Csv Import Test

Front 1

A 28 year old chemist presents with MPTP exposure. What NT is depleted?

Back 1

Dopamine do it

Front 2

An African American male who goes to Africa develops hemolytic anemia after taking malaria prophylaxis. What is the enzyme defficiency?

Back 2

Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase culley

Front 3

27 year old female with history of psychiatric illness now has urinary retention due to neuroleptic. What do you treat it with?

Back 3

"Bethanechol. This drug is a cholinomimetic (direct agonist)

Front 4

"Farmer presents with dyspnea

Back 4

salivation

Front 5

"Patient with recent kidney transplant is on cyclosporine for immunosuppresion

Back 5

he requires antifungal agent for candidiasis. What antifungal drug would result in cyclosporine toxicity?"

Front 6

"A man on several medications including antidepressants and antihypertensives

Back 6

has mydriasis and becomes constipated. What is the cause of his symptoms?"

Front 7

55 year old postmenopausal woman on tamoxifen therapy. What is she at increased risk of acquiring?

Back 7

"Endometrial carcinoma. Receptor antagonists in breast

Front 8

Woman on MAO inhibitor has hypertensive crisis after meal. What did she ingest?

Back 8

"Tyramine (wine or cheese). Tyramine can cause the release of stored monoamines

Front 9

"After taking clindamycin

Back 9

patient develops toxic megacolon and diarrhea. What is the mechanism of diarrhea?"

Front 10

"Man starts a medication for hyperlipidemia. He then develops rash

Back 10

pruritus and GI upset. What drug was it?"

Front 11

Patient is on carbamazepine. What routine workup should be done?

Back 11

"LFT's. Carbamazepine is an anti-epileptic that causes diplopia

Front 12

23 year old female who is on rifampin for TB prophylaxis and on birth control (estrogen) gets pregnant. Why?

Back 12

Rifampin augments estrogen metabolism in liver rendering it less effective. Rifampin is an INDUCER of P450s

Front 13

Patient develops cough and must discontinue captopril. What is a good replacement drug and why doesn't it have the same side effects?

Back 13

"Losartan - an angiotensin II receptor antagonist

Front 14

Relates the amount of drug in the body to plasma concentration

Back 14

Vd - volume of distribution. This quantity can be altered by liver and kidney disease

Front 15

Formula for volume of distribution

Back 15

Vd = amount of drug in the body/plasma drug concentration

Front 16

Vd of plasma protein-bound drugs can be altered by what disease?

Back 16

Liver and kidney

Front 17

Relates the rate of elimination to plasma concentration

Back 17

CLEARANCE

Front 18

Formula for clearance

Back 18

Cl = (rate of elimination of drug) / (plasma drug concentration) = Vd x Ke (elimination constant)

Front 19

The time required to change the amount of drug in the body by 1/2 during elimination (or during constant infusion) is called _

Back 19

Half life T1/2

Front 20

After 1 half life concentration of drug equals _ %

Back 20

50%

Front 21

After 2 half lifes concentration of drug equals_

Back 21

75%

Front 22

A drug infused at constant rate reaches about _ % of steady state after 4 T1/2

Back 22

94

Front 23

Formula for T1/2

Back 23

T1/2 = (0.7 * Vd) / CL

Front 24

Loading dose formula

Back 24

"Loading dose = (Cp * Vd) / F

Front 25

F = bioavailibility"

Front 26

Formula for maintenance dose

Back 26

"(Cp * CL) / F

Front 27

F = bioavailibility"

Front 28

"In patients with impaired renal or hepatic function

Back 28

does the loading dose decrease

Front 29

Maintenance dose?"

Back 29

"Loading dose remains unchanged

Front 30

Maintenance dose decreases"

Front 31

What happens to target plasma concentration?"

Back 31

"Zero order elimination

Front 32

Target plasma concentration decreases linearly with time"

Front 33

"

Back 33

"First order elimination

Front 34

Cp decreases exponentially with time"

Front 35

Give examples of drugs with zero order elimination

Back 35

"Ethanol

Front 36

Aspirin (at high or toxic concentration)"

Back 36

PEA

Front 37

"This type of drug is trapped in basic environments

Back 37

and overdoses are treated with bicarbonate."

Front 38

"This type of drug is trapped in acidic environments

Back 38

and overdoses are treated with ammonium chloride."

Front 39

"Phase I metabolism (reduction

Back 39

oxidation

Front 40

What phase of metabolism associated with cytochrome P450?

Back 40

Phase I

Front 41

What phase of metabolism associated with conjugation?

Back 41

Phase II

Front 42

"Phase II metabolism (acetylation

Back 42

glucoronidation

Front 43

Geriatric patients lose which phase of metabolism first?

Back 43

Phase I

Front 44

"""Is it safe? Pharmacokinetics?"" - which phase of clinical testing of the drug?"

Back 44

Phase I

Front 45

"""Does it work in patients?"" - which phase of clinical testing of the drug?"

Back 45

Phase II

Front 46

"""Does it work? Double blind"" - which phase of clinical testing of the drug?"

Back 46

Phase III

Front 47

What happens in phase IV of clinical testing of the drug

Back 47

Postmarketing surveillance

Front 48

A competitive antagonist shifts agonist curve where?

Back 48

To the right. This decreases potency and increases EC50.

Front 49

A noncompetitive antagonist (irreversible) shifts agonist curve where?

Back 49

Downward. This decreases efficacy.

Front 50

Name antibiotics that block cell wall synthesis by inhibition of peptidoglycan cross linking

Back 50

"Penicillin

Front 51

Cephalosporins"

Back 51

A CAP TIP

Front 52

Name antibiotics that block peptidoglycan synthesis

Back 52

"Bacitracin

Front 53

Cycloserine"

Back 53

Vanco Blocks Cynthesis

Front 54

Name antibiotics that block protein synthesis at 50S ribosomal unit

Back 54

"Chloramphenicol

Front 55

Streptogramins (quinupristin

Back 55

dalfopristin)

Front 56

Linezolid"

Back 56

C CELLS

Front 57

Name antibiotics that block protein synthesis at 30S ribosomal unit

Back 57

"Aminoglycosides

Front 58

Tetracyclines"

Back 58

TA ta!

Front 59

Name antibiotics that block nucleotide synthesis

Back 59

"Sulfonamides

Front 60

Trimethoprim"

Back 60

Try Stopping

Front 61

Name antibiotics that block DNA topoisomerase

Back 61

Quinolones

Front 62

Name antibiotic that blocks mRNA synthesis

Back 62

Rifampin

Front 63

Name bactericidal antibiotics

Back 63

"Penicillin

Front 64

Metronidazole"

Front 65

Name drugs that disrupt bacterial/fungal cell membrane

Back 65

Polymyxins

Front 66

Name drugs that disrupt fungal cell membranes

Back 66

"Amphotericin B

Front 67

Flucoconazole/azoles"

Front 68

IV form?"

Back 68

"Penicillin V

Front 69

Penicillin G"

Front 70

Mechanism of penicillin

Back 70

"- Binds penicillin binding proteins

Front 71

- Activates autolytic enzymes"

Front 72

"This antibiotic is bactericidal for gram positive cocci

Back 72

gram positive rods

Front 73

Toxicity of penicillin

Back 73

"Hypersensitivity reactions

Front 74

Hemolytic anemia"

Front 75

"Methicillin

Back 75

nafcillin

Front 76

Penicillinase resistant or not?"

Back 76

"Same as penicillin

Front 77

Penicillinase resistant because of bulkier R groups"

Front 78

"Methcillin

Back 78

nafcillin and dicloxacillin are clinically used for treatment of what bug?"

Front 79

Methicillin toxicity

Back 79

Interstitial nephritis

Front 80

"Methcillin

Back 80

nafcillin

Front 81

"Ampicillin

Back 81

Amoxicillin- mechanism of action

Front 82

Spectrum narrow or wide?"

Back 82

"SAME AS PENICILLIN

Front 83

Penicillinase sensitive"

Front 84

"Ampicillin

Back 84

amoxicillin can be combined with _ to enhance spectrum"

Front 85

Which has greater oral bioavailibility - amoxicillin or ampicillin

Back 85

AmOxicillin has greater Oral bioavailibility

Front 86

Name rods"

Back 86

"HELPS kill enterococci - H influenzae

Front 87

Ampicillin

Back 87

amoxicillin"

Front 88

Toxicity for ampicillin and amoxicillin

Back 88

"Hypersensitivity reactions

Front 89

"Mechanism for carbenicillin

Back 89

pipercillin

Front 90

Spectrum?"

Back 90

"Same as penicillin

Front 91

"Name penicillins used for treatment of Pseudomonas

Back 91

and gram negative rods

Front 92

Can it be used with clavulinic acid"

Back 92

"Carbencillin

Front 93

"Toxicity for carbencillin

Back 93

piperacillin

Front 94

"Beta lactam drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis but are less susceptible to penicillinases

Back 94

bactericidal"

Front 95

"Which cephalosporins target gram positive cocci + Proteus

Back 95

E. coli

Front 96

"Which cephalosporins target gram positive cocci + H. flu

Back 96

Enterobacter

Front 97

"Which cephalosporins target serious gram negative infections resitant to other beta lactams

Back 97

meningitis (most penetrate BBB) - give examples"

Front 98

3d generation cephalosporin used for treatment of Pseudomonas

Back 98

Ceftazidime

Front 99

3d generation cephalosporin used for treatment of gonorrhea

Back 99

Ceftriaxone

Front 100

Which cephalosporins have increased activity agains Psedudomonas and gram positive organisms

Back 100

4th generation

Front 101

Is there cross hypersensitivity between cephalosporins and penicillin

Back 101

"Yes

Front 102

Toxicity for cephalosporins

Back 102

"Hypersensitivity reactions

Front 103

"A monobactam resistant to beta lactamases. Inhibits cell wall synthesis (binds to PBP3)

Back 103

synergistic with aminoglycosides

Front 104

"This antibiotic is used for Gram negative rods (Klebsiella

Back 104

Pseudomonas

Front 105

Is there any toxicity associated with AZTREONAM

Back 105

"Usually nontoxic

Front 106

Broad spectrum beta lactamase resistant carbapenem

Back 106

Imipenem

Front 107

WHY?"

Back 107

"CILASTATIN

Front 108

"Drug of choice for Enterobacter

Back 108

also active against gram positive cocci

Front 109

Toxicity associated with Imipenem/cilastatin

Back 109

"GI distress

Front 110

Inhibits cell wall mucopeptide formation by binding D ala D ala portion of cell wall precursors. Resistance occurs with amino acid change of D ala D ala to D ala D lac

Back 110

VANCOMYCIN

Front 111

"This antibiotic is used for serious gram positive multi drug resistant organisms

Back 111

including S aureus

Front 112

"Diffuse flushing (""red man syndrome"") associated with vancomycin can be largely prevented by?"

Back 112

Pretreatment with antihistamines and slow infusion rate

Front 113

Toxicity for Vancomycin

Back 113

"Nephrotoxicity

Front 114

"Gentamicin

Back 114

neomycin

Front 115

"Bactericidal

Back 115

inhibit formation of initiation complex and cause misreading of mRNA. Require O2 for uptake

Front 116

Which aminoglycoside is used for bowel surgery

Back 116

Neomycin

Front 117

Aminoglycosides are ______ with beta lactams

Back 117

Synergistic

Front 118

Aminoglycosides are clinically used for treatment of _______

Back 118

Severe gram negative rod infections

Front 119

Toxicity of aminoglycosides

Back 119

"Nephrotoxicity (especially with cephalosporins)

Front 120

"Doxycycline

Back 120

demeclocycline

Front 121

"Bacteriostatic

Back 121

bind to 30S and prevent attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA

Front 122

Which tetracycline is fecally eliminated and can be used in patients with renal failure

Back 122

Doxycycline

Front 123

Why?"

Back 123

"Milk

Front 124

Clinical use of tetracyclines

Back 124

"Vibrio cholerae

Front 125

Toxicity of tetracyclines

Back 125

"GI distress

Front 126

"Erythromycin

Back 126

azithromycin

Front 127

"Inhibit protein synthesis by blocking translocation - bind to 23S rRNA of 50S ribosomall subunit

Back 127

bacteriostatic"

Front 128

Clinical use macrolides

Back 128

"URI

Front 129

gram positive cocci (streptococcal infections in patients allergic to penicillin)

Back 129

Mycoplasma

Front 130

Toxicity macrolids

Back 130

"GI discomfort

Front 131

Patient on antibiotic therapy develops acute cholestatic hepatitis - which clas of drug?

Back 131

Macrolides

Front 132

Most common cause of non compliance with macrolides

Back 132

GI discomfort

Front 133

"Inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase

Back 133

bacteriostatic"

Front 134

"This drug is used for treatment of meningitis (H flu

Back 134

N meningitidis

Front 135

Toxicities with chloramphenicol

Back 135

"Anemia (dose dependent)

Front 136

Which drug causes gray baby syndrome and why

Back 136

Chloramphenicol - premature infants because they lack liver UDP-glucuronyl transferase)

Front 137

"Blocks peptide bond formation at 50S ribosomal subunit

Back 137

bacteriostatic"

Front 138

"Which antibiotic is used to treat anaerobic infections (Bacteroides fragilis

Back 138

Clostridium perfringens)"

Front 139

Toxicity associated with clindamycin

Back 139

"Pseudomembranous colitis (C. difficile overgrowth)

Front 140

"PABA antimetabolites inhibit dehydropteorate synthase

Back 140

bacteriostatic"

Front 141

Which sulfonamides are used for treatment of simple UTI

Back 141

Triple sulfas or SMX

Front 142

Clinical use of sulfonamides

Back 142

"Gram positive

Front 143

Toxicity with sulfonamides

Back 143

"Hypersensitivity reactions

Front 144

Antibiotic inhibits dihydropteorate synthase

Back 144

Sulfonamides

Front 145

Antibiotic inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Back 145

"Trimethoprim

Front 146

"Inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductse

Back 146

bacteriostatic"

Front 147

This drug is used in combination with sulfonamides causing sequential block of folate synthesis

Back 147

Trimethoprim

Front 148

"This drug is used for recurrent UTI's

Back 148

Shigella

Front 149

Toxicity of trimethoprim

Back 149

"Megaloblastic anemia

Front 150

Toxicity connected with trimethoprim can be alleviated by _

Back 150

Supplemental folinic acid

Front 151

"Ciprofloxacin

Back 151

norfloxacin

Front 152

"Antibiotics inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)

Back 152

bactericidal"

Front 153

"Used clinically for treatment of gram negative rods of urinary and GI tracts (including Pseudomonas)

Back 153

Neisseria

Front 154

Are fluoroquinolones safe in pregnant women

Back 154

Contraindicated in pregnant women and in children because animal studies show damage to cartilage.

Front 155

Fluoroquinolones toxicity

Back 155

"Tendonitis and tendon rupture in adults

Front 156

"Forms toxic metabolites in bacterial cells

Back 156

bactericidal"

Front 157

"Antiprotozoal

Back 157

Giardia

Front 158

"This drug is used with bismuth and amoxicillin (or tetracycline) for ""triple therapy"" against H pylori"

Back 158

Metronidazole

Front 159

Anaerobic infections below diaphragm?"

Back 159

"Above - clindamycin

Front 160

Toxicity of metronidazole

Back 160

"Disulfiram like reaction with alcohol

Front 161

"Bind to cell membranes of bacteria and disrupt their osmotic properties

Back 161

cationic

Front 162

Toxicity for polymyxins

Back 162

"Neurotoxicity

Front 163

Name anti TB drugs

Back 163

"RESPIre

Front 164

2nd line therapy for TB

Back 164

Cycloserine

Front 165

All anti TB drugs have same toxicity - name it

Back 165

liver toxicity

Front 166

Anti TB drug - decreases synthesis of mycolic acids

Back 166

Isoniazid

Front 167

The only agent used as solo prophylaxis against TB

Back 167

Isoniazid

Front 168

Toxicity for INH (Isoniazid)

Back 168

"Hemolysis if G6PD defficient

Front 169

______ can prevent neurotoxicity caused by isoniazid

Back 169

Pyridoxine (B6)

Front 170

Which anti TB drug has different half lifes in fast vs slow acetylators

Back 170

Isoniazid

Front 171

Anti TB drug - inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Back 171

Rifampin

Front 172

Delays resistance to dapsone when used for leprosy

Back 172

Rifampin

Front 173

Used for meningococcal prophylaxis and chemoprophylaxis in contacts of children with H influenzae type B

Back 173

Rifampin

Front 174

Rifampin toxicity

Back 174

Minor hepatoxicity and drug interactions (increases P450)

Front 175

Rifampin 4 R's

Back 175

"RNA polymerase inhibitos

Front 176

Beta lactamase cleavage of beta lactam drug is a resistance mechanism against which drugs

Back 176

Penicillins and cephalosporins

Front 177

"Modification via acetylation

Back 177

adenylation

Front 178

"Terminal D ala component of cell wall replaced with D lac

Back 178

decreases affinity - resistance mechanism against which drug"

Front 179

Modification via acetylation - resistance mechanism against which drug

Back 179

Chloramphenicol

Front 180

Decreased uptake or increased transport out of cell is resistance mechanism against which drugs

Back 180

Tetracyclines

Front 181

"Altered enzyme (bacterial dihdropteorate synthetase)

Back 181

decreased uptake or increased PABA synthesis is resistance against which drugs"

Front 182

Alternative?"

Back 182

"Rifampin

Front 183

Prophylaxis of gonorrhea

Back 183

Ceftriaxone

Front 184

Prophylaxis of syphillis

Back 184

Benzathine penicillin G

Front 185

Prophylaxis in patients with history of recurrent UTI

Back 185

TMP-SMX

Front 186

Alternative"

Back 186

"TMP-SMX

Front 187

"Binds ergosterol (unique to fungi)

Back 187

forms membrane pores that allow leakage of electrolytes and disrupt homeostasis"

Front 188

"Used for wide spectrum of systemic mycoses (Cryptococcus

Back 188

Blastomyces

Front 189

Toxicity of Amphotericin B

Back 189

"NEPHROTOXICITY

Front 190

"Binds to ergosterol

Back 190

disrupting fungal membranes

Front 191

Inhibit fungal steroid (ergosterol) synthesis

Back 191

AZOLES

Front 192

Drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patients and candidal infections of all types (i.e yeast infections)

Back 192

FLuconazole

Front 193

"Drug of choice for Blastomyces

Back 193

Coccidioides

Front 194

Toxicity of azoles

Back 194

"Hormone synthesis inhibition (gynecomastia)

Front 195

Fever

Back 195

chills"

Front 196

"Inhibits DNA synthesis by conversion to fluorouracil which competes with uracil

Back 196

used in systemic fungal infections (Candida

Front 197

"Antifungal medication

Back 197

inhibits cell wall synthesis

Front 198

"Antifungal

Back 198

inhibits fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase

Front 199

"Anti fungal

Back 199

interferes with microtubule function

Front 200

Toxicity Griseofulvin

Back 200

"Teratogenic

Front 201

Antiviral drug used for prophylaxis for influenza A and treatment of Parkinsons

Back 201

Amantadine

Front 202

Derivative of Amantadine with fewer CNS side effects

Back 202

Rimantidine

Front 203

"Anti viral medication

Back 203

blocks biral penetration/uncoating

Front 204

Toxicity of amantadine

Back 204

"Ataxia + dizziness+ slurred speech

Front 205

"Two antiviral medications that inhibits influenza neuraminidase

Back 205

both used for influenza A and B"

Front 206

"Antiviral - inhibits synthesis of guanine nucleotides by competitively inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase

Back 206

used for treatment of RSV and chronic hep C"

Front 207

Toxicity for Ribavirin

Back 207

"Severe teratogen

Front 208

THis antiviral medication preferentially inhibits viral DNA polymerase when phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase

Back 208

Acyclovir

Front 209

"Antiviral medication used for treatment of VZV

Back 209

HSV

Front 210

Toxicity for acyclovir

Back 210

"Delirium

Front 211

"Antiviral drug - works by phosphorylation viral kinase

Back 211

preferentially inhibits CMV DNA polymerase

Front 212

Which drug is more toxic - acyclovir or ganciclovir to host enzymes

Back 212

Ganciclovir

Front 213

Ganciclovir toxicity

Back 213

"Leukopenia

Front 214

Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor that binds to the pyrophosphate binding site of the enzyme. Does not require activation by viral kinase

Back 214

FOSCARNET = pyroFOSphate analog

Front 215

Antiviral drug used for treatment of CMV retinitis in immunocompromised patients when ganciclovir fails

Back 215

FOSCARNET

Front 216

"Patient is on foscarnet for CMV retinitis

Back 216

which toxicity could be suspected?"

Front 217

"Saquinavir

Back 217

ritonavir

Front 218

"HIV patient is taking anti HIV drugs

Back 218

develops GI intolerance - nausea

Front 219

"Zidovudine (AZT)

Back 219

didanosine

Front 220

Name non-nucleosides reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Back 220

"Nevirapine

Front 221

Toxicity associated with reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Back 221

"Bone marrow suppression (neutropenia

Front 222

Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) generally entails combination of?

Back 222

Protease inhibitors + reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Front 223

Which antiretroviral drug is used during pregnancy to reduce risk of fetal transmission

Back 223

AZT

Front 224

Patient on anti HIV therapy develops megaloblastic anemia - which drug most likely caused it

Back 224

AZT

Front 225

When is HAART initiated?

Back 225

When patients have low CD4 counts (<500 cell/mm3) or high viral load

Front 226

"Glycoproteins from human leukocytes that block various stages of viral RNA and DNA synthesis

Back 226

used for treatment of chronic hep B and C

Front 227

Name drug and what toxicity associated with it"

Back 227

"Interferons

Front 228

Antiparasitic drug from onchocerciasis

Back 228

Ivermectin (rIVER blindness treated with IVERmectin)

Front 229

"Antiparasitic drug used to treat nematode/roundworm (pinworm

Back 229

whipworm) infections"

Front 230

"Antiparasitic drugs used to treat gian roundowrm (ascaris)

Back 230

hookworm (Necator/Ancylostoma) and pinworm (Enterobius)"

Front 231

"Antiparasitic used to treat trematode/fluke (shistosomes

Back 231

Paragonimus

Front 232

Niclosamide is used to treat?

Back 232

Cestode/tapeworm infections except cysticercosis

Front 233

Drug of choice for leishmaniasis

Back 233

Pentavalent antimony

Front 234

Name anti malaria drugs

Back 234

"Chloroquine

Front 235

"Name drug used for treatment of latent hypnozoite (liver) forms of malaria (Plasmodium vivax

Back 235

P.ovale)"

Front 236

"Drug of choice agains giardiasis

Back 236

amebic dysentery

Front 237

"Drug of choice for Chagas disease

Back 237

American trypanosomiasis (trypanosoma cruzi)"

Front 238

Drug of choice for African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)

Back 238

Suramin

Front 239

Cholinomimetic used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention - activates bowel and bladder smooth muscle

Back 239

BETHANECHOL

Front 240

"Direct agonist

Back 240

cholinomimetic used for treatment of glaucoma

Front 241

"Anticholinesterase

Back 241

used in treatment of postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention

Front 242

"Anticholinesterase used in treatment of myasthenia gravis - increases endogenous Ach

Back 242

increases strength"

Front 243

"This anticholinesterase is used for diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (extremely short acting)

Back 243

increases endogenous Ach"

Front 244

"Anticholinesterase

Back 244

used in treatment of glaucoma (crosses BBB to CNS) and atropine overdose

Front 245

"Anticholinergic

Back 245

used for treatment of glaucoma

Front 246

Name symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning

Back 246

"DUMBBELSS

Front 247

Salivation (also abdominal cramping)"

Front 248

Name substances that can lead to cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning

Back 248

Parathion and other organophosphates

Front 249

Antidote used in treatment of organophosphate poisoning

Back 249

Atropine (muscarinic antagonist) plus pralidoxime (chemical antagonist used to regenerate active cholinesterase)

Front 250

What is the equation for Therapeutic Index?

Back 250

"TI = LD50 / ED 50

Front 251

Safter drugs have higher TI values"

Back 251

TILE

Front 252

___________ Ach receptors are ligand-gated Na/K channels.

Back 252

Nicotinic

Front 253

_____________Ach receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that act through 2nd messengers.

Back 253

Muscarinic

Front 254

This G-protein linked receptor increases vascular smooth muscle contraction.

Back 254

alpha-1

Front 255

"This G-protein linked receptor decreases sympathetic outflow

Back 255

and decreases insulin release"

Front 256

"This G-protein linked receptor increases heart rate

Back 256

contractility

Front 257

"This G-protein linked receptor causes vasodilation

Back 257

bronchodilation

Front 258

This G-protein linked receptor has major CNS and enteric nervous system effects

Back 258

M1

Front 259

This G-protein linked receptor decreases heart rate and contractility

Back 259

M2

Front 260

"This G-protein linked receptor increases exocrine gland secretions

Back 260

increases gut peristalisis and increases bladder contraction"

Front 261

This G-protein linked receptor relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle

Back 261

D1

Front 262

"This G-protein linked receptor modulates transmitter release

Back 262

especially in the brain"

Front 263

" This G-protein linked receptor increases nasal and bronchial mucus production

Back 263

contraction of bronchioloes

Front 264

This G-protein linked receptor increases gastric acid secretion

Back 264

H2

Front 265

This G-protein linked receptor increases vascular smooth muscle contraction.

Back 265

V1

Front 266

This G-protein linked receptor increases water permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney

Back 266

V2

Front 267

What is the mnemonic to remember the G-protein class for all of the G-protein linked receptors.?

Back 267

"""Qiss (kiss) and qiq (kick) till you're siq (sick) of sqs (sex)""

Front 268

alpha-1 (q)

Back 268

alpha-2 (i)

Front 269

What direct acting cholinergic agonist is used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention.

Back 269

Bethanechol

Front 270

"This direct acting cholinergic agonist activates bowel and bladder smoth muscle

Back 270

and is resistant to AChE"

Front 271

"The direc tacting cholinergic agonist is used for gluacoma

Back 271

pupillary contraction

Front 272

"This direct acting cholinergic agonist is a potent stimulator of sweat

Back 272

tears

Front 273

"This direct acting cholinergic agonist contracts the ciliary muscle of the eye (open angle)

Back 273

pupillary sphincter (narrow angle); and is resistant to AChE"

Front 274

This direct acting cholinergic agonist is used as a challenge test of the diagnosis of asthma.

Back 274

Methacholine

Front 275

This direct acting cholinergic agonist stimulates muscarinic receptors in airway when inhaled.

Back 275

Methacholine

Front 276

"This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) is used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention

Back 276

myasthenia gravis

Front 277

This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) increases endogenous Ach; and has no CNS penetration

Back 277

Neostigmine

Front 278

This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) is used to treat myasthenia gravis (long acting); and does not penetrate the CNS

Back 278

"Pyridostigmine

Front 279

Increase in endogenous Ach; increase strength"

Front 280

This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis (extremely short acting)

Back 280

Edrophonium

Front 281

This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) is used to treat glaucoma (crosses blood-brain barrier --> CNS) and atropine overdose

Back 281

Physostigmine

Front 282

This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) is used to treat glaucoma

Back 282

Echothiophate

Front 283

What are the symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning? (9)

Back 283

"Diarrhea

Front 284

What is the antidote for cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning?

Back 284

Atropine plus pralidoxime

Front 285

What muscarinic antagonist is used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease?

Back 285

Benzotropine

Front 286

What muscarinic antagonist is used to treat motion sickness?

Back 286

Scopolamine

Front 287

What muscarinic antagonist is used to treat asthma and COPD?

Back 287

Ipratropium

Front 288

What muscarinic antagonists (3) are used to reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms?

Back 288

"Methscopolamine

Front 289

What muscarinic antagonists (2) are used to treat peptic ulcers?

Back 289

"Pirenzepine

Front 290

This glaucoma drug is an alpha agonis that decreases aqueous humor synthesis due to vasoconstriction. It causes mydriasis and stinging. DO NOT use in closed-angle glaucoma.

Back 290

Epinephrine

Front 291

This glaucoma drug is an alpha agonist that decreases aqueous humor synthesis. It causes no pupillary or vision changes

Back 291

Brimonidine

Front 292

These glaucoma drugs (3) are beta blockers that decrease aqueous humor secretion. They cause no pupillary or vision changes.

Back 292

"Timolol

Front 293

This glaucoma drug is a diuretic that decreases aqueous humor secretion due to decreased bicarb (via inhibition of carbonic anhydrase). It causes no pupillary or vision changes.

Back 293

Acetazolamide

Front 294

These glaucoma drugs (4) are cholinomimetics that increase the outflow of aqueous humor; contract ciliary muscle and open trabecular meshwork. The cause miosis and cyclospasm.

Back 294

"Pilocarpine

Front 295

This glaucoma drug is a prostaglandin that increases the outflow of aqueous humor. It also darkens the color of the iris (browning).

Back 295

Latanoprost (PGF2alpha)

Front 296

What are the side effects of atropine?

Back 296

"Increase pupil dilation

Front 297

Increased body temperature

Back 297

rapid pulse

Front 298

What can atropine cause in th elderly? Men with BPH? Infants?

Back 298

"Elderly - acute narrow-closure glaucoma

Front 299

Infants - hyperthermia"

Front 300

What is hexamethonium?

Back 300

"Hexamethonium is a nicotinic antagonist that functions as a ganglionic blocker. It is used in experimental models to PREVENT VAGAL RESPONSES to changes in blood pressure - eg

Front 301

At toxic doses

Back 301

it can cause severe orthostatic hypotension

Front 302

"This drug is an alpha-1

Back 302

alpha-2

Front 303

It is used for anaphylaxis

Back 303

glaucoma (open angle)

Front 304

"This drug is an alpha-1

Back 304

alpha-2 > beta-1 agonist. It is used to treat hypotension

Front 305

This drug is a non-selective beta agonist

Back 305

Isoproterenol

Front 306

"This drug is a sympathomimetic: D1=D2 > beta > alpha. It has inotropic and chronotropic properties

Back 306

and it is used in shock and heart failure. It INCREASES renal perfusion."

Front 307

"This drug is a sympathomimetic: B1>B2. It as inotropic

Back 307

but no chronotropic properties. It is used to treat shock

Front 308

"This drug is a sympathomimetic: alpha-1 > alpha-2. It causes pupillary dilation

Back 308

vasoconstriction

Front 309

These drugs (2) are sympathomimetics: B2 > B1

Back 309

"Albuterol for acute asthma

Front 310

Terbutaline reduces premature uterine contractions"

Front 311

This drug is a selective beta-2 agonist. It is used to reduce premature uterine contractions.

Back 311

Ritodrine

Front 312

"These drugs (2) are sympathoplegics that are centraly acting alpha-2 agonists

Back 312

and they result in decreased central adrenergic outflow. They are used to treat hypertension

Front 313

What are the 4 selective beta-2 agonists?

Back 313

"Metaproterenol

Front 314

The non-selective alpha blocker is irreversible and is given to patients before the removal of pheochromocytoma before removing the tumor. It can cause orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia.

Back 314

Phenoxybenzamine

Front 315

This non-selective alpha blocker is reversible and is given to patients w/ pheochromocytoma

Back 315

Phentolamine

Front 316

"Name 3 alpha-1 selective blockers used to treat hypertension and urinary retention to do BPH. The first dose can cause orthostatic hypotension

Back 316

dizziness

Front 317

"This selective alpha-2 blocker is used to treat depression. It causes sedation

Back 317

increased serum cholesterol

Front 318

What do beta blockers do it cardiac output and renin secretion?

Back 318

"Decrease cardiac output

Front 319

Decrease renin secretion"

Front 320

What do beta blockers do in angina pectoris?

Back 320

"Decrease heart rate and contractility

Front 321

"

Front 322

What do beta blockers do for MI?

Back 322

Beta blockers DECREASE mortality in MI

Front 323

"What do beta blockers do for SVT (propanolol

Back 323

esmolol)?"

Front 324

What do beta blockers do for CHF?

Back 324

Beta blockers slow progression of chronic heart failure

Front 325

What do beta blockers do for glaucoma?

Back 325

Beta blockers decrease secretion of aqueous humor

Front 326

What are some of the side effects of beta blockers?

Back 326

"Impotence

Front 327

Which 5 beta-blockers are nonselective?

Back 327

"Proranolol

Front 328

Labetalol"

Front 329

Which 5 beta-blockers are beta-1 selective?

Back 329

"Acebutolol

Front 330

Metoprolol"

Back 330

A BEAM of beta-1 blockers

Front 331

What are the 2 nonselective alpha and beta antagonists?

Back 331

"carvedilol

Front 332

labetalol"

Front 333

What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?

Back 333

N-acetylcysteine

Front 334

What is the antidote for salicylate toxicity?

Back 334

"NaHCO3 (alkalinize urine)

Front 335

What is the antidote for amphetamine toxicity?

Back 335

NH4Cl (acidify urine)

Front 336

What is the antidote for anticholinesterase/ organophosphate toxicity?

Back 336

"Atropine

Front 337

What is the antidote for antimuscarinic/ anticholinergic agents?

Back 337

Physostigmine salicylate

Front 338

What is the antidote beta-blockers?

Back 338

glucagon

Front 339

What is the antidote for digitalis toxicity?

Back 339

"Stop dig

Front 340

What is the antidote for iron toxicity?

Back 340

Deferoxamine

Front 341

What is the antidote for lead toxicity?

Back 341

"CaEDTA

Front 342

"What is the antidote for arsenic

Back 342

mercury

Front 343

test

Back 343

response

Front 344

Lexical test

Back 344

A report of how a word is actually used. For example, about 80% of people in a recent survey said that the word man means male while the other 20% said that it meant human..

Front 345

What does Deductive means?

Back 345

If premises are true it is impossible for the conclusion to be false

Front 346

Definition by Genus and Difference

Back 346

The GENUS states a general class to which the object belongs and the DIFFERENCE how the object differs from others in the group. For example, a human is a rational animal (Aristotle). Humans are animals (genus) who are (different from other animals by being) rational.

Front 347

Deductive or Inductive? Arugments from authority

Back 347

Inductive

Front 348

Conclusion or Premises Indicator? Since

Back 348

premises

Front 349

Aruguement or Noinferential? Reports

Back 349

Noinferential

Front 350

Improper grammar

Back 350

Definitions which do not use proper grammar are for that reason to be rejected. For example, logic is forms

Front 351

Synonymous definition

Back 351

Defining by stating another word which has the same extension. WARNING: two different words rarely have exactly the same extension so such a definition may also be vague. For example, precise means exact.

Front 352

Stipulative definition

Back 352

Inventing a word or a new use for an old word and stating how it will be used. For example, a niner is a period of 9 days consisting of two weekends and the 5-day work week between them. Most vacations are niners.

Front 353

Precising

Back 353

A definition whose function is to take a general concept and make it more precise. For example, a circle is a round boundary (rather than what is inside of it).

Front 354

Ambiguous definition

Back 354

There is more than one obvious interpretation of what is meant. A definition whose extension includes too much. For example, a word is anything defined in a dictionary.

Front 355

Etymological definition

Back 355

Defining by tracing the origin of a word. For example, logic comes from the Greek word logos one of whose meanings is principle.

Front 356

Failure to state the essential meaning

Back 356

A definition which might enable you to pick out what a word designates but by using properties which in no way enable you to understand anything else about the object. For example, a pencil is a long round yellow object with a rubber knob at one end. What is said here is true but gives no clue as to what a pencil is for.

Front 357

Definition by subclass

Back 357

Defining by stating subclasses (rather than individuals) that a word designates. For example, media are films, television programs, and tapes.

Front 358

Enumerative definition

Back 358

Listing all, or a representative sample of, the items defined by a word. For example, religions are systems of thought and practice such as Judaism, Christianity, Islam, and Hinduism

Front 359

Persuasive definition

Back 359

Using emotionally charged words in a definition. This is usually done to try to persuade the reader to take a particular attitude towards the things denoted by the word being defined. For example, a liberal is an adherent to a failed political policy.

Front 360

Precising definition

Back 360

A definition whose function is to take a general concept and make it more precise. For example, a circle is a round boundary (rather than what is inside of it).

Front 361

Operational definition

Back 361

A definition which specifies directions for finding a thing or for measuring it. For example, red is the color of the top stripe on the U.S. flag.

Front 362

Deductive or Inductive? hypothetical syllogisms

Back 362

Deductive

Front 363

Deductive or Inductive? disjunctive syllogisms

Back 363

Deductive

Front 364

Deductive or Inductive? Predictions

Back 364

Iductive

Front 365

Conclusion or Premises Indicator? may be inferred from

Back 365

Premises

Front 366

Deductive or Inductive? Arguments based on signs

Back 366

Inductive

Front 367

Deductive or Inductive? casual inferences

Back 367

inductive

Front 368

Conclusion or Premises Indicator? Seeing that

Back 368

Premise

Front 369

Conclusion or Premises Indicator? hence

Back 369

Conclusion

Front 370

Arugument or Noinferential? Warnings

Back 370

Noinferential

Front 371

Conclusion or Premises Indicator? it follows that

Back 371

Conclusion

Front 372

Deductive or Inductive? arguement from analogy

Back 372

Inductive

Front 373

Conclusion or Premises Indicator? implies that

Back 373

Conclusion

Front 374

Two different kinds of arguements

Back 374

Inductive and Deductive

Front 375

Quanitifiers

Back 375

all,no and some because they specify how much of subject is included in or excluded from the predicate class.

Front 376

Conclusion or Premises Indicator? Consquently

Back 376

Conclusion

Front 377

Deductive or Inductive? arguments based on mathematics

Back 377

Deductive

Front 378

Deductive or Inductive? Arguments from Definition

Back 378

Deductive

Front 379

What does inductive means?

Back 379

If Premises are true it is improbale for the conclusion to be false

Front 380

Deductive or Inductive? categorical syllogism

Back 380

Deductive

Front 381

Deductive or Inductive? inductive generalization

Back 381

inductive

Front 382

Conclusion or Premises Indicator? as a result

Back 382

Conclusion

Front 383

Aruguement or Noinferential? Advice

Back 383

Noinferential

Front 384

one

Back 384

two

Front 385

shoe

Back 385

horn

Front 386

corn

Back 386

ball

Front 387

tall

Back 387

fish

Front 388

dish

Back 388

round

Front 389

one

Back 389

with

Hint 389

hint

Front 390

two

Back 390

with

Hint 390

mit

Front 391

three

Back 391

with

Hint 391

corn

Front 392

four

Back 392

with

Hint 392

horn

Front 393

five

Back 393

with

Hint 393

baseball

Front 394

one

Back 394

two

Front 395

fe

Back 395

fe

Front 396

testing

Back 396

test

Front 397

test

Back 397

test

Front 398

test

Back 398

test

Front 399

test

Back 399

test

Front 400

2

Back 400

two

Hint 400

222

Front 401

3

Back 401

three

Hint 401

333

Front 402

Question without side 3

Back 402

Answer without side 3

Front 403

2

Back 403

two

Hint 403

222

Front 404

3

Back 404

three

Hint 404

333

Front 405

Question without side 3

Back 405

Answer without side 3