitors on a Windows-XP laptop PC?
|
Click the Display icon in the Control Panel and configure the settings for multiple monitors on the Settings tab.
|
|
|
What is the native file system for Windows 2000?
|
NTFS5
All Windows 2000 and Windows XP versions are capable of using different file management systems including File Allocation Table-based FAT and FAT32 file systems, as well as Master File Table-based (MFT) NTFS systems. The native file system for Windows 2000 and Windows XP is called NTFS5. |
|
|
If you have a computer using a FAT-based operating system, how many additional logical drives can be created in an extended partition?
|
The extended partition may be subdivided into 23 additional logical drives (all the letters of the alphabet minus a, b, and c).
|
|
|
What multimeter reading would you expect to receive from measuring a good 2-amp fuse?
|
0 ohms
One of the main uses of the resistance function is to test fuses. You must disconnect at least one end of the fuse from the system. You should set the meter on the 1 kilohm resistance setting. If the fuse is good, the meter should read near 0 ohms. If it is bad, the meter reads infinity. |
|
|
What multimeter reading should you expect from measuring a good speaker?
|
8 ohms
Disconnect the speaker from the system and connect a meter lead to each end. If the speaker is good, the meter should read near 8 ohms (although some smaller speakers may be 4 ohms). |
|
|
What multimeter reading would you expect from an open speaker.
|
infinite reading
If the speaker is defective, the resistance reading should be 0 for shorts or infinite for opens. |
|
|
What are the voltages that should be expected when testing a PC?
|
The DC voltages that can normally be expected in a PC-compatible system are +12V, +5V, –5V, and –12V. The actual values for these readings may vary by 5% in either direction.
|
|
|
What is the most important factor to consider when assessing the situation at a new troubleshooting call?
|
The user.
The most important thing to do when checking a malfunctioning device is to be observant. Begin by talking to the person who reported the problem. You can obtain many clues from this person. Careful listening also is a good way to eliminate the user as a possible cause of the problems. Part of the technician's job is to determine whether the user could be the source of the problem—either trying to do things with the system that it cannot do or not understanding how some part of it is supposed to work. |
|
|
What type of problem causes a "Press F1 to Continue" error message to be displayed?
|
The system needs to be reconfigured. The system has encountered invalid configuration information during the bootup process. Either the configuration has been set up incorrectly, or the hardware was unable to confirm the configuration settings.
|
|
|
What type of computer component can you usually replace in the field?
|
FRUs
Field-replaceable units (FRUs) are portions of the system that you can conveniently replace in the field. These are typically components that can be exchanged for a replacement onsite and require no actual repair work. |
|
|
What event marks the transition from basic hardware problems to bootup problems?
|
A single beep sound between the end of POST and the beginning of the bootup process.
|
|
|
What questions should you ask the user when you are first examining a defective unit?
|
When first examining a defective unit, gather information from the user regarding the environment the system is being used in, any symptoms or error codes produced by the system, and the situations that existed when the failure occurred.
|
|
|
Which of the following items would not be considered to be an FRU that can be replaced in the field?
Chassis Hard-disk drive CPU Video card |
Chassis
|
|
|
What is the most commonly used repair technique for PC systems?
|
Substitute known good parts for suspected bad components.
|
|
|
What is the most common type of malfunction observed after the installation of a new hardware or software component?
|
Configuration problems.
|
|
|
After the system successfully POSTs, you see the error message "Bad or Missing NTOSKRNL File." What type of problem is this?
|
This message is associated with bootup problems.
|
|
|
What software tools are commonly used by repair technicians?
|
Typical software tools used by computer technicians include emergency boot/start disks to get broken systems started, antivirus utilities, and hardware diagnostic software packages.
|
|
|
Where should cleaning agents be applied to an LCD display on a notebook PC?
|
To a cloth or cleaning rag.
|
|
|
What action can you perform to reduce the number of redundant steps and efforts required to troubleshoot a problem?
|
Document each troubleshooting step and its outcome.
|
|
|
Which of the following actions must you perform first when troubleshooting a customer's equipment?
|
First, you must gather information to identify the nature of the problem. This can involve questioning the user and identifying any changes that have been made to the system. After the problem has been identified, you should assess the problem systematically and divide complex problems into smaller components to be analyzed individually.
|
|
|
What is the first step in checking out electrical equipment that appears dead?
|
Check to see that the power cord is plugged in.
|
|
|
What type of failures are hard-memory errors?
|
Hard-memory errors are permanent physical failures that generate NMI (Non-maskable Interrupt) errors in the system and require that the memory units be checked by substitution.
|
|
|
How can you correct soft-memory errors?
|
You can clear soft-memory errors by restarting the system.
|
|
|
What are the consequences of mixing RAM types and speeds within a system?
|
Mixing RAM types and speeds can cause the system to lock up and produce hard-memory errors.
|
|
|
What are the effects of heat buildup and microprocessor fan failure on the system?
|
The system locks up.
|
|
|
A defective _______ can cause the system to continually lose track of time.
|
"motherbooard battery"
|
|
|
What is a common condition that will produce a keyboard error message?
|
A key is stuck down.
|
|
|
Which of the following connectors are used for devices that can be hot swapped?
5-pin DIN 6-pin PS/2 mini-DIN RS-232C serial port USB port |
USB Port
|
|
|
When you move the cursor across the screen, it randomly jumps and freezes. What should you do to correct this?
|
Clean the mouse.
|
|
|
What are the consequences of installing the FDD cable in reverse?
|
When the FDD signal cable is reversed, the FDD activity light stays on constantly and the boot record on the disk will be erased.
|
|
|
What condition is indicated by the "Missing Operating System" error message?
|
The Master Boot Record (MBR) is missing or corrupt.
|
|
|
What condition is indicated by the "Hard Drive Boot Failure" error message?
|
The Master Boot Record (MBR) is missing or corrupt
|
|
|
How many master drive selections are there for each IDE channel?
|
Only one master drive selection can exist on each IDE channel.
|
|
|
What does mixing IDE drive types on a single signal cable do?
|
Mixing IDE device types will create a situation in which the system cannot provide the different types of control information each device needs. The drives are incompatible, and you may not be able to access either device.
|
|
|
What action can be taken when you encounter an "Invalid Drive" or "Invalid Drive Specification" error message?
|
If the system cannot see the drive after booting to the disk, an Invalid Drive message or an Invalid Drive Specification message may be displayed in response to any attempt to access the drive. First, partition and reformat the drive, and then reinstall an operating system to make the drive usable.
|
|
|
How can a CD be retrieved from a disabled CD-ROM drive?
|
If the CD-ROM drive is inoperable and a CD is locked inside, you should insert a straightened paper clip into the tray-release access hole that's usually located beside the ejection button. This releases the spring-loaded tray and pops out the disc.
|
|
|
What must you do first if you want to troubleshoot a USB problem on a Windows 2000 system?
|
Log on as a member of the Administrators group to be able to use the Windows 2000/XP Device Manager utility.
|
|
|
How can a balance problem that occurs with add-on stereo speakers be corrected?
|
Swap the speaker positions.
|
|
|
You have been sent to a job location where the customer's new printer does not print from the host computer. When you arrive, you find that the computer is running on the Windows 98 operating system and that a print-sharing switch box is inline between the computer and two different printers. The new printer is a laser printer and the old printer is an inkjet printer. The inkjet printer works fine. What action should you take?
|
You should remove the printer-switching mechanism and try to print directly from the computer. The fact that two different types of printers are attached to the port through the switch should indicate that the drivers being used are not correct for the laser printer. However, you should still check the printer directly from the port.
|
|
|
What action should be taken to clear up "fuzzy" characters on a CRT display?
|
There can be several causes of fuzzy characters on the display. The first step in checking out this problem is to reset the display resolution to standard VGA values. If the fuzzy characters remain, check the intensity and contrast controls to see if they are out of adjustment. Finally, you may need to remove built-up electromagnetic fields from the screen through a process called degaussing. This can be done using a commercial degaussing coil; however, newer monitors have built-in degaussing circuits that can be engaged through their front panel controls. These monitors usually perform a degauss operation each time they are turned on; however, sometimes the user may need to perform this operation.
|
|
|
What condition is indicated by the "Invalid Media Type" error message?
|
The drive is not formatted. The controller cannot find a recognizable track/sector pattern on the drive.
|
|
|
When the system boots, you can hear the fans start, and the keyboard and drive lights flicker, but no display appears. What should you do first to troubleshoot this problem?
|
If the video problem produces a blank display, disconnect the monitor's signal cable from its video adapter card. If a raster appears, a video card problem is indicated.
|
|
|
Booting to Windows results in a distorted image that prevents you from manipulating the operating system. What can you do to correct this problem?
|
If the Windows video problem prevents you from seeing the desktop, restart the system, press the F8 function key when the Starting Windows message appears, and select Safe Mode. This should load Windows with the standard 640x480 16-color VGA driver (the most fundamental driver available for VGA monitors) and should furnish a starting point for installing the correct driver for the monitor being used.
|
|
|
An Energy Star-compliant monitor _____________.
|
switches to low-power mode when no signal change occurs for a given period of time.
|
|
|
In newer systems, where are SCSI drive support and large drive support enabled?
|
In the CMOS setup utility.
|
