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165 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the indication for mechanical ventilation?
1) assist the pt who cannot maintain adequate alverolar ventilation
What is negative pressure ventilation?
alternation or intermittent ventilation
What is positive pressure ventilation?
ventilation which foces gas into the lungs, artificial airway is required.
what is High frequency ventilation?
constant flow, low pressure, high volume. requires artifical airway
What is FIO2?
the fraction of inspired oxygen or the concentration of oxygen the pt is to recieve
If a patient has low ABG then you would ________ FIO2.
increase
If a patient has high ABG then you would _______ FIO2.
decrease
What is the tidal volume?
the amount of air that the ventilator has been set to deliver to the patient WITH EACH BREATH.
if a patient has high PaCO2 and low pH you need to ______ RR or tidal volume.
increase
Respiratory rate (in regards to ventilator)
the number of positive pressure breaths that the ventilator delivers per minute
Sigh
allos for additional volumes of air to be delivered several times each hour
Continuous mechanical ventilation (CMV)
vent delivers preset tidal volume and respiratory. DOES NOT ALLOW FOR SPONTANEOUS BREATHS.
Assist/control ventilation (A/C)
Spontaneous inspiratory effort of pt prompts vent to deliver preset tidal volume. If no effort occurs than vent delviers breaths at preset respiratory rate. ALL BREATHS GET THE PRESET TIDAL VOLUME.
Intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV)
vent delivers preset tidal volume and respiratory rate. Client can take UNASSISTED additional breaths.
Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)
preset ventilator breaths are synchronized with pts spontaneous breaths to avoid "stacking" of breaths.
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
preset amount of pressure stays in the lungs at the end of exhalation, keeps alveoli open.
With PEEP, the pts functional volume is increased or decreased?
increased
PEEP and CPAP both prevent ____________
atelectasis
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
continous pressure for the client who is breathing entirely on their own without any ventilator-generated breaths.
Pressure support ventilation (PSV)
client breaths spontaneously and the vent provides a preset level of pressure assistance with each spontaneous breath
PEEP gives pressure at __________
end of expiration
PSV gives pressure at _____________
inspiration
When suctioning an ET tube, suction for no longer than ___________.
10 seconds
Name 3 possible causes of a high-pressure alarm sounding on a ventilator.
Pt. fighting the vent or biting tube
pneumothorax
bronchospams
obstructed tubing
ET tube displaced
Name 3 possible causes of a low-pressure alarm sounding on a ventilator
leak in the ventilator circuit preventing delivery of breath

clients stops breathing on SIMV or CPAP or PSV modes

cuff leak occurs in the tube
Where is a PICC line usually placed?
Brachial vein
Pleural Effusion
liquid in pleural space
Empyema
pus in pleural space
Pneumothorax
air in pleural space
hemothorax
blood in pleural space
In tension pneumothorax blood pressure and breath sounds are often __________.
decreased
In tension pneumothorax neck veins are often __________.
distended
In tension pneumothorax excursion may become __________.
assymetrical
Tracheal deviation is a late and ominous sign of ______________ ___________.
tension pneumothorax
In tension pneumothorax the respiratory system exhibits _________ _______ ______.
sudden respiratory distress
What are 3 possible complicatiosn of CT insertion?
Bleeding/organ puncture
ruptured airways
tension pneumothorax
The first chamber in a chest tube drainage system....
collects the fluid/drainage
The second chamber in a chest tube drainage system....
allows air to leave pleural space
what does the second chamber in a chest tube drainage system prevent?
air from re-entering the pleural space.
The third chamber in a chest tube drainage system....
regulates suction applied to pleural space
what volume is dangerous in a chest tube and needs to be reported?
> 100 ml/hr
The P wave in a EKG represents....
depolarization of the atria
The QRS complex represents....
depolarization of the ventricles
The T wave represents
Ventricular repolarization
What is the normal PR interval?
.12 to .20 seconds
What is the normal QRS duration?
< .10 seconds
A U wave seen on an EKG may be normal, or it may indicate....
hypokalemia
Normal Sinus Rhythm (NSR)
atrial Rate: 60-100 bpm
PRI: .12 or greater
Sinus Tachycardia (ST)
Atrial rate: 101-150 bpm
PRI: .12 or greater
Sinus Bradycardia (SB)
PRI: .12 or greater
what 4 things can be used to treat symptomatic Sinus bradycardia?
atropine, dopamine, epinephrine, or a pacemaker
when is sinus bradycardia symptomatic?
when cardiac output is decreased
Sinus arrhythmia (SA)
P-P waves are irregular in pattern
Atropine side effects
dried mucous membranes, constipation, tachycardia
what do you need to watch when giving atropine?
Monitor EKG for tachycardia, and urinary output
Dopamine's affects are based on....
the amount (dose) given
Side effects of epinephrine/dopamine include
Increased HR and BP
If an IV infiltrates while dopamine/epi are being given what will occur?
tissue necrosis
to prevent tissue necrosis in when dopamine and epi are given what can be given sub- Q?
Regitine
atropine is an.....
anticholinergic
epinephrine and dopamine are...
sympathomimetics
what are the 5 categories of fmaily needs?
1) recieve assurance
2) remain near pt
3) receive accurate information
4) comfort
5) support available
What is the goal of AACN's Healthy work environment campaign?
Respect, Responsibility and Acknowledgement of other htealth team members
what are 5 elements of a healthy work environment
collaberation, effective communication, effective decision making, appropriate staffing, positive reinforcement
SBAR stands for
Situation
Background
Assessment
Recommendation
AACN
American Association of Critical Care Nurses
SCCM
Society of Critical Care Medicine
Beneficence
taking action to benefit the patient
non-maleficence
do no harm
veracity
truth
what 3 things are required for informed consent?
mental competance

decision is entirely voluntary

decision is based on understanding.
brain death
complete and irreversible cessation of brain function
vegetative state
condition in which person does not meet criteria for brain death but displays profound neurological impairment with little to no chance of recovering
PVS
persistent vegetative stateq
Persistent vegetative state
no evidence of purposeful movement
Karen quinlan (date of case)
1975
Nancy Cruzan (date of case)
1983
Terri Shiavo (date of case)
1990
When withdrawing support and a patient is experiencing fear/anxiety:
give benzodiazapenes (midazolam)
When withdrawing support and pt is experiences pain/dyspnea:
give morphine sulfate
Before a DNR/DNI order is official....
an MD MUST write the order
Can family members override a signed donor card?
yes
elastance
ability of the lung to recoil
shunting
blood flowwing past a non-ventilated alveoli
compliance
lungs ability to expand
Before a DNR/DNI order is official....
an MD MUST write the order
residual volume
air left in lungs after forced experation
Can family members override a signed donor card?
yes
Functional residual capacity
air left in lungs after normal expiration
elastance
ability of the lung to recoil
deadspace
air sacs full of air with no blood passing...ventilated but not pefrused
shunting
blood flowwing past a non-ventilated alveoli
resistance
force to be overcome to ventilate
compliance
lungs ability to expand
anatomic deadspace is...
normal
residual volume
air left in lungs after forced experation
Functional residual capacity
air left in lungs after normal expiration
deadspace
air sacs full of air with no blood passing...ventilated but not pefrused
resistance
force to be overcome to ventilate
anatomic deadspace is...
normal
Before a DNR/DNI order is official....
an MD MUST write the order
Can family members override a signed donor card?
yes
elastance
ability of the lung to recoil
shunting
blood flowwing past a non-ventilated alveoli
compliance
lungs ability to expand
residual volume
air left in lungs after forced experation
Functional residual capacity
air left in lungs after normal expiration
deadspace
air sacs full of air with no blood passing...ventilated but not pefrused
resistance
force to be overcome to ventilate
anatomic deadspace is...
normal
Chronic lungers have issues with....
elastance
ARDS patients have problems with
compliance
work of breathing
oxygen required just to ventilate (1-2% at rest)
Bronchoconstriciton will ________ resistance
increase
What is PaO2 in respiratory failure?
<60 mmHg
what is SaO2 in respiratory failure?
<90%
what is PaCO2 in respiratory failure?
> 45 mmHg with acidemia
definition of respiratory failure
inability of the respiratory system to maintain adequate ventilation and oxygenation of tissues
what are the 3 possible causes of respiratory failure?
Mechanical abnormailities
CNS abnormalities
Dysfuncion resp. muscles
What kills your patient in respiratory failure?
Hypoxemia
a decrease in compliance and increase in resistance will _______ work of breathing
increase
a increase in compliance and decrease in resistance will ________ work of breathing
decrease
what is the first indicaton of hypoxemia?
restlessness
Decreased breath sounds are heard with..
shunting
Low flow systems....
depend on the pts respiratory effort to deliver oxygen
high flow systems
deliver set amount of oxygenation regardless of pts effort
High flow or low flow: nasal cannula
low
High flow or low flow: simple face mask
low
High flow or low flow: venti mask
high
High flow or low flow: non-rebreather
low
High flow or low flow: face tent
high
High flow or low flow: trach collar
high
High flow or low flow: pratial rebreather
low
High flow or low flow: T piece
high
BiPAP and CPAP differ in that....
with BiPAP the exhale pressure is lower than inhale pressure, with CPAP pressure is continuous
NPPV
CPAP mask with ventilator set up to it
Definition of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
most severe acute lung injury resulting in respiratory failure
4 manifestations of ARDS:
1) hypoxemia refractory to increased lvls of oxygen

2) non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

3) atelectasis

4) decreased compliance (stiff lungs)
What is the mortality of ARDS:
40-70%
what 4 things account for 85% of ARDS?
Aspiration
Chest trauma
Pneumonia
Sepsis
Sepsis accounts for over _____ of ARDS cases
1/2
______ of patients who aspirate develop ARDS
1/3
What 4 things are used to determine the severity of lung injury in ARDS?
Severity of infiltrates
degree of hypoxemia
amoung of PEEP
Lung compliance
Patho of ARDS
overwhelming inflammatory response (SIRS) --> excessive chemical release --> holes in the alveoli --> vascular fluid entering the lungs --> pulmonary edema -->hypoxemia
A "white out" x-ray image with patchy infiltrates is a sign of...
ARDS
What components are part of the "protective lung strategy"?
1) decreasing tidal volume to 4-6 ml/kg instead of 10-15 ml/kg

2) lowest FIO2 possible to maintain SpO2 >60%

3) PEEP used to prevent atelectasis
Paralytics should never be given without.....
Sedatives being given first
With a patient with ARDS calorie requirement is...
1-2 x's normal
Aspiration precautions include what 2 interventions?
HOB 30-45 degrees
residual volumes q 4-6 hours
A PE is...
a non-soluble material that travels through pulmonary circulation and lodges in a pulmonary vessel
A "massive" PE is considered one that....
affects > 50% of pulmonary vasculature
Virchow's Triad
Venous Stasis
ALtered blood coagulability
Damage to vessel wall
80% of patients with PE experience what 3 symptoms?
1) sudden onset dyspnea
2) chest pain that worsens with inspiration
3) tachycardia
what is the typical PCO2 of a patient in early PE?
PCO2 < 36
what is the typical PO2 of a patient early with PE?
<80%
tPa is only used on PE's that are
severely lart and hemodynamically unstable
Normal pH?
7.35-7.45
Normal PaCO2?
35-45
CO2 is...
acidic
CHO3 is...
basic
Normal HCO3?
22-26
excessive vomitting will cause...
metabolic alkylosis because of the loss of chloride
excessive diahrrea will cause
metabolic acidosis because of the loss of HCO3
s/s of alkalosis:
excitability, anxiety, tremors, seizures, numbness/tingling
s/s of acidosis:
decreased LOC, headache, vomitting, hyperventilation