Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What presents as heart failure in a child?
a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. Absent pulmonic valve c. Bicuspid aortic valve d. RV muscle band e. Aberrant left coronary artery |
absent pulmonic valve
|
|
|
LEAST likely to present with cardiomegaly in a neonate (Neonate with pulmonary edema and large heart. What is least likely cause?):
a. Viral myocarditis b. Truncus arteriosus type 2 c. Pericardial effusion d. Obstructive TAPVR e. Anomalous left coronary artery |
Obstructive TAPVR
|
|
|
What is true of (EKG-gated coronary) CTA:
a. Coronary scoring does not require ECG gating b. Multidetector CTA is best performed with retrospective gating c. Arrhythmia improves image quality d. Prospective gating has higher dose than retrospective e. Decreased heart rate reduces the dose |
Multidetector CTA is best performed with retrospective cardiac gating
|
|
|
What degrades coronary CTA exam accuracy/quality (What lowers sensitivity of coronary CTA)?
a. Elevated systolic pressure > 200 b. Elevated diastolic pressure c. Decreased systolic pressure < 90 d. Elevated creatinine > 2 e. Calcium score > 400 f. Heart rate < 65 |
Ca score >400
|
|
|
Most common form of ASD:
a. Primum b. Secundum c. Sinus venosus d. Unroofing of the coronary sinus e. Endocardial cushion defect |
Secundum
|
|
|
MR delayed-contrast enhancement study utilizing T1 imaging with inversion recovery. The inversion recovery is meant to:
a. Null normal myocardium b. Null infarcted myocardium c. Null blood pool d. Null water e. Null fat |
Null blood pool
(Double Inversion Recovery sequences that show black blood) |
|
|
What differentiates an angiogenic vessel versus normal vessel?
a. Thrombosis b. More layers c. More branches d. More permeable |
More permeable
|
|
|
Alcoholic cardiomyopathy is associated with:
A Impaired LV systolic function B Impaired RV systolic function C Impaired LV diastolic function D Impaired RV diastolic function E Impaired LV systolic & diastolic function |
Impaired Systolic & Diastolic function
|
|
|
Most likely diagnosis with dilated left superior intercostal vein:
a. Azygous continuation of the IVC b. Subclavian steal c. Left sided SVC d. SVC obstruction e. PAPVR of LUL |
SVC obstruction
|
|
|
Regarding myocardial ischemia in anomalous origin of the left coronary artery, what is the pathologic mechanism (likely cause of angina)?
a) "steal" phenomena with retrograde flow in the left coronary artery b) poorly oxygenated blood from the pulmonary vascular system c) congenitally small (left) coronary arteries. d) microocclusions of small perforating branches e) Propensity for atherosclerotic change versus |
Steal phenomena
|
|
|
What is the most common cardiac manifestation of SLE?
a. coronary artery vasculitis/disease b. myocarditis c. valvular disease d. pericarditis e. coronary calcifications |
pericarditis
|
|
|
What is TRUE regarding fibromuscular dysplasia?
a. typically unilateral b. may cause saccular intracranial aneurysms of the carotid c. more common in males d. responds poorly to angioplasty |
may cause saccular intracranial aneurysms of the carotid
|
|
|
Which is true about blunt aortic injury?
a. Normal contrast enhanced spiral CT has negative predictive value of >98% b. First rib fracture is predictive c. The most common site is aortic root d. Negative CXR rules out aortic injury |
Normal contrast enhanced spiral CT has negative predictive value of >98%
|
|
|
Which of the following requires a PDA to survive?
a) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS) b) Corrected transposition c) Tetralogy of Fallot d) Coarctation e) TAPVR f) Truncus |
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
|
|
|
In total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR), what forms the upper side of the “snowman”?
a. pulmonary artery b. pulmonary vein c. right sided aorta d. vertical vein |
Vertical vein
|
|
|
Most commonly associated with an abdominal aortic stenosis?
a. Takayasu's arteritis b. PAN c. Buergers d. Giant cell arteritis e. Temporal arteritis |
Takayasu's arteritis
|
|
|
Supply to the posterolateral wall heart (posterolateral hypokinesis, what vessel is affected?)
a. Left circumflex artery b. LAD c. Left main coronary artery d. Right coronary artery |
RCA
R dominance – R main coronary artery supplies PDA and > 1 branch of posterolateral artery (PLA), 85% L dominant – L main coronary artery supplies PDA and PLA, 10% Codominant - R main coronary artery supplies PDA, L main coronary artery supplies PLA, 5% LAD Supplies the SA node, conus (RVOT), anterior septum, the anterior wall (LV), and in most cases apex. It might wrap-around apex and supply the most apical portion of the inferior and lateral wall. In a short axis cut usually supply from 9 o'clock to 1 o'clock. Ramus inter-ventricular (R) and the Obtuse Marginal Branch (OM) takes off between LAD and LCX and supply the antero- and antero-lateral segments (around / below). Acute marginal supplies anterior RV. LCX Supplies the lateral wall of LV, usually from 2 o'clock to 4 o'clock in a short axis cut. RCA Supplies the posterior lateral segments, the inferior segments, and the posterior septum. Usually from 5 o'clock to 8 o'clock in a short axis cut. |
|
|
MRI demonstrates akinesia of the posterolateral wall of the LV, this is most likely caused by ischemia in the:
a. LAD b. Left Main c. Left Cx d. RCA |
RCA
R dominance – R main coronary artery supplies PDA and > 1 branch of posterolateral artery (PLA), 85% L dominant – L main coronary artery supplies PDA and PLA, 10% Codominant - R main coronary artery supplies PDA, L main coronary artery supplies PLA, 5% LAD Supplies the SA node, conus (RVOT), anterior septum, the anterior wall (LV), and in most cases apex. It might wrap-around apex and supply the most apical portion of the inferior and lateral wall. In a short axis cut usually supply from 9 o'clock to 1 o'clock. Ramus inter-ventricular (R) and the Obtuse Marginal Branch (OM) takes off between LAD and LCX and supply the antero- and antero-lateral segments (around / below). Acute marginal supplies anterior RV. LCX Supplies the lateral wall of LV, usually from 2 o'clock to 4 o'clock in a short axis cut. RCA Supplies the posterior lateral segments, the inferior segments, and the posterior septum. Usually from 5 o'clock to 8 o'clock in a short axis cut. |
|
|
What is a branch of the LAD?
a. Obtuse Marginal b. Acute Marginal c. Conus d. Diagonal e. PDA |
Diagonal
|
|
|
What is a branch of the left circumflex?
a) posterolateral branch b) acute marginal c) obtuse marginal |
obtuse marginal
|
|
|
Septal defect, perfusion is by:
a. LAD b. Right coronary c. Circumflex d. Main Left coronary e. Marginal artery |
LAD
|
|
|
What is the location of the moderator band?
a. right ventricle b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. left atrium |
right ventricle
|
|
|
To calculate ejection fraction (measure LV function quantitatively), the MRI sequence used is:
a. Short axis cine b. Short axis fast spin echo c. Long axis cine d. Long axis spin echo e. Horizontal long axis cine |
Short axis cine
|
|
|
With cardiac MR, the best sequence for evaluating EF is:
A Cine spin echo B Cine phase contrast C Spoiled gradient echo D First pass imaging |
Spoiled gradient echo
|
|
|
Interstitial pulmonary edema in 4 day old with normal size heart. What is the most likely diagnosis? (Most common cause of pulmonary edema in a neonate with CHD:)
a. Infradiaphragmatic TAPVR b. Single ventricle c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. Transposition of great vessels e. PDA versus In a four day old with pulmonary vascular congestion and a normal heart size, which of the following is likely? a. TAPVR type III (infradiaphragmatic) b. Truncus arteriosus c. Transposition of great arteries d. TAPVR type I (supracardiac) |
Infradiaphragmatic TAPVR
(Type III) |
|
|
A neonate with increased pulmonary vascularity may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous return type III (subdiaphragmatic) B. Tetrology of Fallot C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome D. Transposition of the great arteries |
TOF
|
|
|
Location of azygos vein (enters SVC at which location)?
a. superior and posterior to RUL bronchus (right main bronchus) b. superior and anterior to RUL bronchus (right main bronchus) |
Sup & post to RUL bronchus
|
|
|
The azyos vein inserts on the SVC:
A) anteriorly and superior to RPA B) anteriorly and inferior to RPA C) posteriorly and inferior to RPA D) posteriorly and superior to RPA |
Sup & ant to RPA
|
|
|
What is immediately anterior to LUL bronchus?
a. Left pulmonary artery b. Ascending aorta c. Left atrial appendage d. Main pulmonary artery e. Superior pulmonary vein |
Sup Pulmonary vein
|
|
|
Coarctation of the aorta is most commonly associated with:
a. Bicuspid aortic valve b. ASD c. VSD d. Tetralogy of fallot |
Bicuspid aortic valve
|
|
|
Regarding bicuspid aortic valve, all are true EXCEPT:
A. Increase incidence of endocarditis compared with the tricuspid valve B. A calcified bicuspid valve is more likely to be stenotic than calcified tricuspid valve C. Has the same incidence of mitral valve disease as a tricuspid aortic valve |
Has the same incidence of mitral valve disease as a tricuspid aortic valve
|
|
|
Which of the following is associated wih aortic coarctation?
a. Turner's syndrome |
Turner's Syndrome
|
|
|
Delayed-enhanced cardiac MRI best done at
a. 10 minutes b. 1 minute c. 30 minutes |
10 min
|
|
|
Patient has pericardial calcifications on plain film (constrictive pericarditis). Which physical exam finding would most likely be found:
a. congestive failure b. restrictive cardiomyopathy c. lower extremity edema d. dilated cardiomyopathy |
restrictive cardiomyopathy
|
|
|
What condition most commonly causes restrictive cardiomyopathy:
A Amyloidosis B Sarcoidosis C Subaortic hypertrophic stenosis |
Amyloidosis
|
|
|
It is important to distinguish a LV false aneurysm from true aneurysm because:
a. Associated with rupture b. Causes dyskinesia c. Assoc with thromboemboli d. Assoc with arrythmia |
Assoc with rupture
|
|
|
Ventricular pseudoaneurysm treated surgically due to the what complication:
a. rupture b. arrythmias c. CHF d. diminished ventricular contractility |
rupture
|
|
|
Which layers are involved in cardiac pseudoaneurysm?
a. Endocardium only b. Endocardium and myocardium only c. Endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium d. Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, and pericardium |
Endo, Myo and Epi
(all 3 except peri... therefore increased incidence of PSA in pericardiac defects.) |
|
|
Whast is TRUE regarding cardiac aneurysms:
a. True aneurysms commonly seen at apex b. Pseudoaneurysm occur in anterior wall c. True aneursyms rarely calcify d. Secondary to contained rupture |
True aneurysms rarely calcify
|
|
|
A mean pulmonary artery pressure is considered abnormally elevated when it is above:
A) 5 mm Hg B) 10 mm Hg C) 15 mm Hg D) 20 mm Hg E) 25 mm Hg |
25 mmHg
|
|
|
Delayed contrast-enhanced MRI is sufficient in the absence of additional MRI sequences when diagnosing:
a. Functional recovery of infarcted myocardium s/p revascularization b. Functional recovery of ischemic myocardium s/p acute event c. Assess mitral valve function after mitral valvuloplasty d. Predict future MI e. Predict future ischemia |
Functional recovery of ischemic myocardium s/p acute event
|
|
|
Apparent increased EF in (Most common cause of increased LVEF is):
a. aortic insufficiency/regurgitation b. aortic stenosis c. alcoholic cardiomyopathy d. mitral stenosis e. VSD |
Aortic Regurg
|
|
|
Which of the following result in increased ejection fraction?
a. IHSS b. Cardiomyopathy c. Mitral regurgitation d. Aortic stenosis |
Mitral regurg
|
|
|
What is true regarding the arterial vessel wall?
a. Vasa vasorum supplies the outer part of the vessel b. Heparan sulfate release during vessel damage causes smooth muscle migration c. Adventitia responds to vascular injury with the release of prostacyclin by histiocytes d. Endothelium is 10-15 cells thick. e. Plaques rupture in areas of calcification |
Vasa vasorum supplies the outer part of the vessel
|
|
|
What imaging plane on MRI best allows assessment of both the mitral valve and tricuspid valve?
a. horizontal long axis b. vertical long axis c. short axis d. coronal e. sagittal |
horizontal long
|
|
|
What sequence best allows for measurement of flow dynamics on MRI:
a. Phase contrast b. GRE c. T1-weighted d. DWI e. TOF MRA |
Phase contrast
|
|
|
What would NOT cause a signal void on contrast enhanced MR angiography?
a. Slow flow b. Metallic objects adjacent to the vessel c. Artery outside field of view d. High-concentration gadolinium within the vein being injected e. High grade stenosis |
slow flow
|
|
|
A lower extremity 3-station contrast-enhanced 3D MRA done. What DOES cause signal drop out in the image?
A) slow flow B) artery not included in the field of view C) metal artifact associated with the vessel D) vessel stenosis E) vessel occlusion |
vessel occlusion
|
|
|
In cardiac MR, the modified Bernoulli equation is used for:
a. blood flow b. pressure gradient across a stenosis c. cardiac output d. ejection fracture e. size of valve |
pressure gradient across a stenosis
|
|
|
Regarding cardiac MR, when should you do (double) inversion recovery?
a. immediately after injection of gad b. 3 min after gard c. 10 min after gad d. 30 min after gad |
10 min after gad
|
|
|
Nonocclusive mesenteric ischemia (NOMI) is manifest by all EXCEPT:
a. nonstenotic irregularity at the vessel origin b. irregularity/defects in transmural bowel vessels c. decreased filling and irregularity at intestinal branch points d. nonfilling of mesenteric vessels following papavarine |
nonfilling of mesenteric vessels following papavarine
|
|
|
Endocardial cushion defect are associated with all the following EXCEPT:
a. Mitral valve cleft b. Increased pulmonary artery flow c. Os primum ASD d. Os(tium) secundum e. High VSD f. Gooseneck defmormity g. Down's syndrome h. Notched MV i. Down's syndrome |
Ostium secundum
|
|
|
Which structure is NOT formed by or associated with the endocardial cushion:
a. Infundibular septum b. Interventricular septum c. Interatrial septum d. Mitral valve e. Tricuspid valve |
Infundibular septum
|
|
|
Which structure is NOT formed by or associated with the endocardial cushion:
a. Infundibular septum b. Interventricular septum c. Interatrial septum d. Mitral valve e. Tricuspid valve |
GI carcinoid with liver mets
|
|
|
What is often confused on a cardiac MR for a mass in the right atrium?
a. Papillary muscle b. Crista terminalis |
crista terminalis
|
|
|
What is associated with sinus venosus?
a. VSD b. ASD |
ASD
|
|
|
Left atrial enlargement is associated most commonly with which of the following?
a. atrial fibrillation b. left atrial myxoma c. chronic atrial fibrillation d. primary pulmonary hypertension e. mitral regurgitation f. mitral stenosis |
chronic atrial fibrillation
|
|
|
Which of the following is NOT associated with left atrial enlargement?
a. Mitral stenosis b. Left atrial myxoma c. Atrial fibrillation d. Decreased compliance of LV e. VSD f. ASD g. Aortic stenosis |
ASD
|
|
|
What is the position of the pulmonic valve relative to the aortic valve?
a. Superior, anterior, and to the left b. Superior, anterior, and to the right c. Inferior, anterior, and to the right d. Inferior, anterior, and to the left |
Sup, ant and left
|
|
|
What is the position of the pulmonic valve relative to the aortic valve?
a. Superior, anterior, and to the left b. Superior, anterior, and to the right c. Inferior, anterior, and to the right d. Inferior, anterior, and to the left |
Sup, ant and left
|
|
|
Which is the 2nd most common takeoff the left vertebral artery?
a. left carotid b. aorta proximal to left carotid c. aorta between left carotid and left subclavian d. aorta distal to left subclavian e. thyrocervical trunk |
Aorta between left carotid and left subclavian
|
|
|
Which is the 2nd most common takeoff the left vertebral artery?
a. left carotid b. aorta proximal to left carotid c. aorta between left carotid and left subclavian d. aorta distal to left subclavian e. thyrocervical trunk |
Aorta between left carotid and left subclavian
|
|
|
An abdominal aortic stent (graft) is placed. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) 1-2% infection rate postop B) 30-70% mortality rate with infection C) Gas is seen adjacent to graft after 3 weeks post-op is indicative of infection D) If paraaortic fluid is seen after 3 months postop, it is indicative of infection E) Staph species can be related to gas adjacent to the graft e. Fluid adjacent to the graft 3 months after surgery indicates infection. |
Gas seen adjacent to the graft after 3 weeks post op is indicative of infection
|
|
|
What is the position of the pulmonic valve relative to the aortic valve?
a. Superior, anterior, and to the left b. Superior, anterior, and to the right c. Inferior, anterior, and to the right d. Inferior, anterior, and to the left |
Sup, ant and left
|
|
|
An abdominal aortic stent (graft) is placed. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) 1-2% infection rate postop B) 30-70% mortality rate with infection C) Gas is seen adjacent to graft after 3 weeks post-op is indicative of infection D) If paraaortic fluid is seen after 3 months postop, it is indicative of infection E) Staph species can be related to gas adjacent to the graft e. Fluid adjacent to the graft 3 months after surgery indicates infection. |
Gas seen adjacent to the graft after 3 weeks post op is indicative of infection
|
|
|
Which is the 2nd most common takeoff the left vertebral artery?
a. left carotid b. aorta proximal to left carotid c. aorta between left carotid and left subclavian d. aorta distal to left subclavian e. thyrocervical trunk |
Aorta between left carotid and left subclavian
|
|
|
Status-post aortic dissection, which of the following is LEAST likely to communicate with the false lumen (LEAST likely to be involved)?
A) Left coronary artery B) Left renal artery C) Right common carotid artery D) Left common iliac artery E) Left subclavian artery |
Left coronary
|
|
|
Status-post aortic dissection, which of the following is LEAST likely to communicate with the false lumen (LEAST likely to be involved)?
A) Left coronary artery B) Left renal artery C) Right common carotid artery D) Left common iliac artery E) Left subclavian artery |
Left coronary
|
|
|
An abdominal aortic stent (graft) is placed. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) 1-2% infection rate postop B) 30-70% mortality rate with infection C) Gas is seen adjacent to graft after 3 weeks post-op is indicative of infection D) If paraaortic fluid is seen after 3 months postop, it is indicative of infection E) Staph species can be related to gas adjacent to the graft e. Fluid adjacent to the graft 3 months after surgery indicates infection. |
Gas seen adjacent to the graft after 3 weeks post op is indicative of infection
|
|
|
Status-post aortic dissection, which of the following is LEAST likely to communicate with the false lumen (LEAST likely to be involved)?
A) Left coronary artery B) Left renal artery C) Right common carotid artery D) Left common iliac artery E) Left subclavian artery |
Left coronary
|
|
|
Which of the following anatomic relationships is correct?
A SVC is anterior to the RPA B Left renal vein is posterior to the aorta C Gonadal vein is deep to the ureter D Common iliac artery is posterior to vein E GDA is posterior to the portal vein |
SVC anterior to RPA
|
|
|
Which is TRUE regarding PDA:
A. Calcifications of the ductus indicates pulmonary artery hypertension B. Indomethacin used to keep ductus open C. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve hooks around the ductus D. A widened pulse pressure can be seen with a PDA |
A widened pulse pressure can be seen with a PDA
|
|
|
FALSE regarding atrial myxoma?
a) most commonly arises from mitral valve b) has increased echogenicity on ultrasound c) it can embolize d) it mimics aortic stenosis e) enlargement can mimic mitral valve pathology on CXR |
most commonly arise from mitral valve
|
|
|
TRUE regarding atrial myxoma?
a) CXR will show similar (heart border) findings seen with mitral valve disease b) attached to septum but will not prolapse c) most commonly arises from anterior leaflet of mitral valve d) 10% undergo malignant degeneration e) septal myxomas are not pedunculated f) clinically similar to aortic stenosis |
CXR will show similar (heart border) findings seen with mitral valve disease
|
|
|
True regarding aortic transection:
A. Related to HTN in patients older than 70 B. Most common cause of amorphous mediastinal contrast collection on angio C. Stanford B needs urgent surgery |
related to HTN in pt older than 70
|
|
|
Ulcerated aortic plaque is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A Increased diameter of the aorta B Intimal flap C Increased thickness of the aortic wall |
Intimal flap
|
|
|
Type B dissection is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. It is a surgical emergency b. In elderly, systemic hypertension likely etiology |
It is a surgical emergency
|
|
|
What is TRUE regarding coronary artery calcifications:
A Don't need cardiac gated CT if fast enough (calc can be seen in non-gated CT) B If the patient is >70, it is possible to have coronary arterial calcs w/o atherosc disease C The more heavily calcified, the more stenotic the artery D Absence of calcification is less likely to have significant atherosclerotic disease E Angioplasty contraindicated in calc plaq |
Absence of calcification is less likely to have significant atherosclerotic disease
|
|
|
Where does thoracic duct lie in lower thorax/mediastinum?
a) to the left of (adjacent to) the azygous b) to the left of (adjacent to) the IVC c) adj to diaphragmatic crural attachment d) anterior to the heart e) anterior to the esophagus |
adjacent to the azygous vein
|
|
|
What is TRUE regarding cardiac repair?
a) mitral annuloplasty is effective at relieving mitral stenosis b) in repair of a VSD, the defect is approached through the low pressure chamber (low pressure RV side) c) repairing a necrotic septal defect post MI is not possible due to muscular necrosis d) ostial markers are not necessary in CABG if the normal ostia are occluded |
b) in repair of a VSD, the defect is approached through the low pressure chamber (low pressure RV side)
|
|
|
Regarding mitral annular calcification, which is true:
a. projects over left cardiac border on RAO b. associated with aortic valve calcifications c. associated with renal osteodystrophy d. more common in men than women e. associated with coronary artery calcifications f. calcifications often extend into the valve |
Assoc w AV calc
|
|
|
Contraindication of cardiac bypass:
a. PDA b. Persistent left-sided SVC c. Aortic stenosis d. MS e. VSD f. ASD |
Persistent L SVC
|
|
|
Which of the following is the MOST
common cause of a symptomatic vascular ring after double aortic arch? a. Aberrant left pulmonary artery b. Right aortic arch with aberrant left subclavian artery c. Left aortic arch with aberrant right subclavian artery d. Right aortic arch with mirror image e. Right aotic arch with aberrant left subclavian artery f. Pulmonary sling |
Right Ao arch with aberrant Left subcavian artery
|
|
|
Doming of the aortic valve on cine MRI
associated with: a Post-valvular aortic stenosis b IHSS c Bicuspic AV d Aortic insufficiency |
Bicuspid AV
|
|
|
Which statement is TRUE regarding helical calcium scoring coronary CT?
a. Equal frequency in all coronary arteries b. Is a contraindication for angioplasty c. LCX calcifies more commonly than LAD d. Calcification most commonly occurs in the proximal 2 cm of the LAD |
Calcification most commonly occurs in the proximal 2 cm of the LAD
|
|
|
Complication of LAD atherosclerotic dz:
a. Apical aneurysm b. Muscular VSD c. Diaphragmatic surface pseudoaneurysm d. Arrhythmia |
Arrhythmia
|
|
|
Blalock-Taussib shunt anastomoses:
A. SVC to RPA B. RA to MPA C. Subclavian artery to ipsilatateral PA D. Subclavian artery to contralateral PA E. Descending aorta to LPA |
subclavian artery to ipsilateral PA
|
|
|
3 year-old patient with fever, erythema, and the CXR demonstrates cardiac enlargement. Most likely diagnosis?
a. Henoch-Schönlein purpura b. SLE c. Kawasaki's disease |
Kawasaki's disease
|
|
|
Which of the following is NOT associated with Kawasaki’s disease?
a. Gallbladder hydrops b. Myocarditis c. Pericardial effusion d. Renal failure (cysts) e. Cervical adenitis f. Coronary artery aneurysm |
Renal failure
|
|
|
On a fetal sonogram, the aorta and pulmonary arteries have a parallel course, the fetus most likely has:
a. Transposition of the great vessels b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. Truncus arteriosus d. Hypoplastic left heart |
Transposition of the great vessels
|
|
|
D loop transposition of great vessels is characterized by which of the following:
A. Right sided aortic arch B. Atrioventricular discordance C. Atrioventricular concordance D. The pulmonary artery comes off a right ventricular which is on the left side E. The aorta comes off a left ventricular which is on the right side |
AV concordance
|
|
|
Patient with popliteal entrapment syndrome has normal angiogram. What should be done next?
A. repeat the angiogram with active plantar flexion B. flex the knee C. inflate a pressure cuff on the calf D. elevate the leg E. extreme inversion of the foot |
repeat the angiogram with active plantar flexion
|
|
|
TRUE statement regarding ABI:
A. Increased with exercise in patient with peripheral vascular disease B. Increased in normal patient post exercise C. Best measured standing up D. Select higher pressure of the dorsalis pedis or posterior tibialis E. Select lowest pressure for brachial artery |
Increased in normal patients post exercise
|
|
|
Which is NOT true of PE?
A Rarely caused by emboli in upper extrem B Central PE rarely causes infarcts C Frequently presents with triad of cough, pleuritis, and hemoptysis. D Peripheral emboli are more likely to cause infarct than proximal ones E Most commonly occur in the lower lobes |
Frequently presents with triad of cough, pleuritis, and hemoptysis.
|
|
|
Which of the following MOST often
metastasizes to the heart? a) melanoma b) lymphoma c) breast d) lung (bronchogenic carcinoma) e) RCC |
BAC
|
|
|
Which of the following is FALSE regarding complications of (orthotopic) heart transplantation:
a) angina is uncommon b) cardiacdilatation is early sign of rejection c) the transplanted heart is bradycardic relative to the recipient's prior heart rate d) purplish discoloration of the chest wall is a poor prognostic sign e) rate of rejection same between orthotopic and heterotopic transplant f) pulmonary vein not likely to be stenotic with orthotopic type |
the trasnplanted heart is bradicardic relative to the recipients prior heart rate
|
|
|
Regarding aortic dissection:
A. Most start at the left subclavian and extend to the diaphragm B. Separate the adventitia and media C. Something about ulcer |
Nost start at the left subclavian and extend to the diaphragm
|
|
|
Left aortic arch, dextrocardia, left-sided stomach, and midline liver. Diagnosis?
a. Polysplenia b. Kartagener’s syndrome c. Situs Inversus viscerum d. Ebstein’s anomaly |
polysplenia
|
|
|
Vascular supply for the AV node is from:
A the conus branch of the RCA B the proximal right coronary artery C the posterior descending artery D distal branch of right coronary artery E branch of the LCX artery |
distal branch of the RCA
|
|
|
A 65 year-old male is two years status post single-vessel CABG. Pre operative catheterization at that time revealed a non right dominant system with severe RCA disease. He now presents with chest pain and EKG changes consistent with posterior wall reversible defect. What is the most likely etiology?
a. Graft occlusion b. Native RCA occlusion proximal to graft c. Native RCA occlusion distal to graft d. New LAD ischemia e. Circumflex ischemia |
Circumflex ischemia
|
