Child Development 1 Test 2, Chapters 3-4

Front 1

The correct sequence of prenatal development is:
a. embryonic period, fetal period, germinal period.
b. embryonic period, germinal period, fetal period.
c. germinal period, embryonic period, fetal period.
d. fetal period, embryonic period, germinal period.

Back 1

c. germinal period, embryonic period, fetal period.

Front 2

Which of the following prenatal periods is the longest?
a. germinal
b. embryonic
c. fetal
d. neonatal

Back 2

c. fetal

Front 3

The organ that develops within the pregnant woman’s uterus to protect and nourish the developing prenatal organism is called the:

Back 3

placenta.

Front 4

The embryo has all the basic organs and body parts (except male and female organs) at approximately how many weeks after conception?

Back 4

8 weeks

Front 5

The age of viability refers to:

Back 5

the age at which the fetus can survive outside of the uterus with specialized medical care.

Front 6

Of the following factors, which is the MOST crucial in determining whether a preterm newborn will survive?
a. gestational maturity
b. race
c. method of delivery
d. gender

Back 6

a. gestational maturity

Front 7

Babies born before ____ weeks of gestation do not survive.

Back 7

22

Front 8

What is a teratogen?

Back 8

A substance that increases the risk of prenatal abnormalities

Front 9

During prenatal development, the time of greatest susceptibility to teratogens is the:

Back 9

critical period.

Front 10

A term that refers to the result of a combination of teratogens is:

Back 10

interaction effect.

Front 11

A U.S. law requiring that folic acid be added to manufactured cereal and bread has resulted in a decrease in:

Back 11

neural-tube defects.

Front 12

Eating undercooked meat or handling cat feces can lead to:

Back 12

toxoplasmosis.

Front 13

Research indicates that a woman puts her fetus at risk of developing fetal alcohol syndrome if she:
a. drinks moderately.
b. binge drinks.
c. occasionally drinks.
d. all of these answers are correct.

Back 13

d. all of these answers are correct.

Front 14

Which of the following postconception testing methods is used to detect neural-tube defects and does not increase the risk of spontaneous abortion?
a. alpha-fetoprotein assay
b. chorionic villi sampling
c. amniocentesis
d. PAPPA assay

Back 14

a. alpha-fetoprotein assay

Front 15

A “breech” baby is positioned:

Back 15

buttocks or feet first.

Front 16

The Apgar scale measures all of the following except:
a. heart rate.
b. color.
c. size.
d. respiratory effect.

Back 16

c. size.

Front 17

What is anoxia?

Back 17

a lack of oxygen during birth

Front 18

A preterm baby is born ____ or more weeks before the full 38 weeks of a typical pregnancy.

Back 18

3

Front 19

A small for gestational age (SGA) baby:

Back 19

weighs significantly lower than expected.

Front 20

Kangaroo care is a technique designed to help:

Back 20

low-birthweight babies

Front 21

The first two weeks of development after conception is called the:

Back 21

germinal period.

Front 22

The stage of prenatal development that lasts from the ninth week after conception until birth is:

Back 22

fetal.

Front 23

The embedding of the prenatal organism into the lining of the uterus is called:

Back 23

implantation.

Front 24

Which of the following happens during the fetal period?
a. implantation.
b. The neural tube forms.
c. The blastocyst becomes an embryo.
d. The genitals develop.

Back 24

d. The genitals develop.

Front 25

The age after conception at which a preterm newborn can survive with specialized medical care is:

Back 25

22 weeks.

Front 26

Advances in which area are CRITICAL in attaining the age of viability?

Back 26

brain functioning.

Front 27

Teratology is the study of:

Back 27

birth defects.

Front 28

Certain teratogens are relatively harmless in small doses but become harmful once exposure reaches a certain level. This is called:

Back 28

the threshold effect.

Front 29

Exposure to teratogens during weeks 3 to 4 of pregnancy may result in birth defects to which of the following parts of the body?
a. lip
b. teeth
c. genitalia
d. heart

Back 29

d. heart

Front 30

Which factor is associated with neural-tube defects?

Back 30

folic acid deficiency

Front 31

The use of tobacco during pregnancy:

Back 31

may affect the baby’s urinary tract.

Front 32

According to the text, the use of caffeine during pregnancy:

Back 32

is not a problem as long as it is used in moderation.

Front 33

Fetal alcohol syndrome is associated with:

Back 33

abnormal facial features.

Front 34

Which of the following prenatal tests uses high frequency sound waves?

Back 34

sonogram

Front 35

In a normal birth, the spontaneous onset of labor is set in motion by:

Back 35

fetal hormones that trigger uterine contractions.

Front 36

Which of the following Apgar scores indicates that a newborn is in critical condition?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10

Back 36

a. 3

Front 37

Low birthweight (LBW) is defined as a body weight less than ____ at birth.

Back 37

5 ½ pounds

Front 38

An infant born at 34 weeks would be classified as:

Back 38

a preterm birth.

Front 39

Which term describes feelings of inadequacy and sadness following the birth of a baby?
a. parental alliance
b. teratogen effect
c. interaction effect
d. postpartum depression

Back 39

d. postpartum depression

Front 40

Parental involvement in kangaroo care consists of:

Back 40

skin-to skin-contact between parent(s) and newborn.

Front 41

Chromosomes are molecules of:

Back 41

deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

Front 42

How many pairs of chromosomes are contained in an average human cell?

Back 42

23

Front 43

A genome is:

Back 43

a full set of instructions to make a living organism.

Front 44

What is formed when a sperm cell and an ovum fuse?

Back 44

zygote

Front 45

What chromosomal pair determines a person’s sex?

Back 45

23rd

Front 46

Carlson received a blue-eyed allele from BOTH of his biological parents. What is the term to describe this gene pattern?

Back 46

homozygous

Front 47

The chromosomal makeup of a typical girl is:

Back 47

XX

Front 48

Which type of twins originates from one zygote that splits apart?

Back 48

monozygotic

Front 49

Alicia and Sergio have decided to use assisted reproductive technology (ART) to conceive. What would be the USUAL reason for them to consider ART?
a. Sergio has a high sperm count.
b. Sergio wants twins.
c. Alicia is not able to ovulate.
d. Alicia’s fallopian tubes are clear.

Back 49

c. Alicia is not able to ovulate.

Front 50

Traits affected by many factors, both genetic and environmental, are referred to as:

Back 50

multifactorial.

Front 51

A person with a recessive gene in his or her genotype that is not expressed in the phenotype is called:

Back 51

a carrier

Front 52

When a pair of alleles interacts, the resulting phenotype reveals the influence of one allele more than that of the other allele. This pattern is called:

Back 52

a dominant-recessive pattern.

Front 53

If a zygote has genes for “musical genius,” which is true?
a. The zygote will become a person who is a musical genius.
b. Nothing can prevent the development of a trait for musical genius.
c. Genotype equals phenotype.
d. Additional genes and factors in the environment may result in a trait for musical genius.

Back 53

d. Additional genes and factors in the environment may result in a trait for musical genius.

Front 54

The variable that MOST often correlates with chromosomal abnormalities is:
a. parental exposure to radiation.
b. the pregnant mother’s drug use.
c. the older age of the mother.
d. the older age of the father.

Back 54

c. the older age of the mother.

Front 55

Down syndrome is a condition in which an individual has three copies of:

Back 55

chromosome 21.

Front 56

Melissa has ONE X chromosome and underdeveloped female organs. What is her condition?

Back 56

Turner syndrome

Front 57

Each of the following results from an atypical number of chromosomes EXCEPT:
a. Tourette syndrome.
b. Turner syndrome.
c. Down syndrome.
d. Klinefelter syndrome.

Back 57

a. Tourette syndrome.

Front 58

Which genetic disorder is sex-linked, appears on the X chromosome, and may result in mental retardation?

Back 58

fragile X syndrome

Front 59

In general, genetic counseling is recommended for:

Back 59

women over age 35 and men over age 40.

Front 60

Suppose a couple has a 75 percent chance of conceiving a child with a lifelong, painful genetic disorder. Who makes the decision about whether the couple should try to conceive?

Back 60

the couple

Front 61

Each molecule of DNA is called a:

Back 61

chromosome.

Front 62

The typical human cell contains how many chromosomes?

Back 62

23 pairs

Front 63

The full set of genes for a living organism is called a:

Back 63

genome.

Front 64

What is a zygote?

Back 64

reproductive cells that have fused

Front 65

Claudia received an allele for brown eyes (B) from her father and an allele for blue eyes from her mother. Her gene pair is said to be:

Back 65

heterozygous.

Front 66

The chromosomal makeup of a typical male is:

Back 66

XY

Front 67

Which type of twin is created when two ova are fertilized by two sperm?

Back 67

dizygotic

Front 68

The process by which ova are surgically removed from a woman and then mixed with sperm to produce a zygote, which is then inserted into the uterus, is called:

Back 68

in vitro fertilization.

Front 69

_____ refers to traits that are affected by many genes, and _____refers to traits that are influenced by many factors.

Back 69

Polygenic; multifactorial

Front 70

Which of the following regarding the human genome is TRUE?
a. Human genes are unique to the human species and found in no other species.
b. Humans have approximately 250 genes.
c. Humans and chimpanzees have 99 percent of their genes in common.
d. The mother’s ovum determines the chromosomal sex of the child.

Back 70

c. Humans and chimpanzees have 99 percent of their genes in common.

Front 71

A gene is recessive when:

Back 71

its expression is masked by a more influential gene.

Front 72

Monozygotic twins Randy and Rowdy have identical genes. They have many similarities, but what explains the differences in their height, weight, and behavior?

Back 72

Something in one of the boy’s environments affected his genes differently than it affected his brother.

Front 73

Chromosomal abnormalities occur when the zygote’s cells have:

Back 73

more or fewer than 46 chromosomes.

Front 74

A person with three copies of chromosome 21 has:

Back 74

Down syndrome.

Front 75

An embryo cannot develop without:

Back 75

an X chromosome.

Front 76

Which condition affects only boys and has a chromosomal pattern of two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome (XXY)?

Back 76

Klinefelter syndrome

Front 77

Which genetic disorder is most common among African Americans?

Back 77

Sickle-cell anemia

Front 78

A genetic disorder that causes the inability to metabolize an amino acid and may lead to brain damage and mental retardation is called:

Back 78

phenylketonuria (PKU).

Front 79

Juan and Rosey are planning on having a baby. At what age is Rosey a candidate for genetic counseling due to an increased risk of chromosomal abnormalities?

Back 79

36

Front 80

Which of the following information about a couple would NOT be of interest to a genetic counselor?
a. ethnicity
b. age
c. socioeconomic status
d. family history of genetic disorders

Back 80

c. socioeconomic status