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462 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the three LEADER COUNSELING SKILLS that all leaders should seek to develop and improve?
Active Listening
Responding
Questioning
What are the four QUALITIES of an effective Counseler?
Empathy
Respect
Self & Cultural Awareness
Credibility
Two Types of Authority?
Command Authority
General Military authority
Two types of Responsibility
Individual

Command
Characteristics of Good Counseling?
Purpose
Flexibility
Respect
Communication
Support
What are some counseling techniques that may be used in the DIRECTIVE approach?
Corrective Training
Commanding
What are the steps involved in PREPARING to counsel?
Select appropriate place
Schedule a good time
Notife subordinate
Outline counseling
Organize information
Establish right atmosphere
What are the parts of an op order?
Mission
Situation
Execution
Logistics
Command and Signal
What is decentralization?
The release of authority from senior to subordinate levels.
Four basic steps in CONDUCTING the counseling session?
Open the sesssion
Discuss issues
Develop plan of action
Record and close the session
What should you do if you think a counseling will take more than one hour?
Schedule a second session
What are the three stages of the Character Development Pyramid?
Leaders teach values
Leaders reinforce values
Leaders shape the ethical climate
What two steps should be used in the FOLLOW-UP of a counseling session?
Ensure that the plan of action has been implemented

Asssess the plan of action
What are the four fundamental steps in supervising subordinates in the accomplishment of a task.
1. Assign the task
2. set standards
3. Check progress
4. Determine if standards have been met
What are the types of combat orders at the squad/section level?
Operation Orders
Warning Orders
Frsgmentary Orders
What are the five elements of a 5-paragraph Operations Order
Situation
Mission
Execution
Logistics
Command & Signal
What are the Army's Four Core Capabilities?
Develop the Force
Direct and Resource the Force
Project the Force
Sustain the Force
What are the five basic rules of Combat?
Move
Shoot
Secure
Sustain
Communicate
What are the Five Components of Fitness?
Flexibility
Body Composition
Muscular Strength
Muscular Endurance
Cardiorespiratory Endurance
What are the three types of Fitness programs?
Unit
Individual
Special
What are the four types of road marches
Forced
Shuttle
Day
Limited Visibility
Normal recovery betwen set should be how long?
30 to 180 seconds
Isotonic and isokinetic contactions have two specific phases. What are they?
Concentric and Eccentric
How many calories are there in one pound of fat?
3,500
What are calistenics?
Excercises that develop strength, endurance, coordiantion, and flexibility in all major muscle groups.
When should a seperate circle be used?
When there are more than 60 soldiers.
What is the length of time requried to acclimatize moderately active soldiers to a hot, humid environment?
8 to 14 days
What is acclimatization?
The gradual adaptaton of the body to differeing environmental conditions
What are the two types of obstacle courses?
1. Conditioning - has low obstacles that must be negotiated quickly against time.

2. Confidence Course - has higher more difficult obstacles than those of the conditioning course. It is not run against time and soldiers are encouraged, but not forced to negotiate the course.
Should a soldier wear glasses during the push up event?
No
the two mile rune of the APFT should consist of a flat, 2-mile running course with a solid surface and no more than a x% of incline?
three
All events of the APFT must be taken in how much time?
two hours
FM 21-20 recommends that running shoes be replaced when they have accumulated how many miles, even if they show little wear?
500-700
What happens if, during the sit-up event, either foot breaks contact with the ground during a rpetition?
That repetition does not count.
When deterining the score on the 2-mile run and the time falls between two point values, which point value is used?
The lowest
What happens if, during the sit-up event the a solidier swings their hands or arms in order to help attain the UP position?
The repetition does not count
What term is used to describe the center of a nuclear explosion?
ground zero
What are the three types of nuclear bursts?
Air, surface, and subsurface
What are the two types of radiation surveys?
aerial and ground
What if the radiation surveys is more accurate?
ground
Biological agents may be disseminated in what three forms?
Aerosol
Liquid droplets
Dry powder
What are the three types of riot control agents
Tearing, sneezing and vomiting
How should an individual enter an area suspected of chemical or biological contamination?
Upwind and fully protected
What are the three types of contractions that muscles can perform?
isotonic
isokinetic
isometric
What are the four general categories of stretching exercises?
Static
Passive
Proprioceptiive
Dynamic
What are the five primary inputs to METL development?
War Plans
External Directives
Directed Missions
Combat Capabilities
Operational Environment
What are the six dimentiosn of the operational environment?
Threat
Political
Unified Action
Land Combat Operations
Information
Technology
What are the five fundatmentals of METL developmet?
1. METL derived from the organization's wartime missions.

2. METL must apply to the entire organization

3. Each must support the METL of higher headquarters

4. Fully integrate th seven systems of the BOS

5. Availability of resources does not affect METL development
A training objective consists of what three parts?
Task
Condition
Standard
What are the three key elements that shape a commander's traiing vision?
1. Understanding of training and operations doctrine.

2. Assessment of METL proficiency levels.

3. Knowledge of potential enemy capabilities.
What does BOS stand for?
What are the seven systems of BOS?
BOS is the Battlefield Operating Systems, the physical means used to accomplish the mission. The seven parts of BOS are:
1.INTEL
2. MANEUVER
3. FIRE SUPPORT
4. AIR DEFENSE
5. MOBILTIY/SURVIVABILITY
6. COMBAT SERVICE SUPPORT
7. COMMAND AND CONTROL
What is a QTB
A quarterly training brief - is a conference conducted by senior commanders to review and approve the training plans of subordinate units.
Near-term planning and thus, training schedules, should cover how much time?
6 to 8 weeks, and support short term goals
What is a CALFEX
Combined Arms Live Fire Exercise
What is a DEPEX
Deployment Excercise
What are the four steps in prepareing the long range planning calendar?
1. Post required training events on the calendar.
2. Schedule other requirements
3. Schedule unit-controlled exercies and other training
4. Post the time management system.
What are the three phases of company training meetings?
1. assessment of training completed.
2. preparation for near-term training.
3. planning for short-range training.
What are the two types of AARs?
Formal and informal
What are the four dimentions of the Leadership Framework?
1. Attributes
2. Values
3. Skills
4. Actions
What are the three Operating Actions?
1. Planning and preparing
2. Executing
3. Assessing
Whare the the Skills that a leader must have?
Interpersonal
Conceptual
Technical
Tactical
What are the three leadership Actions (what a leader must do)?
Influence, Operate and Improve
What are the attributes of a leader?
Mental, physical and emotional
Whare the three Influencing Actions?
Motivate
Decision-Making
Communication
What are the five styles of Army leadership?
1. Directing
2. Delegating
3. Participating
4. Transactional
5. Transformational
What is known as management-by-exception?
Transactional
What are the three Improving Actions?
Developing
Building
Learning
What are the three pillars of the Army's Leaeder Development model?
1. Insitutional training
2. Operational Assignments
3. Self-development
Whare the levels of army leadership?
Direct
Strategic
Organizational
What are the steps in the Ethical Reasoning process?
1. Define the problem
2. Know the relvant rules
3. Develop course of action
4. Make a decision that best reresents the Army Values
What are the two techinical skills at the direct level of leadership?
Knowing and operating equiment
What are the two tactical skills
Doctrine & Tactics
Fieldcraft
What are the three leader counseling skills that all leaders should seeks to develop and improve?
Listening
Questioning
Responding
What are the three approaches to counseling?
Directive
Non-directive
Combined
When is the lecture method considered appropriate?
When training large groups. Briefing are examples of this method.
What is power?
Power is the ability to have positive control over the actions of others
What are the five types of power?
1. Legal
2. Reward
3. Coercive
4. Referent
5. Expert
What is the key to a successful counseling session?
Preparation
What are the two objectives of "opening the session" in counseling?
Establish rapport and explain the sreason forr and outline the conduct of the counseling session.
What are the six elements of essential communication?
Who, what, when, where, how and why.
Training is divided into what two categories?
Individual and Collective training
Explain the Green-Amber-Red timemanagement system?
Organization in green periodsconduct planned training without distrcactio. Organizations is Amber area assigned suuport taskings beyond the capability ofthose units in red. Units in red periods execute details and other administrative requirements and allow the maximum number of soldiers to take leave.
What are the two classifications of foot marches?
Tactical and Administrative
What is a battle task?
A mission essential task that is critical the accomplishment of hte next higher organizations's mission essential task.
What is the purpose of the time management system?
its purpose is to provide uninterrupted training time to subordinate commanders.
What are the two time management systems listed in 7-0 and 7-1?
Green-Red
Green-Amber-Red
What are the limitations on the heel height of female pumps?
No less than 1/2 inch and no more than 3 inches.
What is AFAP?
The Army Family Action Plan provides a way for Soldiers and Family members to let Army leadership know what works, what doesn't - and what they think will fix it.
AFAP continues to improve standards of living, not just for soldiers, but for all military personnel and DoD employees, here are a few examples:
Military participation in the Federal Thrift Savings Plan (# 434)
Temporary Lodging Expense authorized for first Permanent Change of Station (#363)
Elimination of TRICARE Prime co-payments (469)
Expansion of TRICARE Prime Remote to active duty family members (# 408)
Reduction of catastrophic cap for retiree health care from $7500 to $3000
TRICARE for Life for seniors over 65
Retiree access to retail and national mail order pharmacies (Issue # 402 has detailed information on numbers 5, 6, and 7)
A 55% SBP benefit for post 62 annuitants phased in over 3.5 years has been implemented (#554)
Authorized concurrent receipt of military retired and Veteran's Affairs disability pay (#495)
How many "V" devices can be worn on a ribbon?
One
No more than how many oak leaf clusters may be worn side by side?
four
What are the five categoreis of badges authorized for wear on Amry uniforms?
1. Marksmanship and tab
2. Combat and special skill
3. Identification badges
4. Foreign Badge
Which teaching method of D&C is best used for movements that require numerous or simulataneous actions by an individual or unit?
Talk-through
As a rule, marching movements are taught using which method?
Step-by-Step
What is the PICAA effect?
Learning aid to teach the five-step process used in all marching movements.
1. Preparatory command
2. Internediate step
3. Command of execution
4. Additional step
5. Action Step
The command COUNT CADENCE is given as which foot strikes the marching surface?
The left foot
What is the proper proceudre to COUNT CADENCE?
At quick times,on the command of execution COUNT of "count Cadence, Count" the soldiers begin to count the next time the left foot strike the marching surface and counts as each foot strikes the marching surface.
What is a drill comand?
An oral order of a commander or leader.
What commands are given without inflection and at a uniformly high pitch and loudness comparable to that for a normal command of execution?
Combined commands
What rest positions can be executed from AT EASE
REST
What is inflection?
The rise and fall in pitch and tone of the voice
What are the three elements of a correctly delievered command?
Snap, tone, and cadence
eWhat is the most desirable pitch when beginning a preparatory command?
Near the level of the natrual speaking voice.
What command is used ito initiate MASS commands
AT MY COMMAND
What command is used to Stop a mass command
AT MY COMMAND
When double timing, what must you do before rendering salute?
Go to quicktime
When marching, the arms should swing in a natural motion, without exaggeration and without bending the elbows, approxiamately how many inches stright to the from and how many inches to the rear
9" and 6"
The command chage step, march is give as what foot strikes the marching surface?
RIGHT
The command REAR MARCH is given as what foot hits the ground?
RIGHT
How many inches are the steps LEFT STEP or RIGHT STEP
15 inches
What command is given to begin marching in place?
March time, march
While marking time you should raise each foot how many inches off of the ground?
two inches.
All but two indivudual an dunit drill movements with the rifle may be executed with sligns loose, which movements require the sling to be tight?
FIX or UNFIX BAYONETS
What command is used following INSPECTION ARMS and before any other movements can be commanded?
READY, PORT, ARMS
What two commands are used to align a squad in column?
COVER and RECOVER
A normal warm-up period should take how long?
Five to seven minutes
The leader training and leader development action plan consists of what three phases?
1. Reception and integration phase.
2. Basic competency devlopment phase.
3. Leader development and sustainment phase.
What does ICRC stand for?
International Committe for the Red Cross?
The red cross symbol is sometimes referred to as what?
The Geneva Cross
Who is eligible for AER funds?
Soldiers on extended active duty and their dependents.
Members of the Army National Guard and the U.S. Army Reserve on continuous active duty for more than 30 days and their dependents. (This applies to soldiers on AD for training (ADT) and serving under various sections of title 10, United States Code).
Soldiers retired from active duty because of longevity or physical disability, or retired upon reaching age 60 (Reserve Components) and their dependents.
Widows (ers) and orphans of soldiers who died while on active duty or after they retired.
Under what circumstances does AER not provide funds?
For nonessentials
To finance ordinary leave or vacation
To pay fines or legal expenses
to liquidate or consolidate debt
For purchase of home or home improvements
To purchase, rent or lease vehicle
To cover bad checks or pay credit card bills
What should a soldier bring with to request AER assistance?
Military ID Card
Leave and Earnings Statement
Leave/PCS orders
Substantiating documents such as car repair estimate, rental agreement, utility bill
Can a spouse obtain AER assistance if a soldier is deployed or TDY?
Yes. The spouse should bring the following to the AER Section:

Power of Attorney
Military ID Card
Substantiating documents such as car repair estimate
When is the US Army Annual Fund Raising Campaign?
From March 1 to May 15
ACS provides what service to a new military spouse?
Army customs and traditions
Chain of Command
Rank structure
Mentoring
Role of the Army Spouse
ASAP staffing is divided into what two categories?
Clinical and Non-clinical
Unit commanders must refer indiciduals to the ASAP counseling center for an initial screening interview within how many hours of notification of apprehension of a soldier for apparent alcolhol or other drug abuse?
72 hours
What are the four fundametnal operating elements of the ASAP rehab program?
1. Identification and referral
2. Screening/ Triage
3. Threatmetn and follow-up
4. Rehab testing
What are the 2 examples of biochemcical identification?
Urinalysis
Breathalyzer
Five methods of alcohol and other drug abuse detection?
1. voluntary
2. command/supervision id
3. biochemical id
4. medical id
5. investigation and/or apprehension
Notification of unit personnel for a urinalysis should take place preferably less than how many hours but no more than how mnay hours, prior to reporting time.
2; 6
What are the three levels of alcohol prevetnion?
Primary, secondary and tertiary
What is the water requirement per person, per day in a temperate zone?
5 gallons
What are the measurements of a straddle trench?
1 ft wide, 4 ft long and 2 1/2 ft deep
How deep is a cat hole?
6 to 12 inches
What are some diseases carried by the fly?
Typhoid
Cholera
Dysentery
You are here: home > study guide topics > field sanitation > field sanitation study guide

Field Sanitation Study Guide
Field Sanitation Army Board Study Guide
Posted Sunday, June 25, 2006

What are the 4 types of waste?

Human
Liquid
Garbage
Rubbish

What is the water requirement per person, per day in a temperate zone?
5 gallons



A latrine can be no closer than what distance to a water source?
100 ft



What is Potable water?
Water that is safe to drink



What are the measurements of a straddle trench?
1 ft wide, 4 ft long and 2 1/2 ft deep



How many gallons of water will a Lister bag hold?
36 gallons



How deep is a cat hole?
6 to 12 inches



What is a communicable disease?
A disease that ca be transmitted person to person, animal to person and insect to person



What are the 5 "F"s of Field Sanitation?

Fingers
Feces
Flies
Foods
Fluids

What is the best protection against disease or biological warfare?
Immunization and personal hygiene



What Field Manual covers Unit Field Sanitation Team?
FM 4-25.12



What Field Manual covers Field Hygiene and Sanitation?
FM 21-10



What is Field Sanitation?
The use of measures to create and maintain healthful environmental conditions, these include safeguarding food, safeguarding water, and controlling disease bearing insects and rodents.



What is a vector?
Any living organism that can carry a disease-producing virus



What is palatable water?
Water that is pleasing to the taste, but which may be unsafe




What are the 5 communicable disease grouped by the Army?

Respiratory
Intestinal
Insect borne
Venereal
Miscellaneous

What are some diseases carried by the fly?

Typhoid
Cholera
Dysentery

What 3 rules apply to water discipline in the field?
Drink only from approved sources
Conserve water
Do not contaminate your sources
What is the best protection against disease or biological warfare?
Immunization and personal hygiene
What are the three most common poison plants?
Poison ivy
Poison oak
Poison sumac
What are some methods for human waste disposal?
Straddle trench
Mound latrine
Burn out latrine
Deep pit
Bore hole latrines
Pail latrines
Urine soak pits
Enough straddle trenches should be dug to accommodate what percentage of the unit at one time?
Eight percent
What are two prescribed formations for platoons?
line
column
What is a rank?
A line, which is only one element in depth
What is the only command given from “Inspection Arms”?
“Ready, Port, Arms”
How do you measure a "step”?
Heel to heel
What position is the unit guidon once a preparatory command is given?
The raised vertical position
Define Cadence
The uniform rhythm in which a movement is executed, or the number of steps or counts per minute at which a movement is executed.
How far in front of the Honor Company or color company do the colors halt?
Ten steps
What FM covers the duties, responsibilities and authorities of a NCO?
FM 7-22.7
What is Command Authority?
Command authority is the authority leaders have over soldiers by virtue of rank or assignment. Command authority originates with the President and may be supplemented by law or regulation.
What is authority?
Authority is the legitimate power of a leader to direct those subordinates to him or to take action within the scope of his position.
What are the five types of power?
Legal
Reward
Coercive
Referent
Expert.
What are the four fundamental steps in supervising subordinates in the accomplishment of a task?
Assign the task
Set standards
Check progress
Determine if standards have been met (follow-up)
What is a directed duty?
Directed duties are not specified as part of a job position or MOS or other directive. A superior gives them orally or in writing. Directed duties include being in charge of quarters (CQ) or serving as sergeant of the guard, staff duty officer, company training NCO and NBC NCO, where these duties are not found in the unit’s organization charts.
What is reward power?
The power derived from the capacity of the leader to provide desired rewards to a soldier for good performance.
What is a specified duty?
Specified duties are those related to jobs and positions. Directives such as Army regulations, Department of the Army (DA) general orders, the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), soldier’s manuals, Army Training and Evaluation Program (ARTEP) publications and MOS job descriptions specify the duties. For example, AR 600-20 says that NCOs must ensure that their soldiers get proper individual training and maintain personal appearance and cleanliness.
What are the three different types of duties?
Specified
Directed
Implied duties
What is an implied duty?
Implied duties often support specified duties, but in some cases they may not be related to the MOS job position. These duties may not be written but implied in the instructions. They’re duties that improve the quality of the job and help keep the unit functioning at an optimum level. In most cases, these duties depend on individual initiative. They improve the work environment and motivate soldiers to perform because they want to, not because they have to. For example, while not specifically directed to do so, you hold in-ranks inspections daily to ensure your soldiers’ appearance and equipment are up to standards.
What is an in-ranks inspection?
An in-ranks inspection is of personnel and equipment in a unit formation.
What is an in-quarters inspection?
Leaders may conduct an in-quarters (barracks) inspection to include personal appearance, individual weapons, field equipment, displays, maintenance and sanitary conditions.
What are the steps of an On the Spot Correction?
Correct the soldier.

Attack the performance, never the person.

Give one correction at a time. Do not dump.

Don’t keep bringing it up — when the correction is over, it is over.
A summary court may confine you to how many days at hard labor?
1 to 30 days if E4 and none for E-5 and above
What is the Maximum punishment imposed by a special court martial?
1. Confinement at hard labor for six months.

2. Forfeiture of two-thirds per month for 6 months.

3. Reduction to lowest enlisted grade.
Who is the president of the court martial?
The senior offier
What is the purpose of an Article 32 investigation?
To investigate the validity of the matter in the charges and to determine what disposition should be made of the case in the interest of justice and discipline
What are the five types of discharges?
Honorable
General
Other than honorable
Bad Conduct
Dishonorable
Can a captain denote an E-5?
No only the commander of the next higher authority
A major or higher can make a service member forfeit how many days pay?
one half of one month's pay per month for three months.
What steps are involved in the imposition of nonjudicial punishment?
1. Preliminary inquiry
2. Notification and explanation of rights
3. Decison period
4. Hearing
5. Appeal
6. Recording and filing of DA form 2627-1
What is the Lautenberg Amendment?
Makes it a felony for those convicted of misdemeanor crimes of domestic violent to ship, transport, possess or receive firearms or ammunitions.
How long should manual pressure be applied before resorting to a pressure dressing?
5 to 10 minutes
In order to minimize skill damage, ensure that an improvised tourniquet is at least how many inches wide
2
What does the term shock mean in a medical context?
refers to a collapse of the body's cardiovascular system
What are the three mechanisms associated with shock
1. damage to the heart
2. blood vessel constrict
3. blood loss
Head injuries many be classified as two types.
Open and closed
Why should fractures be immobolized?
To prevent the sharp edges of the bone from moving and cutting tissue, muscle, blood vessels, and nerves
What is an anatomical splint?
Using an uninjured part of the body as a splint for an injured limb when no other spliting mterial is available.
What is the first aid measure for chemical burns to the eyes?
Flush with large amounts of water for 5 to 20 minutes
What is the distal pulse?
The pulse on an extremity below the site of an injury.
What are heat cramps?
Heat cramps are caused by an imbalance of electrolytes.
What are the first aid measures for heat cramps?
1. Move casualty to cooler area
2. have casualty drink slowly at least one canteen full of water
3. monitor casualty.
What is heatstroke?
Heatstroke is caused by the failure of the body's cooling mechanism.
What are the first aid measures for heatstroke?
1. Move soldier to coller area
2. Start cooling the casualty by spraying or pouring waster on the casualty, and fan them.
3. Elevate their legs.
4. having casualty slowly drink at least one canteen full of cool water.
5. Seek medical help
What is heat exhaustion?
Heat exhaustion is caused by the loss of body fluids ((dyhydration)).
What are the first aid measures for trench foot?
1. Gradual rewarming by exposure to warm air.
2. do not massaage or moisten skin
3. Protect affected parts from trauma.
4. Dry feet throughly and avoid walking
5. Seek medical aid
What are two types of venoms injected by various poisonous snakes?
nuerotoxins
hemotoxins
Hourly fluid intake should not exceed how many quarts. Daily fluid intake should not exceed how many quarts
1 and 1/2
daily intake not to exceed 12 quarts.
What are some symptons of hypothermia?
1. Shivering
2. Pulse is faint
3. May become drowsy or mentally slow
4. Speech may become slurred
5. Eyes may assume a glassy state.
6. Breathing become slow and shallow.
7. Core body temperatures below 85 F.
What are first aid measures for animal bites?
1. Cleanse the wound thoroughly with soap.
2. Flush it well with water
3. Cover it with a sterile dressing.
4. Immobilize the injured arm or leg, if appropriate.
5. Seek medical attention.
What is anaphylactic shock?
A serious allergic reaction to insect bites or stings that can lead to complete collapse, shock, or even death.
What are a few principles that are important when treating insect bites or stings?
1. Remove the stinger by scraping the skin's surface with a fingernail or knife as it may inject more venom.
2. Wash the area of the bite with soap and water
3. Remove jewerly
4. Wash for other needed measures
What is a "Mark I NAAK"?
Nerve Agent Antidote Kit - consist of antropine and pralidoxime chloride.
What is tachycardia and bradycardia?
tachycardia is the abnormally fast heartbeat

bradycardia is an abnormally slow heartbeat
What device is replacing Mark I Kit?
ATNAA - the Antidote Treatment, Nerve Agent, Autoinjector.
When using the Mark I NAAK, which autoinjuector is used first?
The small one (atropine)
What is meant by the term antropinization?
This occurs when the heart rate is above 90 beats per minute, with reduced bronchial secretions, and reduced salivations. .
How many sets of the nerve agent antidote are you authorized to administer to yourself?
One
What choking agent is one of the most dangerous and most likely to be used?
Phosgene which smells like freshly mown hay.
What are the first aid mesure for blood agent poisoning?
There are not, mask immediate and seek medical attention.
Name some two-man carries?
Two hand seat carry
Four hand seat carry
What are the three major components of the medical threat to field forces?
1. Zoonotic diseases.
2. Regional diseaes
3. Heat and cold
What is the principle source of the organism that causes intestinal diseases?
The feces of man
What are the three principles of PMM?
1. Soldier perform individual techniques of PMM
2. Chain of command plans for and enforces PMM
3. Field sanitation teams train soldiers in PMM and advise the commander and unit leaeders on PMM implementation
What does DNBI
Diseases and NOnBattle Injuries
What are the three basic control measures for communicable diseases?
1. Control Source
2. Prevent Spread
3. Protect Infected.
What is considered to be the optimal temperature of drinking water?
60 and 70 F
What are five factors that should be considered when selecting water sources?
1. The military situation
2. The quantity of water needed
3. The accessibility of the source
4. The general quality of the source
5. The type of purification equipment available for use.
What is the WBGT index for?
The Wet Bulb Global Temperature is used to calculate the air temperature, air movement and relative humidity.
What are the two types of cold weather injuries?
Freezing and nonfreezing
Why should tobacco products be avoided in extremely cold weather?
It decreases blood flow to the skin
ECWCS will provide protection of the head, torso, and extremities from what temperatures?
40- to -60F
How do you purify water using iodine tablets?
1. Fill canteen with cleanest water available.
2. Use two tablets per canteen
3. Shake water and tablets
4. RElease excess water around edges
5. Wait 25 more minutes (total of 30 minutes) to use.
How do you purify water using CLOR FLOR tablets?
1. Fill the treatment bag 1/2 full with cleanest water available
2. Add one tablet.
3. Fold bag three times and fold tabs in.
4. shake, swirl, and let stand in increments of 10 seconds.
5. Let bag sit for 15 minutes
6. Insert filter in canteen and puor water form bag into canteen.
7. Save treatment bag
Uniforms should be washed (as a minimum) how often to remove the eggs of arthropods?
Seven days
What is meant by chlorine residual and chlorine demand?
Chlorine residual is the amount of chlorine left over that continues to disinfect.

chlorine demand is the amount of chlorine initially needed to destroy organisms in water.
What are some examples of water-borne diseases?
Hepatitis
typhoid
cholera
What is the acceptable chlorine residual of water after treatment for 30 minutes?
5-mg
(water treated through ROWPU requires a residual of 2 mg)
What are the two types of noice
impact and continuous
Using a dirty mess will almost always result in what condition?
Diarrhea
Who is responsible for setting up and operating bluk water treatment equipment and distributing treated water?
The Army Quartermaster Corps
Who is responsible for selecting sources of water and for establishing water points?
The Army Corps of Engineers
Who is responsible for establishing standards for water quality, inspecting water points or approving water for consumption?
The Amy Medical Dept.
What is considered to be the most frequent medical problem for females in the field?
Urinary tract infections
Toxic chemical/material hazards are define in three areas? What are they?
Industrial
Occupational
Biological/radiological
Toxic Industrial Chemicals can enter the body by what four routes of entry?
Absorption
Injection
Ingestion
Inhalation
Toxic Industrial Chemicals can be classified in what five categories?
1. Irritants
2. Carcinogens
3. Anesthietics
5. Asphyxiants
5. Systemic poisons
Regular use of ear protective devices is mandatory for all individuals exposed to steady-state noise in excess of what and what for impulse noise
85db and 140 dbs
Food contained in insulated containers should be kept at what degrees for hold food and what degrees for cold foods?
140 for hot foods and 40F for cold foods
What are the four cans that a mess kit laundry contain?
1. Scrap can
2. Wash can
3. Rinse
4. Disinfect
What are the two basic duites of a FST
1. Basic sanitation and protection
2. Rodent control
The lyster bag is issued to units on what basis?
1 bag per 100 persons.
What is used in the mess kit laundry cans to keep the water hot?
immersion heaters
Each hot water setup of four cans will support how many persons?
80 persons
What is the preferred improvised human waste disposal method when chemical toilets are not available?
The burn-out latrine
What is a cat-hole?
A field expedient waste hole used primarily when on the move. IT is dug approxiamately 12 inches wide and 6-12 inches deep. NEVER USE IN BIVOUAC AREAS, ONLY WHEN ON THE MOVE
What four types must you consider when determininng the TYPE of waste disposal method?
1. Length of Stay
2. Mission
3. Terrain
4. Weather
Liquid and solid waste produced nder field conditions may amount to how many pounds per person per day?
100 pounds
A standard soakage pit will accommodate how much liquid waste per day?
200 gallons
Liquid kitch wastes accumulate at the rate of how many gallons per man per day?
1 to 5 gallons
What are the dimensions of a garbage pit?
4 feet square and 4 feet deep
How far should garbage be buried from any natural source of water?
30 meters
What FM cover Field Sanitation
FM 21-10
Military maps are categorized by what two things?
Scale and type
What are some different types of maps?
Special, Photo, Topographic, planimetric
What is a topographic may?
Shows terrain features and has contour lines
Starting with 0 at the prime meridian, the meridians of longitude are numbered from what to what?
0 to 180
What are the two grid systems that the military grid reference systems is based on?
UTM - Universe Transverse Mercator

UPS - Universe Polar Stereographic
What letters are used to represent a UPS grid?
A, B, Y and Z
How many digits are required to locate a point to within 1000 meters?
four
How many digits are required to locate a point to within 100 meters?
six
How many digits are required to locate a point to within 10 meters?
eight
How many digits are required to locate a point to within 1 meters?
ten
What is the back azimuth of 180?
May be stated as 0 or 360
What is meanth by the base line?
The starting point or point of reference from which a unit of measure is taken
What six conditions must be considered when adjusting pace count?
Wind, Terrain, visibility, slopes, elements, clothing
Azimuth measuremetns with a protractor should be made to the nearest x amount of degrees or x amount of mils
1 degree or 10 mils
What is meant by modified resection?
This is a method used to locate one's position and is similar to resection, except that you must be near a known linear feature on the map (this feature is used as one of the known locations)
What are the four types of compasses?
Lensatic, Artillery, Pocket, Protractor
The lens, or rear sight, also serves as a lock and clamps the dial when closed for its protection. How far must the rear sight be opened to allow the dial to float freely?
More than 45 degrees
Which of the two approved techniques for holding the compass is more accurate
Compass to cheek
Less than how many of the approxiatemately 5,000 stars visible to the eye are used by navigators?
60
What is a "deliberate offset?"
a planned magnetic deeviation slightly to the right or left of an objective.
what is meant by contour inteval?
The contour interval is the vertical distance betweeen adjacent countour lines on the map
What is meant by the datum plane?
The datum plane is the reference point from which all measurement in elevation are taken.
What is elevation?
The vertical distance above or below the datum plane.
How do you determine the elevation of a hilltop?
Add one-half the contour interval to the value of the highest contour line before the hilltop.
What is the usual contour interval on a large scale map
20 meters
What are the five methods of depicting relief?
Contour lines, layer tinting, form lines, shaded relief
What are hachures?
Short broken lines used to show relief
What does OCOKA stand for?
Observation and fields of fire
Cover and concealment
Obstacles
Key terrain
Avenues of approach
What does METT-TC stand for?
Mission
Enemy
Terrain
Troops
Time available
Civil considerations
What are steering marks?
Landmarks selected during actual navigation located on or near the hightest points you can see.
What are handrails?
Linear features such as roads etc
What four units of measure are most commonly found on military maps
Nautical miles
Statute miles
Meters
Yards
What are the three types of deserts?
Rocky
Mountainous
Sandy
What are the four core capabilites of counterproliferation?
1. Counterforce
2. Active defense
3. Passive defense
4. Consequence management
What is the LLR hazard?
Low level radiation
Thre three fundamentals of NBC defense
1. Avoidance
2. Protection
3. Decon
What is IPB
Intelligence preparation of the battlefield
What are the five functions included in the IPB
1. Battlefield Evauluation
2. Terrain analysis
3. Weather analysis
4. Threat evaluation
5. Threat integration
What are some examples of passive defense?
OPSEC
Light discipline
Remain mobile
Good concealment
NBC hazards can be clasified into what two types?
Immediate
Residual
Three categories of decontaminants
Natural
Standard
Nonstandard
NBC Protection is divided inot what two components.
Collective protection
indiviudal protection
Contamination should be consdered nonpersistent if it remains for how long?
Ten minutes and less
What is the lowest level at which NBC 2 Reports are normally prepared?
Division
What are the immediate decon techniques to be initiated?
Skin Decon
Operator Spraydown
Personal wipedown
what DKIE stand for?
Decon Kit for Individual Equipment
Vehicle washdown should be performed within how many hours of being contanminated when through decon cannot be done
six hours
Is the BDO launderable?
Yes, once
Is the JSLIST launderable?
Yes, up to six times
What is the last step is donning the protective mask?
Close the mask carrier
What are the three approved methods of carrying mask carrier?
1. Pistol belt
2. Shoulder
3. Leg carry
Soldier in MOPP 4 may lose up to how much water?
1 and one-half quarts or more
Is "MASK ONLY" a MOPP level?
No, it is considered an option
What two tools can be effectively used to reduce the level of mission degradation with the wear of MOPP gear?
Acclimation and training
What are the steps associated with DTD
1. Individual gear decon
2. Overbood and hood decon
3. Overgarment removal
4. Overboots and gloves removal
5. Monitor
6. Mask removal
7. Mask Decon point
8. Reissue point
What are the four principle effects of any nuclear explosion?
1. Thermal radiation
2. Blast
3. EMP
4. Nuclear radiation
Direct burns produced by the flash of thermal radiation is know as what?
Flash burns
Nuclear radiation from a blast can be further divided into two major types. What are they?
Initial radiation
Residual radiation
What is fallout?
Fallout is a radiological contamination hazard that occurs when dirt and debris from the earth are drawn up into the fireball of a nuclear explosion.
Which of the three types of nuclear bursts is best used for maximum effect?
The air burst
What are the three stages in the development of nuclear clouds?
Fireball, burst cloud,and stabilized cloud
AFter donning the protective mask, you should remain at least how many meters from any armored vehicle or ammo transport that is actively burning
50 meters
What are the two basic types of toxins?
neurotoxins
cytotoxins
The format for a CHEMWARN message reseembles which NBC report?
NBC 3
Chemical agents can exist in one of what four forms
Vapors, gas, solids, and liquids
What are the three types of riot control agents
Sneezing, Tearing and vomiting
What is meant by VGH agents? L-agents?
V and G agents are nerve agents, H and L types agents are blister agents
What are some limitation of M8 detector paper?
It cannot be used to detect chemical agents in water, vapor or aerosols
What is the proper method for using M8 detector paper?
Blot the paper on the suspected contaminated surface. Do not rub the paper against a suspected surface because false positive streaks are produced.
Where should M9 paper be placed when attached to clothing?
On opposite sides of the body. If you right handed, place a strip around your right upper arm, left wrist and right ankle. IF you are left-handed, place ti around your left upper arm, right wrist and left ankle.
Levels above what percentage of the HRR is considered to be dangerous?
90%
The recovery period between workouts of the same muscle group should be at least how many hours, but not more than how many hours?
48; 96
What is passive stretching?
Strecthing that involves the use of a partner or equipment, such as a towl. This type of streching can produce a safe stretch through a range of motion that could otherwise not be achieved.
What is a slow cadence (For performing calistentics)?
50 counts per minute
What is a moderate cadence (For performing calistentics)?
80 counts per minute
What are the two types of circuit drill?
Fixed and free
Name four ways in which the body can gain or lose heat?
Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Evaporation
In order to ensure that soldiers who are newly assigned to altitudes above 5,000 are not at a disadvantage, it is recommended that how many days of acclimatization be permitted before they area administered a record APFT?
30 days
The event supervisor should be the timer. How often should the time remaining be called out during each 2-minute event?
The timer shoudl cal otu the time remaining every 30 seconds, and every second of the last 10 seconds of the two minutes.
Can a soldier do the PT test on their fists?
Yes, since it may be needed due to injury and it does not give any advantage to the test taker.
How far down must you go to correctly perform one pushup?
Until arms are parellal to the ground.
What information should be entered on the DA 705 if a soldier fails the APFT?
The scorer should write down the reasons and other pertinent information as well as the weather conditions, injury during PT, and/or appeals.
When completing the DA 705, how should Weight be entered?
It should be recorded to the nearest pound.
When completing the DA 705, how should height be entered?
It should be recorded to the nearest inch
How is the vertical position of the sit-up defined?
When the base of your neck is above the base of the spine
When performing the situp event, should the elbows go inside or outside of the knees?
Either is acceptable
What happens if, during the situp event, a soldier uses their hands or arms to pull himself or herself up or push off the ground to attain the UP position?
The situp event will be terminated immediately
Describe some of the differences between men and women?
- Men have 50% greater total muscle mass, based on weight

- Women carry roughly 10% more body fat than do mean of the same age.

- Women have less bone mass and their pelvic structure is wider

- The average woman's heart is 25% smaller

- Women are generally more flexible

- The lung capacity of men is 25-30% greater than that of men
What commands are used to reassemble the unit into the origninal formation from a circular formation
FALL OUT & FALL IN
What is the best technique for motivating soldiers?
Leading from the front and setting the right example
What are the four dimensions of the Leadership Framework?
Values, attributes, actions, and skills
What are the six sub-systems of the Community Life System?
1. Army Community Service
2. AAFES
3. Army Morale Support Activities
4. Army Continuing Education System
5. Army Club Management
6. Army Postal System
What is the mission of ACS?
Facilitate the commander's ability to provide support services and maxiize technology and resources.
Whare are some of the services provided by the ACS "Deployment/Mobilization and Readiness" area?
- Operation R.E.A.D.Y
- NEO
- Family Assistance Plan
- Family Readiness Groups
What does R.E.A.D.Y stand for?
Resources for Education About Deployment and You.
What does NEO stand for?
Noncombatant Evacuation Operation
ACS services consist of what five readiness areas?
1. Deployment/mobilization
2. Financial Readiness
3. Employment Readiness
4. Soldier and Family Readiness
5. Relocation Readiness
The ACS delivers services according to a four-pronged delivery model. What are the four pongs?
- Centralized intake
- Services/Readiness Area
- Resource file and client tracking
- Outreach
What are soeme of the services provided by ACS that fall under "Relocation Readiness?"
- Prearrival information
- Sponsorship support
- Lending closet
- Mandatory overseas orientation
What are some of the services provided by ACS that fall under "Employment Readiness?"
- Resource information
- Job search assitance
- Career counseling
- Marketing
- Job bank
What are some of the services provided by ACS that fall under "Financial Readiness?"
- Prevention education
- Mandatory training
- Financial counseling
- Debt liquidation assistance
- Consumer advocacy
- Complaint resolution
The Family Advocacy Program is implemented to address child abuse and neglect, as well as spouse abuse, and consists of what five phases?
1. Prevention
2. Identification
3. Reporting
4. Investigation
5. Treatment
What is the outreach mode of service delivery by ACS?
It is where the provider seeks out the client instead of the reverse.
What is the purpose of ACS relocation services?
Provides timely and useful information, guidance, and assistance to individuals plannign for their move from one military comunitiy to another and settling into a new community.
How does ACS support the sponsorship program?
- Provide training to unit sponsorship trainers
- Provide youth sponsors
- Provide a SITES file or welcome packet for sponsor to send to transferee's arrival
What is the ACS support role of handicapped dependents?
To assist assignment authorities in the reassignment or service members who have handicapped adult or minor dependents
What does the ACS loan closet do for the service member?
Loans them basic housekeeping items when establishing new households
What does SITES stand for?
Standard Installation Topic Exchange Service
List some basic services provided by the Army Continuing Education Center.
- BSEP
- ASEP
- ESL
- MOS related development courses
- Tuition Assistance
- DANTES
- SOCAD
- Transition Management
- BDFS
- Headstart/Gateway
What is the TABE used for?
The TABE (Test of Adult Basic Education) is used to determine the solider educational needs
Can family members attend the High School Completion Program?
Yes, on a space available basis
What are some of the tests administered under the DANTES program
SAT
GRE
CLEP
ACT (American College Test)
GED (overseas only)
Are DANTES examinations available to family members?
Yes, on a cost per test basis
When should a soldier be sent to Transition Management?
Six months prior to their ETS date
What is Headstart and Gateway to German?
HEADSTART is a mandatory basic German language and culture program

GATEWAY is a mandatory command lanaguage program which provides military service personnel with the opportunity to learn the basics of the language as well as the customs. It is (E7 thru E-9, Warrant Officers and Officers)
What AR covers AER?
AR 930-4
How often is Substance Abuse Training conducted?
at initial entry, pre-commissioning and annually
Who can be appointed as UPL?
E-5 and above as well as officers, but each must have orders for extra duty
ASAP staffing is divided into what two categories?
Clinical and non-clinical
A blood alcohol level of what percentage will be the basis for disciplinary action under the UCMJ?
.05%
What does RRP STAND FOR?
Risk Reduction Program
Alcohol consumption during duty hours at the workplace is prohited unless specifically authorized by whom?
The first General Officer/installation commander in the chain of command
Initial interviews must be condeucted by a member of the ASAP counseling center staff within how many duty days of the referral?
Five
What are the four fundamental operating elements of the ASAP rehab program?
- Identification and referral
- Screening/triage
- Treatment and follow-up
- Rehab testing
In order to complete the mandatory follow-up outpatient program, patients who have received ASAP inpatient care should be stabilized in their current assignment for how many months from the date of inpatient enrollment?
one year (12 months)
What is Antabuse?
Antabuse is a drug used in the treatmetn of alcoholism, but it not mandatory for ASAP program enrollees
What is the favorable actions status of soldiers who are command referred to the ASAP and enrolled in the program?
The records of such soldiers will be flagged for suspension of favorable actions
What is the reenlistment status of soldiers enrolled in ASAP?
Those soldiers may not reenlist; however, they may have they may be extended in order to complete their treatment.
Can a soldier whose urine has tested positive for illegal drugs obtain a retest at a commercial laboratory?
Yes, at their expense and when a sufficent sample of the same specimen is available for retesting
What is the minimum rate of testing of biochemical tests?
One random sample per active duty soldier per year
What is meant by the term "Limited Use Policy?"
This policy limits the use of evidence collected against a soldier in such things as UCMJ action and characterization of service in Administrative proceedings. This policy only applies to a very small number of cases, usually when a soldier self-refers themself to ASAP
How much urine is needed in a sample?
At least 30 ml of urine (approxiamately half of the specimen bottle)
What is the "BAT?"
Basic Alcohol Test
What is an aliquot?
This term refers to the actual urine sample provided by a soldier.
What are the three levels of alcohol prevention?
Primary - prevention

Secondary - Prevention of the further development of the illness after theoccurrence

Tertiary - Prevention of the reoccurrence
Army Forensic Toxicology Drug Testing Laboratories currently test every specimen for what drugs?
THC (marijuana) and cocaine
Will test for barbituates amphetamines and opiates when a commander requests it
What is the only drug testing technique that is fully supportable for UCMJ action?
FTDTL
What are the five steps of the risk management process?
1. Identify hazards
2. Assess hazards
3. Develop control and make decisions
4. Implement controls
5. Supervise and evaluate
What is meant by a "control" in relation to Army Safety?
Any measure taken to eliminate hazards or reduce their risk
What is meant by Equal Opportunity in the ARmy?
Consideration and treatment based on marit, fitness, and capability.
What is Discrimination?
Any action that unlawfully or unjustly results in unequal treatment of persons or groups based
on race, color, gender, national origin, or religion.
What is Gender discrimination?
Gender discrimination. The action taken by an individual to deprive a person of a right because of their gender.
Such discrimination can occur overtly, covertly, intentionally, or unintentionally.
When when company level commanders conduct a unit climate assestment?
Company level commanders will conduct a unit climate assessment within 90 days (180 days for Army
Reserve) of assuming command and annually thereafter.


Provide timely feedback (30 days active/60 days Army Reserve) to subordinates regarding the results of
Command Climate Surveys or any EO survey instrument initiated by the command.
What is the responsibility of an EO representative?
EO representatives’ (EORs) responsibilities include assisting commanders at the battalion-level or equivalent and
below in carrying out the EO Program within their units. EORs serve a special duty at small unit level. Commanders
must appoint EORs in their units who are members of the chain of command in the rank of SGT (P) through 1LT.
Soldiers who are graduates of DEOMI and have been awarded enlisted Skill Qualifying Identifier (SQI) Q or officer


(1) Assist commanders in addressing EO climate detractors.
(2) Continuously assist commanders in the conduct of unit climate assessments.
(3) Prepare and assist the commander in the conduct of EO training.
(4) Establish and maintain liaison with other EORs and with the EOA at higher headquarters.
(5) Assist commanders and assigned project officers in preparing and conducting ethnic observances and special
commemorations.
(6) Assist complainants by referring them to an appropriate agency for assistance. Complaints referred to another
agency will be reported to the EOA. EORs may not conduct investigations and are not trained to fully advise AR 15–6
investigating officers in their conduct of EO complaint investigations. Any commissioned officer performing the
additional duty of an EOR may be asked (in the capacity of a commissioned officer and as a disinterested, third party)
to conduct investigations. Yet, those situations should not concern EO complaints within their organization.
(7) Serve as a resource person for EO matters in the unit.
What are the three categories of sexual harassment?
Physical contact
Verbal
Nonverbal
How often are units required to conduct sexual harassment training?
Twice a year
How are sexual misconduct cases processed?
Charges of sexual misconduct are to be processed through legal/ law enforcement channels, not EO
channels.
What are the echelons of sexual assault victim advocates in garrison and while on deployement?
Garrison
(1) The installation sexual assault response coordinator (SARC) is responsible for coordinating the local implementation of the program.
(2) Installation victim advocates (IVA) work directly with the installation SARC, victims of sexual assault, unit victim advocates, and other installation response agencies.
(3) Unit victim advocates (UVA) are Soldiers who are trained to provide limited victim advocacy as a collateral duty.

In a deployed environment, there are two echelons of victim advocates:
(1) Deployable sexual assault response coordinators (SARC) are Soldiers trained and responsible for coordinating
the Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program as a collateral duty in a specified area of a deployed theater.
There is one deployable SARC at each brigade/unit of action and higher echelon.
66 AR
What are the two ways of reporting sexual assualt?
c. Restricted reporting. Restricted reporting allows a Soldier who is a sexual assault victim, on a confidential basis,
to disclose the details of his/her assault to specifically identified individuals and receive medical treatment and
counseling, without triggering the official investigative process. Soldiers who are sexually assaulted and desire
restricted reporting under this policy should report the assault to the sexual assault response coordinator (SARC),
victim advocate, chaplain, or a healthcare provider.

d. Unrestricted reporting. Unrestricted reporting allows a Soldier who is sexually assaulted and desires medical
treatment, counseling, and an official investigation of his/her allegation to use current reporting channels (for example, the chain of command or law enforcement), or he/she may report the incident to the SARC or the on-call victim advocate. Upon notification of a reported sexual assault, the SARC will immediately notify a victim advocate. Additionally, with the victim’s consent, the healthcare provider will conduct a forensic examination, which may include
the collection of evidence. Details regarding the incident will be limited to only those personnel who have a legitimate need to know.
What are the two components of the EO program?
1. Affirmation action component
2. Education and training component
What is an "EOR?"
Soldier who has been designated to assist their commander at the battablion-level and below in carrying out the EO program within their respective units.
What is an "EOA?"
A soldier with the primary duty of EO Advisor who works full-time as the brigade-level EO advisor (E-7 or higher)
Mandatory EO training must be conducted at least how often?
Twice a year
What is DEOMI?
The EO course that consists of two resident courses
What reg covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?
AR 600-8-8
What form is completed by a soldier on arrival and assists in evaluating that unit's sponsorship program?
DA 7274
As a minimum, how many welcome letters should a new arrival receive?
Unless sponsorship is declined a soldier should receive a minimum of two letter: one from the battalion commander or command sergeant major and one from the designated sponsor.
What is rear detachment sponsorship?
Sponsor support provided family members of soldiers and civilian employees whose unit or activity is deployed from an installation and is scheduled to return to that installation.
What regulation covers the Retention Program?
AR 601-280
A Major or above can detain pay for how long?
one half one one month's pay per month for three months. May be retained up to one year.
What is mitigation?
Serves to reduce the serverity of the punishment
When nonjudicial punishment is imposed on an NCO, what are the three types of punishnment it MAY NOT include?
1. Diminished rations
2. Confinement
3. Any duty that would not normally performed by a NCO
Can a soldier be placed on diminished rations?
Yes, E-3 and below
A Captain or below can make a service member forfeit how many days pay?
Seven days
A filed grade commander can restrict for how long?
Sixty days
Can a captain demot an E-5?
No, only the next higher authority
What is the purpose of nonjudicial punishment?
To educate and reform offenders
what are the advantages of disposing of cases by Article 15?
- The offender benefits in that hter is no trial
- It is not a federal conviction and, will not follow the offender for life
- Preserves an offender's record from nunnecessary stigmatization
What is the length of time that a person has to appeal an Article 15?
Usually no more than 5 calendar days
What is the maximum number of days of extra duty that may be given by a field grade commander?
45
What is the statute of limitations of an Article 15?
Two years- This does not apply when soldier is a fugitive, on AWOL status or outside the US, POW, or in the custody of civil authorities
Who may be placed in correctional custody?
E-3 and below
Who may be reduced in rank for misconduct under ARticle 15?
E-2 Thru E-6
How many pay grades may a soldier be reduced for inefficiency/misconduct?
Enlisted soldiers may be reduced one pay grade for inefficiency and one or more ranks for misconduct
What is the disposition of DA Form 2627-1?
These forms will be maintained locally in nonjudicial punishment files. They will be destroyed at the end of 2 years from the date of imposition of punishment or on the soldier's transfer from the unit, whichever occurs first.
What is the disposition of DA Form 2627?
For E4 and below, the original will be filed locally in unit nonjudicial punishment files. For all other sodiers, the original will be filed in th OMPF. The decision to file the original DA Form will be determined by the imposing commander at the time the punishment is imposed. Additional copies will be transmitted through the MILPO serving the soldier's MPRJ to the Finance and Accounting office as necessary
When should punitive articles of the UCMJ be explained to the enlisted members?
When the individual enters the active service, or within six days therafter.
Can you refuse a Court Martial?
Yes, you may refuse a Summary (but not a special or general)
Who may be tried by a Summary court-martial?
Any person subject to UCMJ except officers.
A Summary Court may confine you to how many days at hard labor?
1 to 30 days if E-4 and below
None for grades E-5 and above
What is the maximum punishment imposed by a Special Court?
- Confinement at hard labor for 6 months
- Forfeiture of two-thirds pay per month for six months
- Reduction to the lowest enlisted grade
What is the difference between a Special and a General court-martial?
A General Court has a military judge who serves on it and may impose the death penalty
Is the military judge considered a member of the court?
NO
what is the purpose of a military judge?
To ensure proper procedure and ensure the accused rights are protected
What is a minor offense?
Generally, the term “minor” includes misconduct not involving any greater degree of criminality than is involved in the average offense tried by summary court-martial (SCM). It does not include misconduct of a type that, if tried by GCM,
could be punished by dishonorable discharge or confinement for more than 1 year (see para 1e, part V, MCM). This is not a hard and fast rule
How many appeals of an Article 15 are allowed
One appeal, If, at the time of imposition of punishment, the Soldier indicates a desire not to appeal, the superior authority may
reject a subsequent election to appeal, even though it is made within the 5-day period. Although a suspended
punishment may be appealed, no appeal is authorized from the vacation of suspended punishment.
How is voting done on a special court martial?
By a secret written ballot
May an enlisted person serveon a court martial?
Yes, when not a member of the unit of hte accused or when the accused has requested an enlisted member on the court-martial
Who is the Law Officer on a Special court-martial?
The President of the court martial
Who must review the case in a Summary or Special court-martial before the sentence is considered final?
The Staff Judge Advocate
May a plea of no contest be entered in a military court?
No
What are the five types of discharges?
Honorable
Dishonarble
General
Bad Conduct
Other than Honorable
What is the purpose of a flagging actiion
To prevent all favorable action on an individual
When may a commander initiate flagging action?
When it appears that action may be initiated which could result in corut martial, discliplinary action or elimination proceedings
can the first sergeant give you company punishment?
No, but he can recommend it
What is the difference between arrest and confinement?
Arrest is the restraint of a person within certain specified limits, and confinement is the physical restraint of someone.
The right to a speedy trail is guaranteed by what US Amendment
Amendment six
What is the difference between confession and admission?
Confession is an admission of guilt while admission falls short of complete guilt
In the ARmy, who may issue search and seizure authorization and when?
A commanding officer, military judge, or military magistrate whn probable cause exists
What percentage of enlisted members are allowed to serve on a military cout at one time.
one-third
What is double jeopardy?
Being charge for the same offense twice
What do the letters "MCM" stand for?
Manual for Courts-Martial
What is the role of the Staff Judge Advocate?
He ensures that criminal justice in the command is admiistrered fairly
In what areas may the Staff Judge Advocate (JAG) assists the service member?
- Courts-martial and other disciliplinary actions
- state or federal income tax returns
- personal property damage while on duty
- drafting of legal documents
- explanation of legal rights
Administrative discharges are separate and distinct from dishcharges given by court-martial. How are they classified?
Voluntary and involuntary
What does the promulgating order do?
It publish the result of a trail and the initial action of the convening authority
In conducting an investigation, what three questions must be answered?
1. Was an offense committed
2. Was the SM involved in the offense
3. What is the character and military record of the suspected SM?
What is "real" evidence?
Any tangible item other than that which is in writing
What is testimonial evidence?
Verbal statements which have been reduced to writing
A field grade commander can restrict for how long?
Sixty days
If an ARticle 15 is appealed, what actions may the appealing authority take?
Suspend, vacate, mitigate, remit, or set aside punishment
A Major or higher can made a service member forfeit how many days pay?
one-half of each month's pay for two months
A Major or higher can made a service member detain pay for how long ?
one-half of each month's pay for three months. Maqy be retained up to one year
What steps are involved in the imposition of nonjudicial punishment?
1. Inquiry
2. Notification
3. Decision period
4. Hearing
5. Appeal
6. Recording and filing of 2627/2627-1
What are nonpunitive disciplinary measures? Give some examples
Nonpuntive measures are those taken when the circumstances do not warrant UCMJ action.
Examples include:
- Counseling
- Reprimand
- Suspension of pass privileges
- MOS reclassification
- Revocation of security clearance
- extra training
- Bar to reenlistment
What is the highest court in the Army?
The Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces
What article of the UCMJ gives NCOs the authority to apprehend?
Article 9
What article of the UCMJ covers investigations and disposition of charges?
Article 32
What article covers failure to obey an order or regulation from a warrant officer or NCO
Article 92
When teaching D&C, which teaching method is best for movement that have two or more counts?
By the numbers