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25 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A heart condition where the ventricles pace themselves at a rate completely disassociated with the atrial rate is known as a
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b. third degree AV heart block
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A drug with a negative dromotropic effect on the heart would
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b. slow down the rate of electrical conduction
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Due to the Frank-Starlings mechanism of the heart, the more blood that flows into the atria,
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a. the more forcefully the atria will contract
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What is the function of the epicardium?
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a. To protect the heart
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One of the five steps of systematic ECG interpretation is to
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c. calculate the P-R interval
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During the absolute refractory period, the cardiac cells are _______ and the heart is in a(n) ______ state.
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d. repolarized, unstable
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In an ECG reading, a normal P wave (using Lead II, the primary lead) should have what shape?
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b. Upright and rounded, under 2mm high
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The ability to initiate an electrical impulse without outside nervous system stimulation is called
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a. automaticity
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On an ECG reading, the repolarization of the atria is
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b. usually 'buried' in the QRS complex
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All of the following are potential sources of electrical interference (artifact) during ECG monitoring EXCEPT
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b. hypernatremia
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Ventricular fibrillation is MOST likely to develop during which part of the cardiac action potential cycle?
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a. Absolute refractory period
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Proper interpretation of an ECG can NOT tell you
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a. how forcefully the ventricles are contracting.
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The atrioventricular (AV) node does all of the following, EXCEPT
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b. provide overdrive suppression of the sinus node
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An infarction involving the inferior aspect of the heart will most likely be 'seen' by
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b. Leads II, III and AVF
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What artery supplies blood to the left atrium?
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a. The circumflex artery
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One sign indicating the possible presence of an actively firing implanted pacemaker on an ECG is
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d. a spike preceding a wide, irregular QRS complex
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What is the difference between synchronized cardioversion and defibrillation?
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d. With synchronized cardioversion, the shock is precisely timed to avoid the refractory period; with defibrillation, the shock is delivered randomly during the cardiac cycle.
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You are treating a 68 year old male experiencing prolonged chest pain indicative of acute myocardial infarction. During transport his ECG starts showing ventricular fibrillation. In response, what is the FIRST thing you should do?
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d. Initiate CPR
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You are called because a 68 year old female patient has fainted. When you arrive on the scene she has regained consciousness, but she is still dizzy and light headed. She has a pulse rate of 38 Her ECG readings show she has regular P waves and QRS complexes, but they are not associated with each other. To increase the patient’s heart rate, the FIRST thing you should do is
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a. initiate transcutaneous pacing.
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A patient tells you that he has been using extra pillows to prop himself up at night to make it easier for him to breathe. This could be sign of
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a. heart failure
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You are called to treat a 64 year old male, who complains of a "vice-like" chest pain and nausea. He says he occasionally experiences similar chest pain, but “it usually goes away on its own after a couple minutes,” while this pain has persisted over half an hour. He probably suffers from
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d. acute myocardial infarction
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When treating any patient with chest pain, you must first try to rule out which three conditions?
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b. Heart failure, aortic dissection, and pulmonary edema
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Why does the administration of diuretics benefit a patient with congestive heart failure?
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a. Diuretics help relieve the volume overload created by congestive heart failure.
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One indication that a patient may have a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm is
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c. a weak or absent carotid pulse on the affected side
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What differentiates unstable angina from stable angina?
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c. Stable angina can be relieved with rest, whereas unstable angina cannot be relieved without medication.
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