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70 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Mention 5 diseases that can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus!
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<b> Impetigo
Furunculus Pneumonia Osteomyelits Food poisoning </b> |
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Mention 2 toxin-mediated staphylococcal diseases!
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TSS*
Scalded Skin Syndrome Food Poisoning (Toxic Shock Syndrome) |
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Mention 3 toxic products produced by Staphylococcus aureus!
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<b> TSST*
Hemolysins Enteroxin Exfolatin Leukocidins</b> *(Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin) |
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Which is the most virulent species of Staphylococcus?
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<b> S. aureus </b>
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Which enzymatic virulence factor is characteristic exclusively for Staphylococcus aureus?
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<b> Coagulase </b>
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How can we identify the source of infection in a staphylococcal food poisoning?
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By phage typing
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Which antibacterial drug is the first choice in serious infections caused by methycillin
resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) strains? |
<b> Glycopeptides (Vancomycin, Teicoplanin) </b>
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In which disease is Staphylococcus saprophyticus considered an obligate pathogen!
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cystitis in young women
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Which cell constituents determine the group-specific, and the type specific antigens of
Streptococcus pyogenes, respectively? |
group specific: C-polysaccharide
type specific: M protein |
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Mention 3 enzymes produced by Streptococcus pyogenes that enhance the spread of
the bacterial infection in the body! |
Streptokinase (fibrinolysin)
Hyaluronidase Streptodornase (DNase) |
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List 3 diseases caused by Streptococcus pyogenes in the skin or in subcutaneous
tissues! |
Myositis
Impetigo (pyoderma) Cellulitis Erysipelas Fascitis |
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Mention a toxin-mediated streptococcal disease, specify the name of the toxin and its
mechanism of action! |
Scarlet fever
Erythrogenic toxin Superantigen causing papillary destruction |
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Mention 2 poststreptococcal diseases!
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<b> Glomerulonephritis
Rheumatic fever </b> Erythema nodosum Chorea minor |
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Which product of Streptococcus pyogenes has a major pathogenic role in poststreptococcal diseases?
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<b> M protein </b> may induce hypersensitivity reactions
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How long does immunity against scarlet fever exist? Which immune effector mechanism is involved?
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Life-long immunity. Antitoxic antibodies are involved.
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What is the drug of first choice in Streptococcus pyogenes infection?
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Penicillin-G
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What is the patomechanism of post-streptococcal rheumatic fever?
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Type II Hypersensitivity (cytotoxic antibodies)
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What is the patomechanism of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
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Type III Hypersensitivity (immune complexes)
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Which Streptococcus species plays major role in the meningitis of newborn babies?
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Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae)
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What is (are) the major causative agent(s) for subacute bacterial endocarditis?
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Viridens streptococci
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What are the characteristics of Enterococci that can be used in their identification?
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> D group polysaccharide antigen
> Tolerence to bile and hydrolysis of esculin (BEA medium: bile eusculin agar) > Growth in presence of 6.5% NaCl |
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What are the specific morphologic features of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
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Gram positive diplococcus
Lancet shape Capsule |
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Mention 3 diseases that can be caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae!
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<b> Pneumonia
Meningitis Sinusitis Otitis media Sepsis </b> Ulcus serpens corneae |
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What fast diagnostic procedure can be used in acute Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?
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<b> Demonstration of bacteria (intracellular PMNs) from urethral discharge by Gram or methylene blue stain </b>
PCR amplification of bacterial DNA |
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What kind of immunity develops after Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?
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Partial immunity of short duration
No protection from reinfection |
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Specify at least 2 of the most important manifestations of disseminated gonorrhoeal
infections! |
<b> Arthritis
Skin eruptions </b> endocarditis meningitis |
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What is the major manifestation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in newborns?
How can it be prevented? |
Manifestation: Blenorrhea (opthalmia) neonatorum
Prevention: Silver acetate eye drops or erythromycin ointment |
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Mention at least 3 major virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhoeae!
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Pilus
Outer Membrane Proteins LOS (lipooligosaccharride) IgA protease |
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Mention at least 2 major virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis!
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Polysaccharride capsule
LPS IgA protease |
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What is the site of entry of Neisseria meningitidis infection?
Which diseases are caused by this bacterium? |
Site of entry: <b> Nasopharynx </b> (transmitted by airborne droplets
<b> Meningococcemia </b> (characterised by skin lesions) and by acute (purulent) bacterial <b> meningitis </b> |
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What kinds of prophylactic measurements are available against Neisseria meningitidis
infections? |
Chemoprophylaxis: Rifampin or Ciprofloxacin
Vaccination: Capsular polysaccharide (types A, C, Y & W135). No vaccine against type B |
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Which rapid diagnostic methods can be used in the presumptive diagnosis of purulent bacterial meningitis?
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Gram or methylene stain of CSF sediment
Demonstration of bacterial capsular antigens by latex aggregation (from CSF) |
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Which capsular serotype is included in the vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae?
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type B
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Which are the portals of entry of Bacillus anthracis?
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Skin
Lungs Gastrointestinal tract |
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Mention 3 important bacteria involved in nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections!
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Staphlococcus aureus
Enterococcus faecalis Pseudomonas aeruginosa Escherichia coli |
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Mention four E. coli pathogenetic groups involved in enteric diseases!
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<b> Enteropathogenic E. coli </b> (EPEC)
<b> Enterotoxic E. coli </b> (ETEC) <b> Enterovasive E. coli </b> (EIEC) <b> Enterohemorrhagic E. coli </b> (EHEC) Enteroaggregatvie E. coli (EAggEC) |
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What are the most important extraintestinal infections caused by E. coli?
Mention at least 3 of them! |
Urinary tract infections
Neonatal meningitis Nosocomial wound infections |
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The most frequent causative agent of urinary tract infections is:
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Escherichia coli
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Which 2 diseases are caused by E. coli O157:H7?
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haemorrhagic colitis +/- HUS (hemolytic uraemic syndrome)
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What is the reservoir of Salmonella typhi?
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humans (with disease or healthy carriers)
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Which bacteria cause most frequently typhoid fever and enteric fever, respectively?
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Salmonella typhi (typhoid)
Salmonella paratyphi A, B, C (enteric fever) |
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When typhoid fever is suspected, what kinds of clinical samples should be used to isolate
the causative agent in the first 2 weeks of the disease? |
<b> Blood </b>
Bone marrow |
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What is the route of infection in Salmonella gastroenteritis?
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<b> Ingestion of contaminated food </b> such as eggs, cream, mayonaisse, creamed foods etc) <b> containing a sufficient number of Salmonella </b>
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Which antibacterial drugs should be administered in gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella?
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Antibiotics are not usually necessary unless the infection is generalised.
In cases of extraintestinal infection (very young, very old or immunosuppressed patients) Ampicillin, Gentamicin, Trimethoprim/ Sulfamethoxozale or Ciproflaxin |
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List the 4 Shigella species causing human disease!
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S. dysenteriae
S. flexneri S. boydii S. sonnei |
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Mention 2 bacterial species belonging to different genera that cause bacillary dysentery
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Shigella dysenteriae </b> (S. flenxeri, boydii & sonnei)
<b> enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) |
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Mention 3 bacterial species belonging to different genera that cause enteritis or enterocolitis!
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Campylobacter jejuni
Escherichia coli Salmonella enteritis Shigella Yersinia enterocolitica |
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Mention 2 bacteria causing intestinal infections which have animal reservoirs!
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Salmonella (not Typhi or Paratyphi)
Campylobacter jejuni Yersinia enterocolitica |
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What are the modes of transmission for the 2 different epidemiologic forms of plague?
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<u> Bubonic Plague </u> : transmitted by the bite of infected rat fleas from rats to humans
<u> Primary Pneumonic Plague </u> : spreads directly from human to human via respiratory droplets |
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What are the possible portals of entry of Francisella tularensis? Specify at least 4!
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Tick bite
Mucous membranes Skin abrasions Resp. tract GI tract |
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How do humans acquire brucellosis? Where do the bacteria replicate in the human body?
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Via contaminated milk products or through skin abrasions (contact with animals). Organisms spread to mononuclear phagocytes of the reticuloendothelial system (lymph nodes, spleen, liver, bone marrow)
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What are the reservoirs of the different Brucella species, respectively?
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B. arbotus: cattle
B. melitensis: goat, sheep B. suis: swine |
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What is the mechanism of action of cholera toxin?
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Cholera toxin activates the adenylate cyclase enzyme in the cells of the intestinal mucosa leading to <b> increased levels of intracellular cAMP </b> and the <b> secretion of large amount of water, K+, Na+, Cl- and HCO3- in the lumen <b/> of the small intestine
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What is the principle of the treatment for cholera?
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Rapid intravenous or oral <b> replacement of the lost fluid and ions </b>.
(Administration of isotonic maintenance solution should continue until the diarrhoea ceases). In severe cases administration of tetracycline (in addnt to rehydration). |
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Mention 4 diseases caused by Haemophilus influenzae!
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<b> Purulent meningitis
Epiglottitis (obstructive laryngitis) otitis media and sinustitis pneumonia </b> cellulitis arthritis |
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Which disease is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi?
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Chancroid (soft chancre or ulcus molle)
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What can serve as source of infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
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Pseudonomas species are normally present in the <b> environment </b> and can be isolated from <b> skin, throat and stool </b> of some healthy persons.
They often colonise hospital food, sinks, mops, and respiratory equipment. |
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Mention 4 diseases that are frequently caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa!
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Urinary Tract Infections
Wound infections (burns) pneumonia, sepsis (immunosuppression) otitis externa |
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Mention at least 3 drugs which may be effective to treat infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa!
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certain penicillins: <b> piperacillin/tazobactam combo
3rd gen cephalosporin: <b> ceftazidim </b> 4th gen cephalosporin: <b> cefepime </b> certain aminoglycosides: gentamycin, <b> tobramycin, amikacin </b> carbapenams: <b> imipenam </b> meropenam |
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Which 2 diseases are caused by Legionella pneumophila?
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<b> legionellosis, legionaires's disease </b> (atypical pneumonia)
<b> Pontiac fever </b> (mild, flu-like illness without pneumonia) |
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List 3 important virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis!
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filamentous hemagglutinin
pertussis toxin adenylate-cyclase toxin tracheal cytotoxin |
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Mention 3 bacterium species causing food poisoning!
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Staphlococcus aureus
Bacillus cereus Clostridium perfingens Clostridium botulinum Vibrio parahaemolyticus (Salmonella serotypes causing enterocolitis) |
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Which bacterium has the highest germ number in the colon?
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Bacteroides fragilis
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Mention 4 bacterial genera that are obligate anaerobes!
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Actinomyces
Bacteroides Bifidobacterium Clostridium Fusobacterium Peptostreptococcus Porphyrommas Propionibacterium Prevotella |
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Which is the most important gas gangrene Clostridium?
What is its main virulence factor? |
Clostridium perfingens
alpha toxin (lecithinase) |
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Mention 3 Clostridium species causing gas gangrene!
How are they acquired? |
<b> Clostridium perfingens,
C. novyi, C. septicum, C histolyticum </b> C. tertium, C. bifermentans, C. sporogenes Site of infection is usually a wound that comes in contact with Clostridium spores that germinate <b> in an anaerobic environment </b> |
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How can be tetanus prevented in patients who have wounds possibly contaminated with C. tetani spores?
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Wound should be <b> cleaned and debrided; tetanus toxoid booster injection given
tetanus immunoglobulin </b> (TETIG) given in previously unvaccinated patients and in case of heavy contamination of wound penicillin may be added prophylactically |
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What are the main symptoms of tetanus infection? Specify at least 3!
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<b> lockjaw (trismus)
rhisus sardonicus (grimace of the face) opisthotonus (spasm of back) respiratory paralysis </b> Spastic paralysis Muscle spasms |
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What is the mechanism of action of the botulinus toxin?
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<b> Blocks release of acetylcholine </b> in peripheral nerve synapses
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What are the main symptoms of botulism? Specify at least 3!
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Flaccid paralysis
Diplopia (double vision) Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) Dysphonia (hoarseness) Respiratory paralysis |
