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60 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Ensure HSAP personnel are identified, notified, and prepared for deployment with in how many days of reporting to command? |
30 days |
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The 8 manning platforms priority is based on contingency support requirements in this order: |
1. MARFOR 2. CRTS 3. FDPMU 4. EMF 5. Construction BN Unit (CBU) 6. Hospital Ship (T-AH) 7. OCONUS MTF 8. BPU |
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CRTSs medical augmentation platforms contain how many personnel? |
84 |
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Expeditionary Medical Facility (EMF) COs are designated by whom? |
BUMED |
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True or False
Enlisted personnel are not obligated to purchase organizational clothing? |
True
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Who is responsible and required to budget, purchase, and issue cammies as prescribed by EMF, CBU, and FDPMU assigned personnel? |
Sourcing Commands |
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Who is responsible for uniform items for personnel assigned to MARFOR platforms? |
MARFORCOM |
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Purchase of name and service cloth strips is the responsibility of? |
The Service Member |
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Personnel with a past deployment history will not deploy for a minimum of? |
6 months (180 days) following end of last deployment |
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Personnel will not deploy earlier than 6 months from their report date. When can personnel participate in pre-deployment or inter-deployment training? |
60 days after reporting |
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Personnel will return from deployment no later than how long before PCS or retirement? |
6 months (180 days) or 3 months before release from active duty or separation |
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Personnel will return from deployment how many days before release from active duty or separation? |
3 months (90 days) |
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In cases where a command must deploy personnel outside of the restrictions outlined "casualty replacement" the command must receive approval from whom? |
Regional Commander |
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Who validates, approves and maintains a current account of Claimancy 18 augmentation requirements? |
CNO: Medical Resources, Plans and Policy Division (N931) |
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Who assigns Claimancy 18 platform augmentation requirements? |
Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery |
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Who establishes guidelines for developing medical augmentation processing units at sourcing commands? |
Chief, BUMED |
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Who updates headquarters module of current DOD approved readiness software? |
Naval Medical Information Management Center |
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Who reviews monthly MPAS uploads from MTFs in their AOR? |
Naval Healthcare Support Office |
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Who appoints in writing a readiness officer or POMI officer? |
Sourcing Commands |
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Who prepares and submits monthly electronic readiness reports, using SPMS to BUMED? |
Readiness Officer or POMI Officer |
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How long do medical augmentation personnel have to complete their administrative requirements? |
60 Days |
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How long after should the deployable personnel update and report results of delinquent administrative requirements to POMI officer? |
30 Days of change in R-Status |
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How many OCONUS facilities have personnel augmentation and bed expansion requirements? |
3
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In what database does POMI enter deployable personnel? |
SPMS/MPAS |
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No specialty will have a greater than what percent substitution? |
50% |
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Who provides rapid response for short-term peacetime contingencies? |
Mobile Medical Augmentation Readiness Team
MMART |
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What is designed to provide rapid, flexible, and acute medical care to operating forces? |
USNS Comfort and Mercy |
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Personnel from Bethesda usually augment what ship? |
USNS Comfort |
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How many Fleet Hospitals are there in the Navy? |
10 |
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How many beds does a combat zone facility have? |
500 beds |
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Who is tasked to provide augmentation support to the CINCs and Armed Services Whole Blood Processing Lab (ASWBPLS)? |
BUMED |
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What form do you use for dependent care arrangements? |
OPNAV 1740/1"Family Care Plan Arrangements" |
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True or False
Initial utility uniform allowance does apply to officers? |
FALSE: It does apply. |
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What is the R-status percentage for R-4? |
Less than 70% |
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What is the R-Status percentage for R-1? |
Greater than or equal to 90% complete |
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Depending on the operational situation, who may direct implementation of a Stop-Loss Policy Service-wide or for certain rates or officer specialties? |
CNO |
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What does the MFRP stand for? |
Medical Fleet Response Plan |
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With Readiness Categories what is Routine Deployable? |
Forward deployed crisis response forces that are mission capable and ready to deploy within 5 days |
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With Readiness Categories what is Surge Ready? |
Forces designated for the force build-up stage that are ready and capable of mobilizing and deploying within 30 days. |
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With Readiness Categories, what is the Emergency Surge? |
Additional forces designated for further follow-on stages that are ready and capable of deploying within 120 days. |
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What is a web-based automated information management system whose foundational data are derived from NPC-managed database, currently the Total Force Manpower Management System (TFMMS)? |
EMPARTS
Expeditionary Medicine Platform Augmentation, Readiness, and Training System |
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Who is the officer identified by the command, generally from the operations office, who is responsible for monitoring and advising the commander on operational readiness? |
Command Readiness Officer (CRO) |
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Who are members who administrative, medical, or legal status, as coded in EMPARTS, temporarily preclude the service member from deployment? |
Non-Deployable Personnel |
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Which category is:
Unit is capable of undertaking the full wartime mission it was organized and designed for; considered fully mission capable? |
C1 |
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Which category is:
Unit is capable of undertaking the bulk of its wartime mission; it is considered substantially combat ready with only minor deficiencies reported? |
C2 |
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Which category is:
Unit is capable of undertaking a major portion of its wartime mission; while it has major deficiencies, it can still perform its assigned mission? |
C3 |
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Which category is:
Unit is unable to perform its wartime mission unless it is provided additional resources or training; however, if the situation warrants, the unit may still be required to perform portions of its mission using its existing resources? |
C4 |
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Which category is:
Unit is not able to perform its wartime mission and is not mission capable. Routinely assigned to ships in overhall status? |
C5 |
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What form is used to identify members Enlisted Qualification History? |
NAVPERS 1070/604 |
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What form is used as the International Certificate of Vaccinations? |
PHS 731 |
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What form is used for Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data Worksheet? |
NAVPERS 1070/602W |
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What form is used for Department of the Navy Family Care Certificate? |
NAVPERS 1740/6 |
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Who is responsible for component unit identification code (CUIC) and links between authorized billets and to operational requirements in the Navy's official manpower data system
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BUMED Deputy Chief of Staff, HR (BUMED-M1) |
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MARFOR provides up to what level of HSS with a staffing of 85 to 90&
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Level 2 |
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Casualty Receiving and Treatment Ships (CRTS) provides up to what level of HSS
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Level 2
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Construction Battalion Units (CBU) provides up to what level of HSS
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Level 1
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Expeditionary Medical Facility (EMF) provides up to what level of HSS
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Level 3
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OCONUS MTF provides up to what level of HSS
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Level 4
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Hospital Ship (T-AH) provides up to what level of HSS
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Level 3
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Depending on the op situation who may direct implementation of a Stop-Loss Policy Service wide or for certain rates of officer specialties
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CNO |
