Biology Final 2009

Front 1

T/F

The first step in the Scientific method is forming a hypothesis

Back 1

False

Front 2

T/F

The prion, which causes “Mad Cow disease”, is just a single protein and lacks several of the characteristics of living
things and therefore would not be a true life form by the biological definition.

Back 2

True

Front 3

T/F

Atoms consist of 4 subatomic parts, neutrons, positrons, negatrons and electrons

Back 3

False

Front 4

T/F

Water dissolves a molecule like table salt (sodium chloride) by separating the positive sodium ions and the negative
chloride ions.

Back 4

True

Front 5

T/F

The pH scale is a measure of the amount of free N+ (nitrogen ions) there is in a solution.

Back 5

False

Front 6

T/F

Buffers give-up or receive H+ ions in order to keep the pH of a solutions the same

Back 6

True

Front 7

T/F

DNA is an example of a Lipid.

Back 7

False

Front 8

T/F

Glucose can be joined together to make many different polysaccharides using the hydrolysis reaction.

Back 8

False

Front 9

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental quality of all living things?
a. Capture and use of energy and raw materials
b. Sense and respond to the environment
c. Has a flagellum for swimming
d. Capacity to grow, reproduce, and develop
e. Tendency to adapt to the environment over time

Back 9

c. Has a flagellum for swimming

Front 10

You are studying a group of 5th graders’ hand writing skills. There are 500 students that are right handed, 25 that are
left handed and 3 that are ambidextrous. If you randomly pick 10 for your study and they are all right handed, what
would this be an example of?
a. experimenter bias
b. a lack of a control
c. random causification
d. sampling error
e. all of the above

Back 10

d. sampling error

Front 11

All of the following are names of one the six Kingdoms EXCEPT which one?
a. Protista
b. Plantae
c. Bacteria
d. Fungi
e. Animalia

Back 11

C

Front 12

Why do scientists use taxonomy or classification schemes to give names to the various living things
a. there is no good reason
b. giving names to things enable scientists to publish papers with the new name
c. if things don’t have a name they’re not considered to be alive
d. it keeps the taxonomists busy
e. it enables specific animals or plants to be identified when experiments are reported

Back 12

E

Front 13

Which of the following is NOT one of the seven major “taxa” or groups into which living things are classified?
a. Phylum
b. species
c. Genus
d. Group
e. Family

Back 13

D

Front 14

Which is the smallest unit of life that can exist as a separate entity?
a. an organ
b. a molecule
c. a population
d. a cell
e. an ecosystem

Back 14

D

Front 15

The cell membrane is composed of ________________.
a. proteins
b. lipids
c. DNA
d. RNA
e. both a and b

Back 15

A

Front 16

All of the following organelles are involved in producing proteins which are secreted from the cell EXCEPT
a. Nucleus
c. Endoplasmic Reticulum
e. All of these are used
b. Golgi Apparatus
d. Chloroplasts

Back 16

D

Front 17

As cell size increases, the __________ increases slower than the __________ . This is one thing that limits cell size.
a. proteins; DNA
c. cell surface; internal volume
e. none of the above
b. nucleus; total size
d. DNA; cytoplasm

Back 17

C

Front 18

Since the element magnesium (Mg) has 2 electrons in its outer shell and oxygen (O) has 6, which of the following is the
most likely way they would form a bond?
a. Mg and O would each share 2 pairs of electrons
b. O would give up its 6 to Mg giving both full outer shells
c. Mg would give up its 2 to O giving both full outer shells
d. these elements are not going to form a bond
e. none of the above

Back 18

C

Front 19

Atoms form bonds in order to have _________________ in their outer energy levels
a. more protons
b. 6 neutrons
c. 4 electrons
d. fewer protons
e. 8 electrons

Back 19

E

Front 20

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding all cell membranes?
a. Contains proteins which allow certain molecules to pass through into the cell
b. Contains proteins which reinforce the membrane
c. Contains a phospholipid bilayer
d. It is a fixed, rigid material where the molecules are bonded to each other
e. none of the above--All are true

Back 20

D

Front 21

Which of the following polymers consists of two strands of nucleotides twisted into each other?
a. protein
b. DNA
c. triglycerides
d. starch
e. chitin

Back 21

B

Front 22

Triglycerides, waxes and cholesterol are all similar in that
a. they are made of nucleotides
d. they don’t dissolve in water
b. they are carbohydrates
e. both a and b
c. they contain peptide bonds

Back 22

D

Front 23

When a polymer is separated by enzymes into the individual monomers it is which type of reaction?
a. hydrolysis reaction
c. lyophilis reaction
e. none of the above
b. electron transfer
d. function group transfer

Back 23

A

Front 24

The hydrogen bonding between water molecules results in which of the following characteristics?
a. cohesiveness
c. non-polarity
e. both a and b
b. capillary action
d. conductivity

Back 24

E

Front 25

Which of the following is the key characteristic of water which gives it many of its unique attributes?
a. water is a polar molecule and forms hydrogen bonds with itself
b. water is an amphipathic molecule and so forms many interactions
c. water's 4 hydrogen atoms share electrons unequally with the oxygen atom
d. none of the above

Back 25

A

Front 26

We said that Jesus and water both share some common characteristics: they are both_______.
a. Unique--there is no other like them
c. Metamorphic--they both are ever changing
b. Indispensable--we can’t live without them
d. both a and b

Back 26

D

Front 27

Which of the following meet the biological definition of true life forms?
a. True Life-form b. Not a true Life-form

Ebola Virus

Back 27

B

Front 28

Which of the following meet the biological definition of true life forms?
a. True Life-form b. Not a true Life-form

Anthrax bacteria

Back 28

A

Front 29

Which of the following meet the biological definition of true life forms?
a. True Life-form b. Not a true Life-form

President Bush

Back 29

A

Front 30

Which of the following meet the biological definition of true life forms?
a. True Life-form b. Not a true Life-form

Lucifer

Back 30

B

Front 31

For each of the statements below, indicate whether it is true of:
a. Prokaryotes c. Both
b. Eukaryotes

Most have cell sizes which can barely be detected by Light Microscopes

Back 31

A

Front 32

For each of the statements below, indicate whether it is true of:
a. Prokaryotes c. Both
b. Eukaryotes

Have mitochondria

Back 32

B

Front 33

For each of the statements below, indicate whether it is true of:
a. Prokaryotes c. Both
b. Eukaryotes

Some are able to swim with a flagellum

Back 33

C

Front 34

For each of the statements below, indicate whether it is true of:
a. Prokaryotes c. Both
b. Eukaryotes

Some have a protective cell wall made of cellulose

Back 34

C

Front 35

For each of the statements below, indicate whether it is true of:
a. Prokaryotes c. Both
b. Eukaryotes

36. DNA is not inside a nucleus

Back 35

A

Front 36

For each of the statements below, indicate whether it is true of:
a. Prokaryotes c. Both
b. Eukaryotes

37. Many are multicellular organisms

Back 36

B

Front 37

38. Contains chromatin


Match the following organelles and cellular structures with the statements below.
a. Vesicles d. Golgi Apparatus
b. Mitochondria e. Ribosomes
c. Nucleus

Back 37

C

Front 38

39. "power plant" of the cell, helps break down glucose and make ATP

Match the following organelles and cellular structures with the statements below.
a. Vesicles d. Golgi Apparatus
b. Mitochondria e. Ribosomes
c. Nucleus

Back 38

B

Front 39

40. “Shipping department” of the cell, sorts and packages proteins for release

Match the following organelles and cellular structures with the statements below.
a. Vesicles d. Golgi Apparatus
b. Mitochondria e. Ribosomes
c. Nucleus

Back 39

D

Front 40

41. Small membrane container for the cell, used to move things around in cells

Match the following organelles and cellular structures with the statements below.
a. Vesicles d. Golgi Apparatus
b. Mitochondria e. Ribosomes
c. Nucleus

Back 40

A

Front 41

Match each of the types of bonds below with the statements below (each is used once)
a. Ionic bond
b. Polar Covalent Bond

The hydrogen and oxygen within H2O are held together by this type of bond
c. Non-polar Covalent Bond
d. Hydrogen Bond

Back 41

B

Front 42

Match each of the types of bonds below with the statements below (each is used once)
a. Ionic bond
b. Polar Covalent Bond
c. Non-polar Covalent Bond
d. Hydrogen Bond

Weak attraction that does not form a new molecule

Back 42

D

Front 43

Match each of the types of bonds below with the statements below (each is used once)
a. Ionic bond
b. Polar Covalent Bond
c. Non-polar Covalent Bond
d. Hydrogen Bond

Involves giving and receiving electrons

Back 43

A

Front 44

Match each of the types of bonds below with the statements below (each is used once)
a. Ionic bond
b. Polar Covalent Bond
c. Non-polar Covalent Bond
d. Hydrogen Bond

Bond where electrons are shared equally

Back 44

C

Front 45

Who is Toby Flenderson?

Back 45

hehe

Front 46

T/F:Connective tissue is used as a protective barrier on the outside of our body and in inside of the digestive tract.

Back 46

F

Front 47

T/F:The hypothallamus is the primary part of the brain which deals with keeping body temperature, oxygen levels,
water levels etc. within the necessary ranges for life.

Back 47

T

Front 48

T/F:The increase in heart rate that we experience when we’re afraid is the result of signals from the sympathetic
nervous system.

Back 48

T

Front 49

T/F:The movement of oxygen into the blood in the lungs is due to special protein oxygen pumps in the cell
membranes of the alveoli.

Back 49

F

Front 50

T/F:The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that no energy convertion is ever 100% efficient.

Back 50

T

Front 51

T/F: When the diaphragm contracts, it creates a vacuum inside the chest cavity that pushes the air out of the lungs.

Back 51

F

Front 52

Homeostasis within the human body means what?
a. keeping the body upright
b. the process of sending signals along a nerve
c. maintaining conditions of the body within a range favorable for life
d. all of the above

Back 52

C

Front 53

Place the following steps involved in the propagation of an action potention in the correct order
1. release of a neurotransmitter
2. signals transmitted to the dendrites cause positive ions to enter the cell
3. voltage gated Na+ channels open in a wave moving from the cell body out along the axon
a. 2, 3, 1
b. 3, 2, 1
c. 3, 1, 2
d. 1, 3, 2
e. 2, 1, 3

Back 53

A

Front 54

The signals which are transmitted along nerve axons are sent as
a. phosphorylated sugars
c. fluid flows
b. electrical pulses
d. RNA

Back 54

B

Front 55

Which part of the brain in responsible for making hormones which regulate the endocrine system?
a. Cerebellum
b. Thalamus
c. Pituitary gland
d. Occipital lobe

Back 55

C

Front 56

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
a. correcting changes in body temperature
c. absorbing fats
b. returning water and proteins to the general circulation
d. fighting infections

Back 56

A

Front 57

Bile
a. has no effect on digestion.
d. helps in the digestion of proteins.
b. helps in the digestion of fats. e. helps in the digestion of carbohydrates.
c. helps in the digestion of both proteins and carbohydrates.

Back 57

B

Front 58

Which of the following organs filters the blood returning from the digestive tract?
a. stomach
b. liver
c. colon
d. pancreas
e. salivary
gland

Back 58

B

Front 59

Which of the following is a function of the pancreas?
a. regulation of blood sugar levels d. digestion of fats.
b. releasing excess water e. reabsorption of water used during
digestion
c. absorption of amino acids, sugars and
nucleotides

Back 59

A

Front 60

The salivary glands release the enzyme amylase which breaks down starch producing _________ in the
process.
a. amino acids
d. fatty acids
b. glucose
e. DNA
c. proteins

Back 60

B

Front 61

Two of the key waste products that the kidneys remove are urea and uric acid from the break down of
a. nucleotides
b. proteins.
c. lipids.
d. minerals.
e. both a and b.

Back 61

E

Front 62

The first step in the filtration by the kidneys involves the filtration of blood through "leaky" capillaries and
the water, toxins, nutrients and ions removed collect first in the ________________.
a. loop of Henle.
c. distal tubule.
e. Bowman's capsule.
b. ureter
d. collecting duct

Back 62

E

Front 63

Which of the following substances is NOT filtered from the bloodstream in this initial filtration step?
a. water
b. proteins
c. urea
d. glucose
e. sodium

Back 63

B

Front 64

When one of the products of a biochemical pathway shuts the pathway off by inhibiting one of the early
enzymes in the pathway.
a. Allosteric inhibitors
c. Competitive Inhibitors
b. Allosteric activators
d. Feed-back inhibition

Back 64

D

Front 65

By burning gasoline in our cars, we turn ________ into _______ as the motor causes the car to move down
the road.
a. potential energy; chemical energy
d. entropy, kinetic energy
b. chemical energy, potential energy
e. potential energy, electromagnetic energy
c. chemical energy, kinetic energy

Back 65

C

Front 66

In the large intestines, Na+ pumps move Na+ out of the inside of the colon to the outside making the outside a
___1_____ environment and ___2____ causes the water to move out of the colon.
a. 1 Hypertonic; 2 Osmosis
c. 1 Isotonic; Endocytosis
b. 1 Hypotonic; 2 Exocytosis
d. 1 Hypotonic, 2 Osmosis

Back 66

A

Front 67

Humans break-down all of the following for producing ATP energy EXCEPT:
a. Nucleotides
c. Protein
e. Glucose
b. Carbohydrates
d. Fats

Back 67

A

Front 68

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Fermentation?
a. Less ATP and NADH is produced than with aerobic respiration
b. The final step can generate Lactic acid
c. It is not a pathway our body uses
d. The final step can generate Ethanol

Back 68

C

Front 69

The White Blood Cells are involved with ______.
a. producing antibodies
c. blood clotting
e. carrying CO2
b. carrying O2
d. gas exchange

Back 69

A

Front 70

Blood is carried from the _______ ventricle to the _________ in route to the lungs.
a. left; pneumonary artery
d. inferior; respiratory trunk
b. right ; pulmonary truck
e. hepatic portal; vena cava
c. descending; aorta

Back 70

B

Front 71

Once loaded with oxygen, blood enters the ______ atrium and ventricle before leaving through the _____.
a. right, carotid artery
c. left, subclavian artery
e. left, aorta
b. returning, cardiac shunt
d. anterior, jugular vein

Back 71

E

Front 72

If a person holds their breath too long or if the heart stops beating, a person will experience unconsciousness
and ultimately death, if not corrected soon enough. Why? What is happening or not happening within the cells
of the brain?
a. CO2 levels rise within the brain and inhibit the breakdown of glucose
b. O2 levels drop and the Electron transport system can't function
c. amino acid supplies run out
d. urea builds up
e. both a and b

Back 72

E

Front 73

All of the following are structures of the respiratory system, but in which does gas exchange take place?
a. trachea
d. alveoli
b. larynx
e. bronchi
c. pharynx

Back 73

D

Front 74

Match the organ systems with the statements below:
a. Urinary System
d. Digestive System
b. Respiratory System
e. Nervous System
c. Circulatory System

uses acid and several enzymes to convert large polymers to monomers

Back 74

D

Front 75

Match the organ systems with the statements below:
a. Urinary System
d. Digestive System
b. Respiratory System
e. Nervous System
c. Circulatory System

system that absorbs oxygen and removes carbon dioxide

Back 75

B

Front 76

Match the organ systems with the statements below:
a. Urinary System
d. Digestive System
b. Respiratory System
e. Nervous System
c. Circulatory System

carries glucose, amino acids and vitamins to the varioius parts of the body

Back 76

C

Front 77

Match the organ systems with the statements below:
a. Urinary System
d. Digestive System
b. Respiratory System
e. Nervous System
c. Circulatory System

filters and removes toxins such as drugs

Back 77

A

Front 78

Match the organ systems with the statements below:
a. Urinary System
d. Digestive System
b. Respiratory System
e. Nervous System
c. Circulatory System

regulates all the other systems either directly or indirectly

Back 78

E

Front 79

Match the following parts of the nervous system with the statements below.
a. occipital lobe
d. midbrain
b. cerebellum
e. myelin sheaths
c. frontal lobe

controls musclular coordination

Back 79

B

Front 80

Match the following parts of the nervous system with the statements below.
a. occipital lobe
d. midbrain
b. cerebellum
e. myelin sheaths
c. frontal lobe

insulating barrier that prevents the loss of nerve signals

Back 80

E

Front 81

Match the following parts of the nervous system with the statements below.
a. occipital lobe
d. midbrain
b. cerebellum
e. myelin sheaths
c. frontal lobe

receives visual information

Back 81

A

Front 82

Match the following parts of the nervous system with the statements below.
a. occipital lobe
d. midbrain
b. cerebellum
e. myelin sheaths
c. frontal lobe

stores memories used for right and wrong judgements

Back 82

C

Front 83

Match the following organs/structures with each of the statements below
a. pancreas
d. colon
b. small intestine
e. stomach
c. liver

contains villi and microvilli

Back 83

B

Front 84

Match the following organs/structures with each of the statements below
a. pancreas
d. colon
b. small intestine
e. stomach
c. liver

where protein break down begins

Back 84

E

Front 85

Match the following organs/structures with each of the statements below
a. pancreas
d. colon
b. small intestine
e. stomach
c. liver

makes several enzymes for breaking down proteins, DNA & RNA

Back 85

A

Front 86

Match the following organs/structures with each of the statements below
a. pancreas
d. colon
b. small intestine
e. stomach
c. liver

pumps Na+ ions out in order to reabsorb water from digestion

Back 86

D

Front 87

Match the following organs/structures with each of the statements below
a. pancreas
d. colon
b. small intestine
e. stomach
c. liver

where most nutrients are absorbed

Back 87

B

Front 88

Match the following organs/structures with each of the statements below
a. pancreas
d. colon
b. small intestine
e. stomach
c. liver

one of the storage tissues for glycogen

Back 88

C

Front 89

Match the following metabolic pathways with the correct statement below.
a. Glycolysis
d. Electron Transport Phosphorylation
b. Kreb's Cycle
e. Lactate Fermentation
c. Alcohol Fermentation

releases the two carbons from acetyl-CoA as CO2 and stores high energy electrons for later steps

Back 89

B

Front 90

Match the following metabolic pathways with the correct statement below.
a. Glycolysis
d. Electron Transport Phosphorylation
b. Kreb's Cycle
e. Lactate Fermentation
c. Alcohol Fermentation

splits the 6 carbon glucose into two 3 carbon pyruvates

Back 90

A

Front 91

Match the following metabolic pathways with the correct statement below.
a. Glycolysis
d. Electron Transport Phosphorylation
b. Kreb's Cycle
e. Lactate Fermentation
c. Alcohol Fermentation

pathway used by certain bacteria in making cheese and our muscles when oxygen is not available

Back 91

E

Front 92

Match the following metabolic pathways with the correct statement below.
a. Glycolysis
d. Electron Transport Phosphorylation
b. Kreb's Cycle
e. Lactate Fermentation
c. Alcohol Fermentation

produces a H+ gradient in order to generate ATP

Back 92

D

Front 93

Match the following metabolic pathways with the correct statement below.
a. Glycolysis
d. Electron Transport Phosphorylation
b. Kreb's Cycle
e. Lactate Fermentation
c. Alcohol Fermentation

begins by using up some ATP energy

Back 93

A

Front 94

Match the following metabolic pathways with the correct statement below.
a. Glycolysis
d. Electron Transport Phosphorylation
b. Kreb's Cycle
e. Lactate Fermentation
c. Alcohol Fermentation

pathway used by yeast that causes dough to rise

Back 94

C

Front 95

What is the best advice I've ever given you?

Back 95

Don't be an idiot, changed my life.

Front 96

T/F: If a woman with normal vision marries a man with color-blindness and some of their daughters have
color-blindness, then the woman must be a carrier (she is heterozygous for the color-blind gene).

Back 96

T

Front 97

T/F:
The X chromosome contains only genes for “femaleness” and the Y chromosome contains genes for
“maleness”.

Back 97

F

Front 98

T/F:
In humans, the presence of the SRY gene results in FEMALE development.

Back 98

F

Front 99

T/F:Cross-over is a process that occurs at the beginning of meiosis.

Back 99

T

Front 100

T/F:DNA contains the genetic information coded by the 20 different amino acids.

Back 100

F

Front 101

Which of the following hormones is unique to females?
a. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
b. testosterone
c. progesterone
d. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and progesterone
e. lutenizing hormone (LH)

Back 101

C

Front 102

Which of the following results in the beginning of a woman’s monthly “period” and the loss of the uterine
lining?
a. a surge in luteinizing hormone
b. decreased serotonin levels
c. the break-down of the corpus luteum after 12 days
d. a rise in the level of progesterone
e. a drop in testosterone levels

Back 102

C

Front 103

Which of the following is NOT true of the processes of sperm production?
a. occurs in the testis only
b. is stimulated by progesterone
c. is stimulated by testosterone
d. uses meiosis to make 4 haploid sperm
e. mature sperm consist of head, midpiece and flagellum

Back 103

B

Front 104

If the vas deferens tubes are cut and tied (vasectomy), what component of the ejaculate will be absent?
a. fructose
b. buffers
c. lubricant
d. sperm

Back 104

D

Front 105

DNA replication occurs
a. during the S phase of interphase.
d. during prophase of meiosis.
b. immediately before metaphase of mitosis.
e. at any time during cell division.
c. during prophase of mitosis.

Back 105

A

Front 106

In mitosis, if a parent cell has 32 chromosomes, each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
a. 64
b. 32
c. 16
d. 8
e. 4

Back 106

B

Front 107

If a parent cell has 64 chromosomes and undergoes meiosis, the resulting cells will have how many
chromosomes?
a. 64
b. 32
c. 16
d. 8
e. 4

Back 107

B

Front 108

Which of the following is NOT true regarding meiosis?
a. crossover occurs during the early stages
b. the number of chromosomes is reduced by half
c. homologous chromosomes are separated
d. produces 4 diploid nuclei
e. involves two consecutive cell divisions

Back 108

D

Front 109

Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis?
a. anaphase, metaphase, interphase, telophase
b. metaphase, telophase, prophase, interphase
c. telophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase
d. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
e. outaphase, inaphase, justaphase, go-n-thruaphase

Back 109

D

Front 110

Meiosis typically results in the production of
a. 2 diploid cells.
c. 4 haploid cells.
e. 1 triploid cell.
b. 4 diploid cells.
d. 2 haploid cells.

Back 110

C

Front 111

Asexually produced Aphids are (give the most complete answer)
a. identical to each other.
c. different from the mother
e. both a and b
b. identical to the mother
d. different from each other.

Back 111

E

Front 112

Which of the following is TRUE regarding sexual reproduction?
a. leads to uniform characteristics in a population
b. results in new combinations of genetic traits
c. produces genetic clones
d. requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction
e. should never be attempted by LU students

Back 112

B

Front 113

In roses, red is dominant (R) and white is recessive (r). If you cross pollenated a white rose with pollen from a
“true breeding” red rose, how many white roses would you get from this cross?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. none

Back 113

E

Front 114

If the alleles L, M, and N are on the maternal chromosome and l, m, and n are on the paternal chromosome,
the only way that an organism with these two chromosomes can produce a gamete with alleles l, m, and N is
through
a. nondisjunction.
c. transcription
e. none of the above
b. the laws of segregation.
d. crossing over.

Back 114

D

Front 115

If two sisters have brown hair, but one is Bb and the other is BB they have different
a. parents
b. genotypes
c. phenotypes
d. parents
e. grandparents

Back 115

B

Front 116

Which of the following designates a normal human male?
a. YY
b. XX
c. XY
d. XO
e. XYY

Back 116

C

Front 117

Which of the following designates a normal human female?
a. XXY
b. XY
c. XX
d. XYY
e. XO

Back 117

C

Front 118

If buff is dominant (B) to the wimp allele (b) and this is on the Y chromosome, and a wimp man marries a
woman whose father was buff, how many of their sons with be buff?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. none

Back 118

E

Front 119

If a normal, healthy woman whose father had Muscular Dystrophy (which is a recessive trait on the X
chromosome) marries a man who also has MD, what proportion of the their children will have MD?
a. all of the girls
b. all of the boys
c. %50 of boys and girls
d. all will have MD
e. none will have MD

Back 119

C

Front 120

The RNA molecule is made up of how many strands?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
e. 12

Back 120

A

Front 121

Which of the following is NOT true about DNA Replication?
a. 6 different nucleotides are used
b. the complete DNA is made of 2 strands of nucleotides
c. the two original strand are separated and two copies are made on each of the old strands
d. DNA polymerase is the enzyme which makes the DNA strands
e. Nucleotides are deoxyribonucleotides

Back 121

A

Front 122

What is a “Gene”
a. special groups of proteins
d. currently not known
b. RNA sequences
c. DNA with protein coding sequences
e. none of the above

Back 122

C

Front 123

The synthesis of an RNA molecule from a DNA template strand is called
a. replication.
c. transcription.
e. metabolism.
b. translation.
d. DNA synthesis.

Back 123

C

Front 124

What is it that allows the nucleotide sequence of a gene to be converted into the correct peptide sequence to
make the protein?
a. rRNA's in the Ribosome "read" the sequence and pick the correct amino acid
b. each amino acids recognizes the correct three nucleotide codon
c. mRNA's bind to the amino acid and deliver it to the large ribosomeal subunit
d. the tRNA acts as an adaptor to match the codon to the correct amino acid
e. none of the above

Back 124

D

Front 125

What is it that allows DNA to be duplicated and also allows regions to be copied as RNA?
a. tRNA’s recognize the DNA sequences and add the correct nucleotide
b. DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotides together
c. the DNA polymerase recognizes each nucleotide in the template and picks the correct
nucleotide for the copy
d. “base-pairing” between the A & T and G & C nucletides results in the correct nucleotide
at each position

Back 125

D

Front 126

DNA and RNA polymers are both composed of nucleotides and are assembled __________.
a. inward and outwards
d. forwards and backwards
b. 5’ to 3’
e. all of the above
c. N-terminal to C-terminal

Back 126

B

Front 127

Each "word" or codon in the mRNA language consists of how many nucleotides?
a. three
c. five .
e. none of these
b. four
d. more than five

Back 127

A

Front 128

Which of the following is correct about the Ribosome?
a. made of rRNA
d. makes RNA
b. made of protein
e. both a and b
c. makes DNA

Back 128

E

Front 129

PCR or Polymerase Chain Reaction is a technique which
a. can multiply a single piece of DNA millions of times
b. uses a special heat stable DNA polymerase
c. reproduce proteins
d. was used to produce Dolly the cloned sheep
e. both a and b

Back 129

E

Front 130

Which of these techniques is used to determine the order of the nucleotides in a DNA?
a. restriction digest
d. DNA sequencing
b. gel electrophoresis
e. fluorescence microscopy
c. ultracentrifugation

Back 130

D

Front 131

Enzymes used to cut DNA molecules in recombinant DNA research are
a. ligases
c. transcriptases
e. replicases
b. restriction enzymes
d. DNA polymerases

Back 131

B

Front 132

Matching. Match the following statements with the correct words below (each is used once)
a. prophase
b. telophase
c. anaphase
d. metaphase
e. cytokinesis

final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclear membranes re-form

Back 132

B

Front 133

Matching. Match the following statements with the correct words below (each is used once)
a. prophase
b. telophase
c. anaphase
d. metaphase
e. cytokinesis

chromosomes line up at middle of the cell

Back 133

D

Front 134

Matching. Match the following statements with the correct words below (each is used once)
a. prophase
b. telophase
c. anaphase
d. metaphase
e. cytokinesis

sister chromatids have separated and moved to opposite poles

Back 134

C

Front 135

Matching. Match the following statements with the correct words below (each is used once)
a. prophase
b. telophase
c. anaphase
d. metaphase
e. cytokinesis

constriction of the cell membrane separates two new cells

Back 135

E

Front 136

Match the following the statements below
a. The Law of Segregation
d. genotype
b. The Law of Independent Assortment
e. phenotype
c. allele

what genes you have--Bb or BB for example

Back 136

D

Front 137

Match the following the statements below
a. The Law of Segregation
d. genotype
b. The Law of Independent Assortment
e. phenotype
c. allele

one genetic trait does not determine the inheritance of other traits--being blond doesn’t make you blue eyed

Back 137

B

Front 138

Match the following the statements below
a. The Law of Segregation
d. genotype
b. The Law of Independent Assortment
e. phenotype
c. allele

your outward appearance that results from the genetic traits you have

Back 138

E

Front 139

Match the following the statements below
a. The Law of Segregation
d. genotype
b. The Law of Independent Assortment
e. phenotype
c. allele

different versions of a gene

Back 139

C

Front 140

T/F: With land based food webs, the first level of the food chain is usually the plants who provide food for the rest
of the levels.

Back 140

T

Front 141

T/F: Mutations destroy the original genetic information and does not produce better, faster, smarter species.

Back 141

T

Front 142

T/F: The Light Independent Reactions do not require light and occur even when sunlight is not available.

Back 142

F

Front 143

T/F: CO2 is not used for Photosynthesis (neither the Light Dependent nor Light Independent Rxns).

Back 143

F

Front 144

T/F: Exponential growth occurs when all resources are present in vast excess.

Back 144

T

Front 145

T/F: Atheism is one of the philosophical assumptions of Darwinian Evolution which determine how the scientific
data is viewed.

Back 145

T

Front 146

T/F: Glucose is one of the products of the Light Dependent Reactions.

Back 146

F

Front 147

T/F: Research has shown that bird songs are the result of both genetic pre-programming as well as information
picked up from other birds.

Back 147

T

Front 148

During the Calvin-Benson Cycle, 6 ________ are used to make one molecule of ________.
a. CO2; glucose
c. PGA; PDQ
e. NADH; Acetyl-CoA
b. NO2; fructose d. ATP; RuBP

Back 148

a. CO2; glucose

Front 149

The ability of a plant to orient its growth relative to a light source is called____1_____ and is due to
_____2_______.

a. phototropism; auxin production of the shaded side
b. thigmotropism; gibberellins are released on the side facing the light
c. hypotropism; the cells divide faster on the side away from the sun
d. gravitropism; small membrane bound organelles that settle to the bottom of cells

Back 149

a. phototropism; auxin production of the shaded side

Front 150

For most ecosystems, the energy which drives the production of food for the ecosystem comes
from_________.
a. nutrients in the soil
b. sunlight.
c. water
d. carbon dioxide.

Back 150

B

Front 151

A community differs from an ecosystem in that a community does NOT include
a. unicellular organisms
b. unicelluar organisms and abiotic (nonliving) factors
c. decomposers
d. unicellular organisms and decomposers
e. none living factors--temperature, lakes, rain fall, land

Back 151

E

Front 152

A network of interactions that involve the cycling of materials and the flow of energy between a community
and its physical environment is which of the following?
a. ecosystem
b. community
c. population
d. biosphere
e. species

Back 152

A

Front 153

Bees and Flowers have a type of symbiotic relationship called ________.
a. mutualism
c. parasitism
e. randomistic
b. commensalism
d. predatory/prey

Back 153

A

Front 154

Which of the following uses other living things for food?
a. carnivores
b. herbivores
c. autotrophs
d. detritivores
e. decomposers

Back 154

A

Front 155

Population size depends upon
a. deaths.
b. births.
c. emigration.
d. immigration.
e. all of these

Back 155

E

Front 156

All of the following limits population growth and become more severe as a population increases in size
EXCEPT which one?
a. predation
b. climate
c. competition
d. wastes

Back 156

B

Front 157

Bacteria and fungi play a key role in helping to break down dead plants and animals and return important
nutrients to the soil. In which of the following nutrient cycles is this NOT the case?
a. Phosphorus Cycle .
c. Carbon Cycle
e. both a and b
b. Nitrogen Cycle d. Hydrologic Cycle

Back 157

D

Front 158

Which of the following reflects a Biblical view point on our role as human beings in relation to the earth,
animals and the environment?
a. God provided plants and animals as a means of taking care of man's physical needs
b. God expects us to take care of the plants and animals and use natural resources wisely
c. God gave us the earth to use as we see fit
d. The Bible doesn't speak to the issue, we have to use our own judgement
e. both a and b

Back 158

E

Front 159

Where a species fits into the ecosystem--what resources are utilized; what services it performs and
interactions it has with other species--that allows it to survive and reproduce?
a. habitat
b. niche
c. hole
d. ecosystem
e. community

Back 159

B

Front 160

Limiting factors
a. are resources which are
not in excess.
c. resist the growth of
populations in a habitat
e. none of the above
b. determine the carrying
capacity of the habitat

Back 160

D

Front 161

Which is a herbivore?
a. tick
b. coyote
c. cactus
d. rabbit
e. snake

Back 161

D

Front 162

Regarding the origin of animal behaviors, behaviors can be either pre-programmed by genes, or __________,
or they can be picked up from others, or __________.
a. subjective and reflexive
c. instinctive; learned
e. none of these
b. fixed and variable
d. genetic and eugenic

Back 162

C

Front 163

Female peacocks choose their mates based in part on the size and bright coloration of the males tail feathers.
This is an example of what kind of Natural Selection?
a. Directional
b. Stabilizing
c. Sexual
d. Disruptive
e. none of

Back 163

C

Front 164

What is "Gene Flow"?
a. the loss of alleles as some individuals leave the group
b. addition of alleles as new individuals join the group
c. a type natural selection that occurs in ocean ecosystems
d. changes in the allele frequency due to chance occurances
e. both a and b

Back 164

E

Front 165

In most cases, mutations contribute to the process of Microevolution by
a. creating new alleles by
changing existing genes
c. creating new genes with
improved functions
e. both a and b
b. destroying old alleles d. improving existing genes

Back 165

E

Front 166

Natural selection which is "Directional"...
a. causes improvements in alleles d. selects against intermediate traits
b. selects against one particular trait e. none of the above
c. selects against two extremes of a trait

Back 166

B

Front 167

According to Darwinian Evolutionary ideas, the many layers of stratified rock suggest the earth is millions of
years old because
a. cosmic dust from space takes a long time to accumulate
b. the rates of sedimentation are very slow and therefore it must have taken a long time
c. radioactive decay is constant
d. sediments always fall downward
e. mountains don't form sediments

Back 167

B

Front 168

All of the of the following are used as evidence in SUPPORT of Darwinian Evolution EXCEPT which one?
a. radiometric dating methods that indicate the lower strata are millions of years old
b. the rate of increase in the saltiness of the oceans
c. similar morphological features between species
d. vertebrate embryos look similar to each other at early stages
e. the progression of fossils from simple to complex forms

Back 168

B

Front 169

Darwinian evolution asserts that, although beneficial mutations are extremely rare, they still occur and lead to
more and more advanced organisms. Why is this not possible.
a. the universe is not old enough
b. natural selection doesn't work
c. God said things don’t change and we just have to trust Him
d. harmful mutations would cancel out any benefit from "good" mutations

Back 169

D

Front 170

According to current Evolutionary thought, the first genetic material to evolve was made of
a. proteinoids
b. fatty acids
c. DNA
d. RNA
e. none of the
above

Back 170

D

Front 171

One problem with the idea that the fossil record shows gradual evolution from simple to complex is_______.
a. Haeckle faked his fossils
b. archeoptrix can’t fly
c. there are no fossils, evolutionists made them up
d. there are no “intermediate” fossils to connect the different family trees
e. all of the above

Back 171

D

Front 172

Which of the following is NOT a component of the current Evolutionary model (as stated in the the text
book) for the origin of life on earth?
a. Big Bang
c. world-wide flood
b. "primordial soup"
d. biological molecules

Back 172

C

Front 173

Which of the following describe problems with radiometric dating techniques
a. there are several assumptions which must be made to determine dates
b. dating of samples of known ages give incorrect dates
c. C14 dating of diamond and coal samples indicate the earth is young
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

Back 173

D

Front 174

The problem with Haeckel's assertion of "ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny" was that_____.
a. Haeckel falsified his data to make
different species look the same
c. he didn't include enough species
b. he used the wrong samples
d. he misspelled "recapitulates"

Back 174

A

Front 175

Which of the following suggests that fossilization is a rapid process and is actually evidence of the Biblical
flood?
a. mass burials of horses,
bison and elephants
c. the break down of "P"
isotopes
e. all of the above
b. accumulation of moon
dust
d. U238 decay rates

Back 175

A

Front 176

Match the following three terms with the statements below (some choices may be used more than once)
a. Microevolution c. Macroevolution
b. Speciation d. Species


wild species of cats being breed to produce the various house cats

Back 176

B

Front 177

Match the following three terms with the statements below (some choices may be used more than once)
a. Microevolution c. Macroevolution
b. Speciation d. Species

amoeba --> frog --> dog --> monkey --> college student

Back 177

C

Front 178

Match the following three terms with the statements below (some choices may be used more than once)
a. Microevolution c. Macroevolution
b. Speciation d. Species

group(s) of naturally interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other groups

Back 178

D

Front 179

Match the following three terms with the statements below (some choices may be used more than once)
a. Microevolution c. Macroevolution
b. Speciation d. Species

the progression from fossils of simple organisms in lower stata and more complex organisms in higher is said
to be evidence of this

Back 179

C