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79 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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Cell Division in unicellular organisms results in ___ individuals |
2 |
each division results in a new organism and the parent organism. |
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Which best describes prokaryotes? a. unicellular bacteria b. prominent nucleus c. many chloroplasts d. all of the above |
a. unicellular organism |
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Chromosomes are composed of? |
DNA and Proteins |
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Prokaryotes primarily reproduce? |
by binary fission |
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If a cell with 46 chromosomes undergoes mitosis, the daughter cells will have ______ chromosomes. |
46 |
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The region where sister chromatids are attached to one another is called the? |
centromere |
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The ___ most likely provide (s) the material for spindle formation? |
Cytoskeleton |
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Which of the following is NOT associated with prophase? a. Fragmentation of nuclear envelope b. Disappearance of the nucleolus c. Separation of the sister chromatids d. Visible chromosomes |
c. separation of the sister chromatids |
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After ___ nuclear division is completed. |
telophase |
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Alignment of the chromosomes at the equator of the spindle is characteristic of? |
metaphase |
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Mistakes in the process of mitosis may result in? a. the duplication of chromosomes in cells b. the partial distribution of chromosomes c. the destruction of surrounding cells d. all of these |
d. all of these |
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The DNA is replicating during the ____ stage of the cell cycle. |
S |
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New methods of cancer treatment prevent ____, which cuts off the supply of nutrients and oxygen to the tumor. |
Angiogenesis |
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A disorganized, generally encapsulated mass that does not invade adjacent tissue is known as a? |
Benign Tumor |
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Interphase consists of the ____ stages of cellular growth and division. |
G1, S and G2 |
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The p53 protein ____. a. inhibits repair enzymes b. stops the cell cycle during repair c. inhibits apoptosis d. all of the above |
b. stops the cell cycle during repair |
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Programmed cell death is known as? |
apoptosis |
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When most cancers occur, the ___ is absent or nonfunctional. |
The p53 gene |
Cancers prevent the tumor suppressor genes from shutting down the cell cycle
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If the diploid number of an organism is 30, the haploid number of the gametes is? |
15 |
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When mutations occur in proto-oncogenes, they become cancer causing agents called? |
oncogenes |
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Sexual reproduction ___. a. requires haploid gametes b. results in a diploid zygote c. creates offspring that are genetically different from the parents d. all of these |
d. all of these |
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Once duplicated, a chromosome is composed of two identical parts called? |
sister chromatids |
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Sexual reproduction contributes greatly to the process of? |
Evolution |
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The combining of chromosomes from genetically different gametes occurs during? |
fertilization |
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In animals the haploid cells produced by meiosis mature and become? |
gametes |
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A primary spermatocyte with 46 chromosomes will undergo meiosis and yield? |
four spermatids with 46 chromosomes |
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In females, meiosis is a part of ___, which occurs in the ovaries and produces eggs. |
oogenesis |
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When a primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis I, two ____ secondary spermatocytes are produced. |
haploid |
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Mitosis occurs in humans during ___. a. development of the zygote b. growth of a child c. repair of tissue at any time d. all of these |
d. all of these |
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Which phase is characterized by the haploid number of duplicated chromosomes at the metaphase plate? |
Meiosis II Metaphase II |
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Which of the following results in diploid daughter cells? |
mitosis |
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Which is true of both meiosis II and mitosis? a. pairing of chromosomes b. Diploid number of chromosomes at the metaphase plate c. separation of sister chromatids d. four daughter cells |
c. separation of sister chromatids |
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Which is the characteristic of meiosis I? a. pairing of chromosomes b. separation of sister chromatids c. diploid daughter cells d. all of these |
a. pairing of chromosomes |
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At the end of telophase II and cytokinesis there are ____ haploid cells. |
four |
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The homologues of each bivalent separate and move to opposite poles during? |
anaphase I |
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Crossing over between nonsister chromatids occurs during? |
prophase I |
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Turner's syndrome is? |
produced by nondisjunction of an X chromosome |
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Down Syndrome is an example of? |
trisomy |
happens during meiosis
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At the completion of meiosis II, there are ______ daughter cells. |
four haploid |
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The diploid number of chromosomes is restored after _____ so that an animal's body cells contain the diploid number of chromosomes. |
fertilization |
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When an organism has two different alleles at a gene locus, it is referred to as? |
Heterozygous |
Rr (hybrid)
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Which of the following was discovered by Mendel? a. linkage b. the relationship of genetic behavior to laws of probability c. the location of genes on chromosomes d. the role of chromosomes in sex determination |
b. the relationship of genetic behavior to the laws of probability |
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An organism's actual gene makeup, often designated by letters like Aa or BB is the? |
genotype |
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Which of the following is a phenotype? a. Tt b. Heterozygous c. Short d. T |
c. short |
phenotypes are observable traits
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Each gamete has only one allele for each trait because gametes are always? |
haploid |
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Which of the following represents a heterozygous genotype? a. TT b. Tt c. tt d. tall |
b. Tt |
Genotypes are listing of alleles (basically the letters)
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Which of the following does NOT describe multifactorial traits? a. controlled by polygenes b. may be influenced by genes on many different chromosomes c. Traits that have had nothing to do with gender but are found on the X chromosome d. Influence by the environment |
c. Traits that have nothing to do with gender but are found on the X chromosome |
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Individuals producing an abnormal form of the extracellular matrix protein, fibrillin, is a result of? |
pleiotrophy |
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A person's ABO blood type is controlled by ___ alleles? |
three |
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If a man who has red-green color blindness has children with a woman who is neither color blind nor a carrier, what are the odds that their sons may be color blind? |
0% |
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The appearance of both A and B antigens on the red blood cells of the people with AB blood type is an example of? |
codominance |
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If the allele for red petals is incompletely dominant to the allele for white petals, when a true-breeding plant with red petals is crossed with a true breeding plant with white petals, the offspring will? |
all have pink petals |
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If a man with blood type A has a child with blood type O, the father's genotype must be? |
I^A i |
I with an exponent a and a little i |
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Which of the following statements about autosomal recessive disorders is NOT true? a. heterozygotes may have offspring with normal phenotypes b. If bother parents are affected, their children will always have the trait c. affected individuals with homozygous dominant mates have unaffected children d. Two carries cannot have an affected child |
D. Two carriers cannot have an affected child |
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Which of the following statements about X-linked recessive disorders are NOT true? a. most affected children do not have affected parents b. heterozygotes have a normal phenotype c. two affected parents will always have affected offspring d. males are not affected more often than females |
c. two affected parents will always have affected offspring |
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When Mendel crossed a true-breeding tall plant (T) with a true-breeding short plant (t) the offspring were? |
100% tall |
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If an individual with the dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with the recessive phenotype and all the offspring have the dominant phenotype, on would conclude that the individual with the dominant phenotype has a ________ genotype. |
homozygous dominant |
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E= unattached earlobes. e= attached earlobes. In the cross of Ee and Ee, the chance of a child with unattached earlobes is? |
3/4 |
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A child with the blood type of A may have parents with all the following genotypes except? a. A and B b. AB and A c. O and A d. O and O |
d. O and O |
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If parents are heterozygous for cystic fibrosis (Ff x Ff), then each offspring has a _____ chance of having cystic fibrosis. |
25% |
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Cell division takes place during? |
Both Mitosis and Cytokinesis |
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What are the four stages of the cell cycle? |
PPMAT G1 S G2 |
At each stage, there is a stop and go function which determines whether or not the cell should or can continue |
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What are the stop and go features? |
Stop: Tumor Suppressor - releases p53 (protein) Go: Proto-oncogene |
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Cytokinesis starts? |
During anaphase and continues through telophase. |
Starts during the nuclear division phase (anaphase) Cytokinesis is cell movement through the division of cytoplasm Forms two daughter cells |
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Chromosomes |
Contain DNA Are wrapped around protein (histones) Can be stained with dye |
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Mitosis leads to the production of ____. |
Somatic cells |
Somatic cells are all other cells the cells are copied then divided equally (replication) |
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Define Cell Division |
The splitting of pre-existing cells. |
There is two ways the nuclei divides before cell division: meiosis and mitosis. |
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Meiosis leads to the production of? |
Sperm and Egg cells |
Results in daughter cells that are genetically different |
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Cell replication is responsible for three key events |
Growth Wound Repair Reproduction |
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Chromatids |
Each of the DNA copies in a replicated chromosome |
Even though a replicated chromosome consists of two chromatids, it is still a single chromosome. |
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M phase |
mitotic phase or meiotic phase |
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Interphase |
between phases |
the cell is either growing or preparing to divide Most of the cells time is spent in this phase. Chromatin (DNA-Protein) are relaxed and uncondenced during this phase |
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S phase |
part of interphase |
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Gap 1 & 2 Phase |
Where the DNA was not being copied |
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Phases of Mitosis |
Interphase Prophase Prometaphase Metaphase Anaphase Telophase |
Prophase: Chromosomes condense Prometaphase: Nuclear envelope breaks down Metaphase: Complete migration to the middle of the cell Anaphase: Sister chromatids are separated to form daughter chromosomes and are pulled to opposite poles Telophase: Nuclear envelope reforms |
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Phases of Meiosis |
Interphase Early Prophase I Late Prophase I Metaphase I Anaphase I Telophase I and Cytokinesis Prophase II Metaphase II Anaphase II Telophase II and Cytokinesis II |
Interphase Early Prophase I Late Prophase I Metaphase I Anaphase I Telophase I and Cytokinesis: Chromosomes move to opposite poles Prophase II: Spindle apparatus moves Metaphase II: Chromosomes line up in middle Anaphase II: sister chromatids separate Telophase II and Cytokinesis II: Opposite poles |
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Gametes |
reproductive cells such as sperm and eggs |
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Homozygous Dominant Homozygous Recessive |
Dominant: having two dominant alleles Recessive: having two recessive alleles |
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ABO blood type is |
a polymorphic trait |
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