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60 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What effects do sedatives have on the body?
1. Sedatives reduce anxiety and agitation and promote sleep and anterograde amnesia.
Why is paralysis used during mechanical ventilation?
2. Paralysis is used to facilitate invasive procedures, such as intubation, to ensure the stability of an airway and to decrease mean airway pressure during uncoordinated or uncontrolled mechanical ventilation.
List the four types of pharmacological agents used for sedation in the ICU. Give at least one example of each.
3. (a) Benzodiazepines (diazepam, midazolam, and lorazepam), (b) opioids (morphine, fentanyl), neuroleptics (haloperidol), (c) anesthetic agents (propofol), and (d) opioids (morphine, fentanyl).
What modes of ventilation often require patients to be sedated?
3. (a) Benzodiazepines (diazepam, midazolam, and lorazepam), (b) opioids (morphine, fentanyl), neuroleptics (haloperidol), (c) anesthetic agents (propofol), and (d) opioids (morphine, fentanyl).
Name the four JCAHO-defined levels of sedation.
3. (a) Benzodiazepines (diazepam, midazolam, and lorazepam), (b) opioids (morphine, fentanyl), neuroleptics (haloperidol), (c) anesthetic agents (propofol), and (d) opioids (morphine, fentanyl).
Complete the following table using the four JCAHO-defined levels of sedation. What type of patient response and ventilatory and cardiovascular function do patients have at each level of sedation?
6.

Sedation Level
Patient Response Ventilatory Function Cardiovascular Function
Minimal Positive to verbal commands; cognitive function may be impaired Unaffected Unaffected
Moderate Positive to verbal commands; may require tactile stimulation Maintained Maintained
Deep Not easily aroused; positive to painful stimuli Inadequate spontaneous ventilation and patent airway Maintained
Anesthesia Cannot be aroused even with painful stimuli Requires ventilatory assistance with artificial airway and PPV May be impaired
What level of sedation may be necessary when a patient's breathing is asynchronous with the mechanical ventilatory mode?
7. Deep sedation may be required during the initial phases of mechanical ventilation, especially when the patient is asynchronous.
What level of sedation is necessary during weaning from mechanical ventilation?
7. Deep sedation may be required during the initial phases of mechanical ventilation, especially when the patient is asynchronous.
What scoring systems may be used to assess the level of sedation in adults and children?
8. If sedation is necessary during weaning from mechanical ventilation, minimal levels of sedation should be used.
What range of scores indicates adequate sedation?
10. A score of 2 to 4 on the Ramsay scale indicates adequate sedation.
What score indicates the need for sedation?
11. A score of 1 indicates the need for sedation.
What scores indicate oversedation of a patient?
12. Scores of 5 to 6 indicate oversedation for a patient.
Why are benzodiazepines the drugs of choice for the treatment of anxiety in critical care?
13. Benzodiazepines are the drugs of choice for anxiety because of their ability to produce anxiolytic, hypnotic, muscle relaxing, anticonvulsant, and anterograde amnesic effects.
What is the mode of action for benzodiazepines?
14. Benzodiazepines depress the CNS by binding to receptors in the GABA receptor complex on neurons in the brain. This increases the chloride permeability of the neuron, which in turn hyperpolarizes the neuron, making it less likely to depolarize.
What factors alter the intensity and duration of action of various benzodiazepines?
15. Factors that influence the duration of action of benzodiazepines include age, underlying pathology, and concurrent drug therapy.
What pathological processes prolong recovery from treatment with benzodiazepines?
16. Hepatic and renal insufficiencies prolong the recovery from benzodiazepines.
Why does diazepam have a rapid onset of action?
17. Diazepam has a rapid onset of action because of its high lipid solubility and ability to traverse the blood-brain barrier relatively quickly. Onset is 3 to 5 minutes when the drug is administered IV.
How is diazepam administered?
18. IV bolus at the start of infusion, followed by a series of smaller boluses with close titration to produce the desired plasma concentration of the drug
Acutely agitated patients are best treated with which benzodiazepine? Why?
19. Acutely agitated patients are best treated with midazolam (Versed), because it has a rapid onset and a short half-life.
How can prolonged sedation occur with midazolam?
20. Prolonged sedation with midazolam can occur from accumulation of the drug and its metabolites in the peripheral tissues when it is used for longer than 48 hours.
Which benzodiazepine is best suited for sedating mechanically ventilated patients in the ICU for longer than 24 hours?
21. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the drug of choice for use with ventilated patients for longer than 24 hours.
An overdose of benzodiazepines may be reversed with what drug?
22. Flumazenil (Romazicon) reverses the effects of benzodiazepines.
Potential side effects of continual use of lorazepam (Ativan) include:
23. Lactic acidosis, hyperosmolar coma, and a reversible nephrotoxicity.
What class of drugs is routinely used to treat extremely agitated and delirious patients in the ICU?
24. neuroleptics
The drug most often used to treat ICU delirium is
25. haloperidol
What are some of the side effects of the drug haloperidol?
26. Haloperidol has antidopaminergic and anticholinergic effects. It can induce alpha blockade, lower the seizure threshold, and evoke Parkinson-like symptoms (i.e., extrapyramidal effects, such as muscle rigidity, drowsiness, and lethargy). Dose-dependent cardiac dysrhythmias, including QT prolongation and torsades de pointes, have also been reported, particularly in patients receiving high-dose bolus IV administration of haloperidol.
The anesthetic agent that has proved useful for sedation of neurosurgical patients is
27. propofol (Diprivan)
What are the hemodynamic effects of the drug propofol
28. Propofol (Diprivan) causes a reduction in systemic vascular resistance with a concomitant fall in blood pressure and bradycardia during the initial induction phase; it also reduces cerebral blood flow and ICP.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using haloperidol and propofol to sedate neurological patients.
29.
Advantages Disadvantages
Rapid onset, short duration of action (makes rapid awakening possible for neurological assessment), decreased ICP, clearance unaffected by renal or hepatic dysfunction. Hypotension, dysrhythmias, bradycardia, and elevated pancreatic enzymes. Prolonged use has been associated with lactic acidosis and lipidemia in pediatric patients.
Name the two most commonly used opioids:
30. (a) morphine and (b) fentanyl
List three effects that opiates have on the body.
31. (a) Relieve pain, (b) sedate, and (c) relieve anxiety.
How do opiates exert their effects on the body?
32. Their effects are mediated through μ and κ receptors. μ Receptors are responsible for analgesia, and κ receptors mediate the sedative effects.
List at least ten side effects of opioids.
33. Side effects of opioids include (any of the following) nausea, vomiting, reduced gastrointestinal motility, respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension, myoclonus, convulsions, histamine release, immunosuppression, and addiction.
What determines the severity of the side effects of opioids?
34. The severity of these side effects depends on the dosage administered, the extent of the patient`s illness, and the integrity of organ function (i.e., renal, hepatic, and hemodynamic function).
Which drug can reverse the respiratory depression caused by opioids?
35. naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
What effects does morphine have on the central nervous system?
36. Morphine`s effects on the CNS also include reduction of cerebral blood flow, intracranial pressure, and cerebral metabolic activity; drowsiness and lethargy; miosis; and suppression of the cough reflex.
How does morphine affect the gastrointestinal tract?
37. Reduction of lower esophageal sphincter tone and propulsive peristaltic activity of the intestine, which in turn leads to constipation. Morphine can increase the tone of the pyloric sphincter and ultimately lead to nausea and vomiting by delaying the passage of contents through the GI tract.
How does morphine affect the cardiovascular system?
38. Morphine can alter vascular resistance by causing a decrease in sympathetic tone and an increase in vagal tone. Reduction in vascular tone can lead to significant hypotension in patients who rely on increased sympathetic tone to maintain blood pressure.
Which opioid should be used for a patient whose hemodynamic status is unstable?
39. Fentanyl has minimal effects on the cardiovascular system and therefore should be used for patients with an unstable hemodynamic status.
40.
Increased intracranial pressure caused by traumatic brain injury may be controlled by a combination of which two drugs?
41. Morphine and propofol
What type of drug is used to reduce oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production?
42. NMBAs
What is the difference between depolarizing and nondepolarizing agents?
43. Depolarizing NMBAs bind to acetylcholine receptors, causing prolonged depolarization of the motor end plate. Nondepolarizing NMBAs cause paralysis by competitively inhibiting the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.
Why are NMBAs used while a patient is being mechanically ventilated?
44. NMBAs are used (1) when patient-ventilator dyssynchrony cannot be corrected by adjusting ventilator settings; (2) to facilitate less conventional mechanical ventilation strategies (e.g., inverse I:E ratios, high-frequency ventilation, permissive hypercapnia); (3) when dynamic hyperinflation cannot be corrected; and (4) to reduce oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production.
What is the pupose of train-of-four monitoring (TOF)?
45. To assess a patient’s depth of paralysis.
How does TOF operate?
46. Two electrodes are placed on the skin along a nerve path, near a hand, foot, or facial nerve. An electrical current consisting of four impulses is applied to the peripheral nerve over 2 seconds; the muscle contractions (twitches) produced provide information about the level of paralysis.
According to the Society for Critical Care Medicine, what indicates that an adequate amount of NMBA is being administered when TOF is used?
47. One or two twitches when the train-of-four test is performed indicate that an adequate amount of NMBA is being used.
What other medication is necessary when a paralytic agent is used?
48. Patients receiving an NMBA must also be given sedation, because NMBAs do not sedate the individual.
What other medication is necessary when a paralytic agent is used?
. Patients receiving an NMBA must also be given sedation, because NMBAs do not sedate the individual.
The most widely used depolarizing NMBA is:
. succinylcholine (Anectine)
What are the onset of action and duration of action for the drug referred to in succinylcholine.
. Succinylcholine’s onset is approximately 1 minute, and its duration of action is 5 to 10 minutes.
For what purpose is the drug referred to in succinylcholine used?
. Succinylcholine is used most often to facilitate endotracheal intubation.
52.
Which nonelpolarizing NMBAs are used for intermediate duration?
. Vecuronium bromide (Norcuron), atracurium besylate (Tracrium), and cisatracurium besylate (Nimbex) are intermediate-duration, nondepolarizing NMBAs.
What type of patient could experience prolonged paralysis after discontinuation of pancuronium? Why?
. Prolonged paralysis after discontinuation of pancuronium can occur in patients with renal and hepatic failure. The prolonged duration of action may be partially explained by the fact that it is metabolized in the liver to an active 3-hydroxy metabolite that retains up to 50% of the activity of the parent compound
Seizures have been associated with which nondepolarizing NMBA?
. Atracurium besylate (Tracrium)
Mast cell degranulation and histamine release, which may lead to peripheral vasodilation and hypotension, are associated with which nondepolarizing NMBA?
. Atracurium besylate (Tracrium)
Which nondepolarizing NMBAs are ideal for patients with renal and hepatic insufficiency?
. Atracurium besylate (Tracrium) and cisatracurium besylate (Nimbex)
Which nondepolarizing NMBA of choice for patients who are hemodynamically unstable, have cardiac disease, or are at risk of histamine release is:
. Cisatracurium besylate (Nimbex)
Give two side effects of the long-term use of neuromuscular blocking agents.
. (a) Tolerance, which may necessitate increasing the dosage, and (b) muscle weakness.
When a neuromuscular blocking agent is administered to a patient receiving ventilatory care, what ventilator alarms should be activated?
. When an NMBA is used in a mechanically ventilated patient, the apnea alarm, low inspiratory pressure alarm, low exhaled VT alarm, and low exhaled minute volume alarm should be set and active. If a pulse oximeter is used continually, the low SpO2 alarm should be used.
Which type of opioid is best suited to a patient who has asthma? Why?
Fentanyl (Sublimaze), a synthetic opioid, is the best choice for patients with asthma, because it does not cause histamine release, as morphine does. Morphine is not recommended in patients with asthma, because its mast cell–mediated histamine release may worsen bronchoconstriction.