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114 Cards in this Set

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Fe2+ is transported in the bloodstream by [________] to the [_________] for RBC formation.

1. transferrin


2. red bone marrow

In the bloodstream, the rupture of RBCs is called [__________]. Hemoglobin that is not [___________] breaks down, and the alpha and beta chains are [______________]

1. hemolysis


2. phagocytized


3. eliminated in urine

RBC production is called [____________]

Erythropoiesis

In adults, erythropoiesis only occurs in [_____________]

myeloid tissues (red bone marrow)

Where is red bone marrow found?

Vertebrae, sternum, ribs, skull, scapulae, pelvis, and proximal limb bones

In order, what are the five general stages of RBC maturation?

1. Myeloid stem cell


2. Proerythroblast


3. Erythroblast stages


4. Reticulocyte


5. Mature RBC



At what stage of RBC development is the nucleus ejected and the RBC enters the bloodstream?

reticulocyte

Building red blood cells requires three things in general. What are they?

1. Amino acids


2. Iron


3. Vitamins



What vitamins, specifically, are required to make RBCs?

B12, B6, and folic acid



What happens if a person lacks B12, B6, and folic acid?

Anemia. For example pernicious anemia.

What is pernicious anemia?

Low RBC production due to B12 deficiency.

Which hormone stimulates RBC production in stem cells?

Erythropoietin (EPO)

Where is erythropoietin made?

The liver and kidneys

When is EPO secreted?

EPO is secreted by the liver and kidneys in response to low O2 levels in the peripheral tissues

What does EPO do? 3 things.

1.Stimulates division of erythroblasts


2. Stimulates stem cells that produce erythroblasts.


3. Speeds up maturation of RBCs

What kind of molecule are surface antigens?

glycoproteins

These proteins exist on the surface of RBCs and identify cells to the immune system.

Surface antigens



Surface antigens tell your immune system...

whether a cell is normal or foreign

Blood types are [______________] determined by the presence of RBC [__________ _________]. Especially important ones include [__,___,___(__)]

genetically


surface antigens


A, B, Rh (D)

What is the significance of genes on chromosome #___?

The genes on chromosome 9 dictate blood type

If your blood type is O, you have what surface antigens

neither A or B

This word means to attack and clump foreign antigens

agglutinate

Your blood plasma contains antibodies against whichever antigens your blood type does not possess. Thusly,




If you have type A blood, you have _____ antibodies




With type B blood, you have _____ antibodies




With type O blood you have ____ antibodies




With type AB blood you have ____ antibodies

anti-B


anti-A


Both anti A and anti B


no

Throughout life, even without prior exposure, your blood possesses these type of antibodies (depending on blood type)

A or B

Antibodies against __ are only developed if sensitized, which means _________

D; previously exposed

Sometimes there are issues of compatibility between ____ maternal blood and _____ fetal blood

Rh-


Rh+

An Rh incompatibility between mother and child is called

hemolytic disease of the newborn

When an antibody meets its specific surface antigen, what happens?

The RBCs will agglutinate and hemolyze

What danger does a cross-reaction during a transfusion pose?

Clumping interferes with normal blood flow and destroys tissues

Person with Type A blood can




Receive from:


Donate to:

Receive: A,O


Donate: A, AB

Person with Type B blood can




Receive from:


Donate to:

Receive: B, O


Donate: B, AB

Person with Type AB blood can




Receive from:


Donate to:

Receive: AB, O, A, B


Donate: AB

Person with type O blood can




Receive from:


Donate to:

Receive: O


Donate: A, B, AB, O

How is blood typing performed?

Involves exposing the blood to separate solutions containing Anti-A, Anti-B, and Anti-D antibodies

In an emergency, what blood type is given?

Type O-

Is Rh+ or Rh- more common?

Rh+

What is "cross-match" testing.

Take a sample of the patients blood and expose it to the blood to be transfused to watch for incompatibilities with surface antigens besides A, B, and D

What are some other uses of blood typing?

Paternity cases and crime scene analysis



With respect to crime scene analysis, what can blood typing tell you?

It can't tell you specifically who did it, but it can rule somebody out.

WBCs are also called

leukocytes

Three general differences between RBCs and WBCs

WBCs contain nuclei and organelles


WBCs do not contain hemoglobin


WBCs have a much shorter lifespan. Hours to days

In the US, from most common to least common, rank the blood types

O, A, B, AB

What are the three general functions of WBCs

1. Defend against pathogens


2. Remove toxins and wastes


3. Attack abnormal cells

Most WBCs are found in

connective tissue and lymphatic system organs

In blood, WBCs are

found in relatively small numbers. 5-10k/microliter

Four characteristics of WBCs

1. Can migrate out of the bloodstream


2. Have amoeboid movement


3. Attracted to chemical stimuli called positive chemotaxis


4. Some are phagocytic (neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes)

What is the chemical stimuli called that attracts WBCs

positive chemotaxis

What types of WBCs are granular

Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils

What types of WBCs are agranular

Monocytes and Lymphocytes

With regard to WBCs, what does it mean to be granular or agranular?

the presence or absence of granules visible after staining on a microscope

What is the relative abundance of types of white blood cells

Neutrophils>Lymphocytes>Monocytes>Eosinophils>Basophils

Describe the appearance of neutrophils

2-5 lobed nucleus. Granular. Have pale cytoplasmic granules that contain hydrogen peroxides and superperoxides = bactericides

What is the bactericidal mechanism of neutrophils

Neutrophils have pale cytoplasmic granules that contain hydrogen peroxides and superperoxides

Which type of WBC is first to attack bacteria

Neutrophils

How to neutrophils attack pathogens?

Engulf and digest pathogens.

__________ release prostaglandins which _____________ and _______________

Neutrophils


increase capillary permeability


cause local inflammation

_____________ release leukotrienes, which ______________

Neutrophils


"call" other phagocytes

The action of ___________ produces pus.

Neutrophils

Describe the nucleus of eosinophils

two lobed nucleus

How do eosinophils stain?

Granular. Granules stain darkly in acidic, red stain

_____________ can engulf foreign particles if they are _____________

marked with antibodies

____________ also complete exocytosis of toxic compounds to destroy pathogens that are....

Eosinophils




Too large to engulf

Eosinophils are especially effective against __________

parasitic worms

This type of WBC is sensitive to allergens

Eosinophils

This type of WBC migrates and accumulates in damaged tissues

Basophils

Basophils release __________ and __________ to ______________ and __________

histamine and heparin


dilate blood vessels and prevent clotting

Describe the nucleus of monocytes

Oval or kidney bean shaped

What are the general physical characteristics of monocytes?

Much larger than RBCs. Spherical in shape

These WBCs are much larger than RBCs and are spherical in shape.

Monocytes

These WBCs enter peripheral tissues and become macrophages

Monocytes

What is a macrophage

a particularly aggressive phagocyte. It can engulf items as large or larger than itself

This WBC secretes substances to attract other phagocytes and fibroblasts to seal an injured area

Monocytes

This type of WBC is slightly larger than an RBC

Lymphocyte

What kind of nucleus do lymphocytes have?

Large, round nucleus

This type of WBC migrates in and out of blood, tissues, and organs of the lymphatic system

Lymphocytes

This type of WBC is part of the body's specific defense system

Lymphocytes

There are three classes of lymphocytes. Name them

1. T Cells


2. B Cells


3. Natural Killer (NK) cells

Describe T Cells

cell-mediated immunity. Must migrate to target and attack foreign cells directly

Describe B-Cells

Humoral immunity. Makes antibodies. Does not have to migrate to the target



Describe natural killer cells

do immune surveillance. Detect and destroy cancer cells

Clinical term for low WBC count

leukopenia

Clinical term for elevated WBC count

leukocytosis

What sort of WBC numbers would one expect from someone with leukemia?

Leukocytosis - elevated WBC count

From what kind of cells do WBCs originate?

hemocytoblasts

What is a hemocytoblast?

A myeloid stem cell

__________ stem cells make all WBCs except for ___________, which are made in ____________

myeloid


lymphocytes


Red bone marrow

While __________ are made from myeloid stem cells, they ____________

monocytes


finish development in the tissues

What is the term for the production of lymphocytes, what cells are responsible for it, and where are they found

lymphopoiesis


lymphoid stem cells


red bone marrow

Speaking generally, what are platelets?

Cell fragments involved in the human clotting system.

Platelets circulate ______ days, and then are engulfed by _____________ in the _________ to remove

9-12


phagocytosis


spleen

Approximately _________ of platelets circulate. Approximately ________ are kept on reserve in case of emergencies.

2/3


1/3

Term for abnormally low platelet count

thrombocytopenia

Term for abnormally high platelet count. Possible causes for this.

Thrombocytosis. Overproduction in response to infection, inflammation, or certain cancers

3 general functions of platelets

1. Release chemicals important to clotting process


2. Forming a temporary patch at the wall of the damaged blood vessels


3. Reducing the size of a break in vessel wall

What is the name for the temporary patch at the wall of damaged blood vessels?

Platelet plug

How do platelets reduce the size of a break in a vessel wall?

Platelets contain actin and myosin, which contract once a clot is formed

What is the term for platelet production? Where does it occur?

Thrombocytopoiesis.


Red bone marrow



From what cells do platelets arise?

Megakaryocytes, giant cells in bone marrow. They manufacture platelets from cytoplasm

What three hormones control platelet production?

1. Thrombopoietin


2. Interleukin-6


3. Multi-colony stimulating factor.

Origin and mechanism of thrombopoietin

peptide hormone from kidneys. Stimulates production of megakaryocytes

Function of interleukin-6

Stimulates platelet formation from megakaryoctes

Function of multi-colony stimulating factor

Stimulates myeloid stem cell production that will lead to megakaryocytes

Term for the cessation of bleeding through the walls of a damaged vessel

hemostasis

What are the 3, but really 4, phases of hemostasis?

1. Vascular phase


2. platelet phase


3. Coagulation phase


4. clot retraction

What happens during the vascular phase of hemostasis?

Local contraction of smooth muscles of vessel to reduce diameter of vessel (vascular spasm)




Endothelial cells become sticky & begin division to speed up repair

What happens during the platelet phase of hemostasis?

Platelets attach to the sticky endothelial cells from the vascular phase. Forms a platelet plug




Platelets release chemicals to promote aggregation of more platelets, more vascular spasm, and vessel repair

What happens during the coagulation phase of hemostasis?

Circulating fibrinogen is converted to fibrin -- an insoluble protein




This forms a blood clot: a growing fibrin meshwork that traps blood cells and seals the damaged site

What happens during clot retraction?

Platelets contract once the fibrin meshwork is formed

______________(_________________) are needed for proper clot formation

Clotting factors (procoagulants)

This vitamin is important for the formation of _______ different proteins involved in clotting.

Vitamin K


Four

Describe vitamin K

Fat soluble vitamin found in green vegetables, grains, organ meats, and produced by gut bacteria

Many clotting factors are _____________ that are inactive until activated by the clotting process

proenzymes

Activation of one proenzyme often creates an enzyme that....

activates a second proenzyme in the pathway

done

done