Cardiology Rat Quiz Questions

Front 1

Which indicates the proper order of blood flow through the heart?

Back 1

Pulmonary veins, left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle

Front 2

Cardiac output will be decreased if:

Back 2

the heart rate remains the same and preload decreases

Front 3

Blockage of the Left Circumflex coronary artery is most likely to affect blood flow to the:

Back 3

Left atrium and posterior left ventricle

Front 4

Blood pressure can be illustrated as:

Back 4

Heart rate x stroke volume x vascular resistance

Front 5

An impulse in the cardiac conduction system progresses from:

Back 5

SA node, AV node, bundle of HIS, bundle branches, purkinje fibers

Front 6

Contraction of cardiac muscle cells is activated by:

Back 6

calcium entering the cells through the Na+ - Ca++ channels

Front 7

The purpose of the chordae tendonae is to:

Back 7

help the papillary muscles prevent the atrioventricular valves from opening backwards

Front 8

The Frank-Starling law states:

Back 8

The more the heart is stretched the harder it will contract

Front 9

A drug which increases the rate of cardiac contractions has:

Back 9

Positive chronotropy

Front 10

The absolute refractory period:

Back 10

begins with the beginning of cardiac contraction

Front 11

Skin preparation prior to attaching EKG electrodes:

Back 11

Is primarily important to improve conduction

Front 12

The placement of the limb electrodes for a 12 Lead ECG tracing should avoid:

Back 12

Inside the shoulders and on the lower abdomen

Front 13

The third column (from the left) of leads on a 12 lead printout includes:

Back 13

Leads V1, V2, & V3

Front 14

The initial change on a 12 Lead ECG that indicates that an MI is starting is:

Back 14

T waves become larger and more pointed

Front 15

A physiologic (normal) Q wave is identified as:

Back 15

Less than 1 mm wide and / or less than 1/3 the height of the R wave

Front 16

In which leads would S-T segment elevation signal an anterior injury?

Back 16

V3 & V4

Front 17

A Bundle Branch Block can be identified by:

Back 17

A wide QRS (>.12) associated with atrial activity

Front 18

Left Ventricular Hypertrophy can be identified by:

Back 18

S wave in V1 + R wave in V6 > 35 mm

Front 19

ST segment elevation in leads II, III, & aVF would indicate a need to:

Back 19

Run another 12 lead including V4R

Front 20

Reciprocal changes are most likely to be seen between:

Back 20

Lead aVL & Lead III

Front 21

When do you check for a pulse in a cardiac arrest patient?

Back 21

After every 5 cycles or 2 minutes of CPR

Front 22

What drugs are given in V-Fib but are NOT given in Asystole or PEA?

Back 22

Lidocaine and Amiodarone

Front 23

What should be done after a shock of a patient in V-fib?

Back 23

Immediately resume CPR

Front 24

Which of the following are possible contributing factors in cardiac arrest?

Back 24

Acidosis and cardiac tamponade

Front 25

What should you do if you see asystole when you assess the monitor after your first defibrillation?

Back 25

Immediately resume CPR and prepare to give Epinephrine

Front 26

Your patient is in a second degree heart block type I with a rate of 40. What drug would you consider giving first?

Back 26

Atropine 0.5 mg IVP

Front 27

Your patient in Bradycardia has a third degree heart block. Which of the following treatments is LEAST likely to help him?

Back 27

Atropine 0.5 mg IVP

Front 28

Which patient in Bradycardia would NOT require treatment according to the Bradycardia algorithm?

Back 28

Second degree type II heart block with dizziness

Front 29

If your patient has tachycardia, what is the first assessment according to the algorithm that will help you choose their treatment?

Back 29

Do they have significant signs & symptoms

Front 30

If your patient has a regular narrow QRS complex tachycardia at a rate of 170 but minimal symptoms, your first treatment should be:

Back 30

Vagal maneuvers

Front 31

If your patient has an obviously wide complex QRS tachycardia at a rate of 180 and a chief complaint of palpitations, the first prehospital treatment should be:

Back 31

Consider Amiodarone 150 mg IVP

Front 32

Your patient is conscious and complaining of severe chest pain and hypotension. You see he has a wide complex tachycardia at a rate of 200. Your first treatment after starting an IV and putting him on Oxygen is:

Back 32

Give him 5 mg IVP Valium for sedation

Front 33

Your patient is unconscious with a pulse and respirations and he has a regular narrow complex tachycardia. Your first treatment should be:

Back 33

Synchronize cardiovert at 50 Joules

Front 34

You have synchronized cardioverted your patient, but she didn’t convert. What should your next action be?

Back 34

Increase the energy and reset the synchronizer

Front 35

Which of the following is NOT a vagal maneuver?

Back 35

Precordial thump

Front 36

Your patient is in severely unstable polymorphic wide complex tachycardia. Which action is recommended for this patient?

Back 36

Unsynchronized shock at 200 Joules biphasic

Front 37

You suspect that your patient is having a stroke. You want to perform the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke screen. What are the 3 parts to this screen?

Back 37

Abnormal speech, arm drift, and facial droop

Front 38

Which of the following is a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?

Back 38

Evidence of intracranial hemorrhage on the CT scan

Front 39

In a patient with chest pain which drug is usually given first?

Back 39

Oxygen

Front 40

The drug which is usually reserved for the last option in chest pain patients is

Back 40

Morphine 2-4 mg IVP