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45 Cards in this Set
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According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, steel I beams will elongate when heated and can push out a load-bearing walls. A 50-foot (15.2m) beam may elongate by as much as ___ inches/mm when heated to about 1,000 degrees F (538 degrees C):
A) 2 inches (50.8 mm) B) 4 inches (102 mm) C) 8 inches (203.2 mm) D) 11 inches (279.4 mm) |
B) 4 inches (102 mm) |
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According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, the temperature at which a steel member will depend on many variables. Which of the following is NOT one of those variables: A) Size B) Load C) Composition D) Age |
D) Age |
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According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a safety precaution for imminent building collapse: A. Immediately evacuate personnel within the building B. Set up a collapse zone around the building perimeter C. Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone D. Use only unmanned master streams if fire streams are necessary within the collapse zone |
D. Use only unmanned master streams if fire streams are necessary within the collapse zone |
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According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, under the heading Best Practices, notes are to be completed as events occur, or at the first available opportunity. What is the time frame that notes should be completed within? A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 2 days D) 1 week |
B) 24 hours |
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According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT an advantage of good note taking? A) Thorough notes make your evidence more credible B) Cover against civil liability C) Shows a commitment to quality work D) Less likely to be subjected to prolonged cross examination |
C) Shows a commitment to quality work |
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According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of poor note taking? A) May require you to rewrite your notes B) Without notes our memories tend fail. It can be embarrassing when court trials are not called until months and years after the even C) May have to concede under cross examination that recollection may not be as accurate D) A lack of notes is usually an indicator for the defense to conduct a tenacious cross examination |
A) May require you to rewrite your notes |
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According to Memo 2017 – AP – 110, all personnel will rotate the use of their Bunker Gear: A) On a monthly cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM B) On a biannual cycle in conjunction with deep clean and inspection by an outside contractor and logged into FDM C) On a three (3) month cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM D) On a “as needed” cycle and logged into FDM |
C) On a three (3) month cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM |
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According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, what is the passcode for all the tablets: A) 123654 B) Passcode C) H@mi1t0n D) Summer2012 |
A) 123654 |
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According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, Who will be held accountable for the tablets while in service in the stations? A) 6.1 Senior Chiefs and Safety Officers will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer B) 6.1 Station Officers and supervisors will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer. C) 6.1 Training Officers will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer. D) 6.1 All firefighters will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer. |
B) 6.1 Station Officers and supervisors will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer. |
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The HFDNET Training Index document “Thermal Imaging Camera – General Use and Operation 2017 identifies two modes of operation. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the two modes of operation: A) High Sense Mode (High temperature, lower image quality) and Low Sense Mode (Low temperatures, higher image quality) B) High Sense Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures) and Low Sense Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures) C) High Sense Mode (High image quality, high temperatures) and Low Sense Mode (Low image quality, low temperatures) D) High Sense Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures) and Low Sense Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures) |
B) High Sense Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures) and Low Sense Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures) |
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According to Training Bulletin #271 – “Cold Environments – Working in the Cold”, which temperature range is considered a Moderate risk in wind chill conditions (Table 2)? A) 0 to – 9 degrees Celsius B) – 10 to – 27 degrees Celsius C) – 28 to – 39 degrees Celsius D) – 40 to – 47 degrees Celsius |
B) – 10 to – 27 degrees Celsius |
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According to Memo 2018-AP-157, Workplace Safety & Insurance Board (WSIB)Injury/Exposure Reporting Checklist, it is imperative that all personnel make themselves familiar with the procedures, the completion the Parklane Report is the responsibility of: A) The highest-ranking officer on scene B) The individual leading the Training session C) The Workplace Supervisor D) The Station Captain |
C) The Workplace Supervisor |
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According to Training Bulletin # 270 Blitzfire Portable Ground Monitor, procedures to reduce the risk of unlimited movement do not include: A) Always keep the hose directly behind the monitor for approximately 10 feet B) Always loop the hose in front of the monitor C) Always tie off the monitor D) Keep personnel out of the potential path of a moving/sliding monitor |
B) Always loop the hose in front of the monitor |
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Which of the following construction features is not associated with Center Core Construction according to HFDNET - High Rise Construction: A) The core of this building contains the necessary pipes and ducts for all building services B) Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in the event of a fire. C) Water, electrical wires, cables, fuel lines etc. along with air supply and exhaust/return ducts are all located within the core D) All means of vertical travel are located within the core as well |
B) Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in the event of a fire. |
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According to HFDNET - High Rise Construction, the description of “Stratification of Smoke” in high-rise buildings does not include: A) Because a higher percentage of heat and smoke can accumulate in a confined space (high rise) with little potential for top level ventilation, the sudden admittance of air into the high rise can easily lead to a backdraft potential B) The creation of layers of smoke and fire gases on floors below the top floor of sealed multistory buildings is a relatively new phenomenon. C) Since no normal leakage occurs, all of the smoke and fire gases produced will accumulate at various levels until the building is ventilated. D) The products of combustion rise through any vertical opening until their temperature is reduced to the temperature of the surrounding air. When this occurs, smoke and fire gases form layers or clouds within the building |
A) Because a higher percentage of heat and smoke can accumulate in a confined space (high rise) with little potential for top level ventilation, the sudden admittance of air into the high rise can easily lead to a backdraft potential |
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According to Memorandum 2021-AP-523 – Deployment of Rescue 42 Vehicle Stabilization kits: A) Rescue 42 struts shall be the preferred equipment utilized during an incident that requires stabilization B) Z-mag stabilization equipment will remain on apparatus along with Rescue 42 equipment C) If both Z-Mags and Rescue 42 equipment are available, Z-Mags will be the preferred stabilization device D) If first arriving apparatus on-scene only have Z-Mags, crews shall delay extrication efforts to wait for Rescue 42 stabilization equipment to arrive |
A) Rescue 42 struts shall be the preferred equipment utilized during an incident that requires stabilization |
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According to Memo 2022-AP-011, 45mm Hose High-Rise Bundle, which of the following statement regarding High-rise pack deployment is correct; A) To accomplish a dry-lay/ Non-tenable deployment, the nozzle bundle is carried into the fire floor hallway and placed at the hinge side of the fire apartment B) To accomplish a dry-lay/ Tenable deployment, the nozzle bundle is extended up the stairs above the entry point to the fire floor C) To accomplish a Wet-lay/ Tenable deployment, all three bundles are extended in the stairwell below the entry point to the fire floor D) To accomplish a Wet-lay/ Non-tenable deployment, the nozzle bundle is extended up the stairs above the entry point to the fire floor |
D) To accomplish a Wet-lay/ Non-tenable deployment, the nozzle bundle is extended up the stairs above the entry point to the fire floor |
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According to Memo 2022-AP-011, 45mmHose High-Rise Bundle, which of the following best describes the first steps to accomplish either the Dry-Lay/Tenable or the Wet-Lay/Non-Tenable deployment of the High-rise pack: A) Shoulder carry all three bundles onto the fire floor, place the bundles coupling-side up, side, by side on the floor, make the appropriate connections and extend hose B) Shoulder carry all three bundles, place the bundles coupling-side up, side, by side on the floor, make the appropriate connections, move and extend the bundles dependent upon fire floor conditions C) Shoulder carry two or three bundles to the standpipe nearest the fire, place the bundles coupling-side up, side by side on the floor, and make appropriate connection and extend the hose D) Shoulder carry all three bundles onto the floor below the fire, place the bundles coupling-side up, side, by side on the floor, make the appropriate connections and fully extend the hose on that floor, proceed up to the fire floor |
B) Shoulder carry all three bundles, place the bundles coupling-side up, side, by side on the floor, make the appropriate connections, move and extend the bundles dependent upon fire floor conditions |
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According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, what are the minimum dimensions that should be used for the Landing Zone? A) 200ft x 200ft B) 500ft x 500ft C) 150ft x 150ft D) 1000ft x 1000ft |
C) 150ft x 150ft |
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According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, when on uneven ground, which side should you approach the helicopter from? A) Uphill side B) Downhill Side C) Side doesn’t matter as long as you cover your head D) None of the above |
B) Downhill Side |
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According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, which of the following is a false statement? A) Any hose line that has been laid out shall be charged prior to air ambulance arrival B) Use flares to outline the safe landing zone for the helicopter C) Ensure that all vehicles remain 150 feet away from the landing zone D) Ensure that all personnel remain 200 feet clear of the onground helicopter |
B) Use flares to outline the safe landing zone for the helicopter |
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According to Training Bulletin #221, EpiPen, which of the following is NOT a symptom of anaphylaxis. A) Swelling of the throat, lips, tongue, or the area around the eyes B) Increased blood pressure C) Difficulty breathing or swallowing D) Increased heart rate |
B) Increased blood pressure |
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According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, what is the correct Medical Directive for the Hamilton Fire Department? A) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive two doses of epinephrine 5-15 minutes apart B) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive four doses of epinephrine 3-5 minutes apart C) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive two doses of epinephrine 3-5 minutes apart D) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive four doses of epinephrine 5-15 minutes apart |
A) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive two doses of epinephrine 5-15 minutes apart |
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According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, there are recommendations that should be followed for the safe storage of Epinephrine, which of the following is one of these recommendations? A) Regularly check the viewing window on your EpiPen Auto-Injector and replace it if the solution is brown, discoloured or cloudy B) EpiPen should be stored in refrigerator to maintain potency C) EpiPen should be stored in warm environments to maintain potency D) Keep EpiPen in your pocket to ensure quick access when needed |
A) Regularly check the viewing window on your EpiPen Auto-Injector and replace it if the solution is brown, discoloured or cloudy |
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According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, which of the following is NOT listed as a sign or symptom of Opiate Withdrawal? A) Aggressive or combative behavior B) Confusion C) Shortness of breath D) Complacency |
D) Complacency |
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According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, if you encounter a patient who you suspect has o verdosed on opioids, and who is Vital Signs Absent, what is your course of action? A) Administer one dose of Narcan then initiate CPR B) Defibrillate, initiate CPR, administer Narcan C) Initiate CPR and administer Narcan concurrent with compressions D) CPR for 3 minutes, analyse, administer Narcan |
C) Initiate CPR and administer Narcan concurrent with compressions |
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According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, the following are true about Narcan with the exception of: A) It reverses respiratory dep breathing ression by knocking the opioids off the receptors and restoring B) It’s fast acting (usually within 5 minutes) and the protective effect lasts for 30 to 90 minutes. C) Narcan is also effective for nonopioid overdoses (e.g., cocaine, ecstasy, G D) Narcan binds to opioid receptors more tightly than opioids |
C) Narcan is also effective for nonopioid overdoses (e.g., cocaine, ecstasy, G |
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According to Training Bulletin #143, Penetrating Chest Injuries, the correct treatment for an open chest wound is: A) An occlusive dressing, adding others as dressing becomes saturated B) An occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides only C) A nonocclusive dressing, replacing as dressing becomes saturated D) Pressure dressing |
C) A nonocclusive dressing, replacing as dressing becomes saturated |
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According to Training Bulletin #143, Penetrating Chest Injuries, what life-threatening condition can poor treatment for open chest wounds lead to? A) Stroke B) Embolism C) Tension Pneumothorax D) Flail Chest |
C) Tension Pneumothorax |
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According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, which statement is true when dealing with a penetrating trauma patient? A) Continue to reassess and re-analyze frequently until EMS arrival B) A total of (1) “No Shock Advised” received at any point within the resuscitation ends the protocol C) A total of (4) “No Shock Advised” received at any point within the resuscitation ends the protocol D) For all resuscitation events the target compression rate is up to but no more than 100 compressions |
B) A total of (1) “No Shock Advised” received at any point within the resuscitation ends the protocol |
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According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, Newborns are defined as being less than 24 hours old. What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for newborns? A) 15 compressions to 2 ventilations B) 30 compressions to 1 ventilation C) 3 compressions to 1 ventilation D) 30 compressions to 1 ventilation |
C) 3 compressions to 1 ventilation |
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According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, if you have a newborn patient (less than 24 hours old), whose heart rate is below 60 beats per minute, what is your course of action? A) Attempt defibrillation B) Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 3:1 C) Assist with breathing at a rate of 18 breaths per minute D) Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 15:2 |
B) Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 3:1 |
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According to TB 266, the MSA Premaire Cadet G1 Escape Pack Visual Inspection and Function Test. A Visual Inspection of All Components, including the Facepiece, Regulator, Cylinder and Valve Assembly will be conducted _________. A) Daily B) Monthly C) Weekly D) Bi-Weekly |
C) Weekly |
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According to TB 266, the MSA Premaire Cadet G1 Escape Pack Visual Inspection and Function Test. A Functional Test will be performed_________. A) Monthly B) Weekly C) Daily D) Only after use |
A) Monthly |
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According to TB 262 Cylinder Tagging. Each cylinder has a colored zip tie secured around the neck of the cylinder. The colors represent_____________. A) Station Identification B) District Identification C) Apparatus Identification D) A Hydrostatic Testing Schedule |
D) A Hydrostatic Testing Schedule |
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According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. Each will carry a compliment of ______ temporary facepieces. A) 10 B) 12 C) 5 D) 8 |
C) 5 |
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According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. If a facepiece is issued to replace a faulty or damaged one, what must be done with the issued replacement when the original personal issued is repaired and returned. A) The issued replacement is sent to stores B) The issued replacement is kept in station as a spare C) The issued replacement is cleaned, sanitized and returned to the original issuing Car73 or Car74 D) None of the above |
C) The issued replacement is cleaned, sanitized and returned to the original issuing Car73 or Car74 |
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According to TB 265 MSA G1 Facepiece and Regulator Cleaning and Disinfecting, what is the minimum recommended contact time for the Facepiece and Regulator using Confidence Plus 2. A) 20 seconds B) 30 seconds C) 60 seconds D) 45 seconds |
B) 30 seconds |
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According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, which of the following is not found in the 3 Golden Rules for Operating an Elevator in Firefighter Emergency Operations (FEO)? A) Turn the switches ON (Phase I and Phase II) B) Never leave the elevator car without the key (HOLD) C) Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator. D) If all goes wrong turn the Phase II switch OFF. |
C) Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator. |
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According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, which of the following is not considered an Elevator classification? A) Passenger B) Dumbwaiters C) Service (which are commonly classified as passenger elevators designed to carry freight) D) Freight |
B) Dumbwaiters |
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According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, who is the Authority Having Jurisdiction with regards to elevators in Ontario? A) CSA (Canadian Standards Association) B) MOL (Ministry of Labor) C) TC (Transport Canada) D) TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act) |
D) TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act) |
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According to, Training Bulletin 38, Aerial Ladder Load Limits and Interpreting Load Charts, under what condition can an Aerial Ladder be lowered to rest upon a structure? A) High Winds B) Rescue Situation C) Under no circumstances D) Full Extension |
C) Under no circumstances |
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According to, Training Bulletin 38, Aerial Ladder Load Limits and Interpreting Load Charts, which of these are typically found on an Aerial Ladder Load Limit Chart? A) Ladder Angle B) Permissible Loads on each individual section, based on the Ladder’s angle of elevation C) Permissible Loads on each individual section, based on whether the aerial water tower is flowing water or not. (Wet or Dry) D) All of the above |
D) All of the above |
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According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Fire Streams 08: At 212 degrees F/100 Degrees C, water expands approximately how many times its’ original volume as it changes to steam?
A) 500 B) 875 C) 950 D) 1700 |
D) 1700 |
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According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Fire Streams 08: Water Hammer, which can cause damage to pumps, hoses, watermains, couplings, nozzles and hydrants, can be prevented by? A) Operating nozzle controls, hydrants, valves, and hose clamps slowly B) Listening for sound changes in your pump C) Monitoring your pump pressure and intake gauges D) Keeping the pump pressure just below the desired pressure |
A) Operating nozzle controls, hydrants, valves, and hose clamps slowly |
