• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/366

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

366 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Acid rain can cause reductions in biodiversity as a result of:
A. direct toxicity B. increased buffering capacity C. depletion of food supply D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
2. Acid precipitation:
A. is always limited to an area within a mile or so of the source of emissions B. is generally limited to an area
within a few (3-5) miles of the source of emissions C. is generally limited to an area within several (6-15) miles
from the source of emissions D. may occur hundreds of miles from the source of emissions E. affects the whole
globe uniformly.
D. may occur hundreds of miles from the source of emissions E. affects the whole
globe uniformly.
3. The pH of natural rainfall is ______, and the pH of acid rain is ______.
A. 6.8 / > 9.0 B. 5.6 / < 5.5 C. 6.8 / < 1.5 D. 5.6 / < 1.5 E. 5.5; > 7.0.
B. 5.6 / < 5.5
4. Most fish eggs cannot hatch below pH 5.
true
5. Acid precipitation is likely to have the greatest economic impact on humans through:
A. adverse health effects caused by direct contact B. adverse health effects caused by mobilization of toxic
elements C. dieoffs of forests and aquatic ecosystems D. dieoffs of agricultural crops E. deterioration of
building materials
E. deterioration of
building materials
6. Adverse effects of air pollution and/or acid rain on the environment are currently being documented in such
findings as:
A. decline of fish populations in increasing numbers of lakes and rivers B. loss of buffering capacity for some
aquatic ecosystems C. decline of growth rate of forests D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
7. Which organism is the most tolerant of low pH?
A. bass B. frogs C. clams D. snails E. mayfly
B. frogs
Acid rain can weaken trees by:
A. damaging their leaves B. limiting the nutrients available to them C. exposing them to toxic substances slowly
released from the soil D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
9. Which of the following are major sources of acid deposition?
A. carbon monoxide and sulfur dioxide B. volatile organic compounds and nitrogen oxides C. lead and radon D.
sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides E. carbon monoxide and radon
D.
sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
10. Acid fog can leach away nutrients from leaves.
true
11. Forest trees are more susceptible to acid deposition than crop plants because:
A. forest trees tend to be found at higher elevations B. forest trees do not receive additional fertilizer C. forest
trees tend to grow in poorer soils D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
12. Biological effects of acid deposition include:
A. acid stress on adult fish B. increased aluminum toxicity C. acid stress on juvenile fish D. all of these E. A
and C.
D. all of these
13. As a result of burning fossil fuels, sulfur dioxide may be produced because of impurities in the fuel.
true
14. The most significant source of sulfur dioxide emissions into the atmosphere has been found to be:
A. coal-burning power plants B. nuclear power plants C. cars D. sewage treatment plants E. refuse dumps.
C. cars
The processes associated with acid rain or acid rain deposition include all of the following except:
A. emission of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere via factory and automobile exhausts B.
oxidation and complex reactions involving sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere C. a rise in pH
levels in lakes and streams D. "dry" deposition of sulfur dioxide or nitrogen oxides on vegetation, soil, etc. can
later react with moisture to produce acid E. chemical reaction with limestone that damages buildings and
monuments.
C. a rise in pH
levels in lakes and streams
Normal precipitation is slightly acidic because ________ is dissolved in it.
A. carbon dioxide B. radon C. VOCs D. carbon monoxide E. oxygen
A. carbon dioxide
Which rock type is most effective at buffering acid precipitation?
A. granite B. limestone C. sandstone D. clay-rich rocks E. loam
B. limestone
Two lakes are close to each other and receive roughly the same acidic precipitation. One lake has turned acidic in
recent years while the other lake is still neutral. This can best be explained by:
A. acidification due to an acidic spring feeding one but not the other B. acidification due to midnight dumping C.
difference in buffering capacity of the two lakes D. wind patterns moving over hills and mountains E. none of the
above
C.
difference in buffering capacity of the two lakes
Which of the following would tend to buffer (reduce) the effects of acid rain?
A. granite underlying a lake B. thin soils C. calcium-carbonate-rich soils D. all of these E. A and C.
C. calcium-carbonate-rich soils
1. PANs are thought to contribute much of the eye-stinging effect of urban smog.
true
2. Fluids such as gasoline, paint solvents, and organic cleaning solutions release:
A. volatile organic compounds B. sulfur oxides C. suspended particulate matter D. nitrogen oxides E. carbon
monoxide.
A. volatile organic compounds
Which of the following is a source of indoor air pollution?
A. fuel-fired heating systems B. household cleaners C. aerosol sprays D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Smog:
A. is a word derived from "smoke" and "fog" B. that consists of grayish soot, sulfurous compounds, and water
vapor is called industrial smog C. that consists primarily of nitrogen oxides and volatile organic carbon
compounds from motor vehicles is called photochemical smog D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Secondary pollutants differ from primary pollutants in that they are not:
A. as dangerous as primary pollutants B. emitted directly into the air as are primary pollutants C. eliminated
from the atmosphere as easily as are primary pollutants D. as abundant as primary pollutants E. natural
components of the atmosphere.
B. emitted directly into the air as are primary pollutants
Pollutants which bring on life-threatening reactions within a period of hours or days are called:
A. chronic B. acute C. carcinogenic D. teratogenic
B. acute
The most significant source of all the major air pollutants is:
A. combustion of fuels and wastes B. volcanoes C. forest fires D. sewage treatment plants E. respiration
A. combustion of fuels and wastes
Particulate pollutants introduced into the atmosphere may have which of the following effects?
A. block or reflect incoming sunlight, reducing the amount of photosynthesis B. act as condensation nuclei,
decreasing precipitation C. adhere to plant surfaces and prevent adsorption of CO2 and O2 D. all of these E. A
and C
E. A and C
At very low concentrations, ground-level ozone can trigger:
A. aggravated asthma B. increased lung capacity C. increased susceptibility to respiratory illnesses D. all of
these E. A and C.
A. aggravated asthma
10. Chronic oral exposure to asbestos can cause lung cancer.
false
PM2.5 is of concern because they can embed in lung tissue for long periods.
true
Plants are less susceptible to ozone and sulfur dioxide than are humans.
false
Complete combustion (oxidation) of hydrocarbons yields innocuous gaseous products.
true
An aerosol mixture of particulates and sulfur compounds forms a grayish colored substance that is called:
A. photochemical smog B. industrial smog C. brown smog D. urban smog E. inversion smog
B. industrial smog
High concentrations of ozone that exceed health standards are sometimes found in the atmosphere over rural and
wilderness areas.
true
VOCs include:
A. benzenes B. asbestos C. alkanes D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
Standards that are set for air pollutants are open to controversy because:
A. some persons are much more sensitive than others B. it is impossible to assay all the potential synergistic
effects C. it is impossible to assay all the long-term effects D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Pollutants whose impact on human health is to cause a gradual deterioration of several physiological processes are
called:
A. chronic B. acute C. carcinogenic D. teratogenic
A. chronic
In the lower atmosphere, ozone is produced by:
A. photochemical reactions B. emissions from coal plants C. ultraviolet-B radiation D. oxidation of CO2 E.
reduction of natural hydrocarbons.
A. photochemical reactions
Atmospheric inversion conditions over urban areas pose a problem primarily because:
A. the conditions are conducive to photochemical smog B. pollutants are trapped and concentrated C. the
inhabitants can be cut off from oxygen D. many sensitive plants and animals freeze to death E. CFCs are
concentrated and destroy protective ozone.
B. pollutants are trapped and concentrated
Factors that determine the level of local air pollution include:
A. the amount of pollutants entering the air B. the volume of air into which the pollutants are dispersed C. the
mechanisms that remove pollutants from the air D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Factors that determine the level of local air pollution include:
A. the amount of pollutants entering the air B. the volume of air into which the pollutants are dispersed C. the
mechanisms that remove pollutants from the air D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Pollutants capable of causing cancer in animals are called:
A. chronic B. acute C. carcinogenic D. teratogenic
C. carcinogenic
Which of the following are direct products of burning fuels or wastes?
A. volatile organic compounds B. ozone C. particulates D. all of these E. A and C
E. A and C
PM can contain:
A. heavy metals B. ozone C. dust particles D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
At the prevailing atmospheric levels of NO2, health effects are severe.
false
Carbon monoxide (CO) is:
A. a yellow-brown gas that contributes to photochemical smog B. a colorless and odorless gas that binds to
hemoglobin in blood C. a colorless and odorless gas that damages the lungs D. a gas with a "rotten egg" odor that
is highly toxic and corrosive E. a reactive gas produced, in part, by photochemical reaction of sunlight with
various air pollutants.
B. a colorless and odorless gas that binds to
hemoglobin in blood
Ozone and PANs are examples of ________ pollutants.
A. primary B. secondary C. threshold D. tertiary E. oxidative.
B. secondary
All of the following are considered to be common indoor air pollutants EXCEPT:
A. formaldehyde B. radon C. asbestos D. cigarette smoke E. sulfuric acid.
E. sulfuric acid.
A temperature inversion occurs when:
A. cooler air moves in from the north, displacing warmer air B. warmer air moves in from the south, displacing
cooler air C. cooler air lies above warmer air D. warmer air lies above cooler air.
D. warmer air lies above cooler air.
Ozone is of great benefit in the stratosphere but of great harm to humans in the lower troposphere. Which of the
following is NOT an effect on people?
A. strong eye irritant B. aggravates asthma C. reduces the ability of the circulatory system to transport oxygen
D. injury to cells in the respiratory system E. coughing and chest discomfort.
C. reduces the ability of the circulatory system to transport oxygen
In people with heart disease, short-term exposures to particulates have been linked to heart attacks and arrhythmias.
true
Health effects of VOCs include:
A. nerve damage B. bone marrow damage C. cancer D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Photochemical smog is produced when _________ and _________ are acted on by sunlight.
A. nitrogen oxides / volatile organic carbon compounds B. sulfur oxides / carbon dioxide C. airborne
particulates / volatile organic carbon compounds D. ground-level ozone / nitrogen oxides.
A. nitrogen oxides / volatile organic carbon compounds
NO and NO2 suppress plant growth by:
A. supressing photosynthesis B. being converted to NH3 (which is toxic) C. inhibiting lipid biosynthesis D. all
of these E. A and C.
B. being converted to NH3 (which is toxic)
How is photochemical smog produced?
A. depletion of tropospheric ozone + SOx B. petroleum production in urban areas C. incineration of toxic waste
D. solar radiation + NOx + organic compounds E. burning of coal in urban areas + SOx.
D. solar radiation + NOx + organic compounds
It is difficult to pinpoint which specific air pollutant is responsible for which adverse effect because:
A. organisms are exposed to many different pollutants simultaneously B. levels of pollutants in the air are
constantly changing C. there may be synergistic effects D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Chlorofluorocarbons cause destruction of ozone in the stratosphere.
true
Sources of CFC's in the atmosphere include:
A. refrigerants B. electrical component cleaning solvents C. some aerosol can propellants D. all of these E. A
and C.
D. all of these
At this point in time, the most practical way to cope with depletion of the ozone shield is to:
A. produce more ozone at ground level B. terminate production of CFCs by finding substitutes C.
photochemically produce more ozone in the stratosphere D. all of these E. A and C
B. terminate production of CFCs by finding substitutes
Damage to the ecological structure and function of lakes because of deeper penetration of UVB light may be caused
by:
A. ozone depletion. B. acid deposition. C. global warming. D. all of these E. A and C
A. ozone depletion.
Effects of UVB on early developmental stages of fish, shrimp, and crab include:
A. decreased reproductive capacity B. increased cancer incidence C. impaired larval development D. all of
these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
Exposure to UVB radiation is thought to be a leading cause of skin cancer.
true
In phytoplankton, exposure to solar UVB radiation has been shown to affect:
A. orientation mechanisms B. motility C. primary production D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
In plants, exposure to UVB can cause changes in:
A. plant form B. how nutrients are distributed within the plant C. timing of developmental phases D. all of these
E. A and C.
D. all of these
Ozone in the stratosphere:
A. blocks 99 percent of the ultraviolet radiation from entering the troposphere B. is a natural constituent of the
atmosphere C. is destroyed through reactions with chloroflurocarbons D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Ozone in the stratosphere:
A. is a pollutant B. impairs plant and animal metabolic function C. is a carcinogen D. all of the above E. none
of the above
E. none of the above
The so-called "hole" in the ozone layer over the South Pole is really an area where ozone concentrations have
decreased by approximately 50 percent; i.e., it is a "thinning" of the ozone.
true
Thinning of the ozone layer is most evident above:
A. Africa B. North America C. Antarctica D. South America E. none of the above
C. Antarctica
UVB has been demonstrated to cause:
A. nonmelanoma skin cancer B. cataracts C. malignant melanoma D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Which of the following statements are true?
A. CFCs are relatively unreactive compounds. B. Ultraviolet radiation will cause CFCs to break down and release
chlorine. C. One chlorine molecule may convert 100,000 molecules of ozone to molecular oxygen. D. all of these
E. A and C.
D. all of these
Which of the following will probably NOT be a consequence of extreme ozone layer depletion?
A. more severe sun burning B. more cases of skin cancer C. more cases of lung cancer D. more cases of
blindness E. damage (burning) to leaves of agricultural crops and forest trees.
C. more cases of lung cancer
The consequences of rapid climate change over decades might include:
A. premature deaths from lack of food. B. reduction in earth's biodiversity. C. increased death from heat and
disease. D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Factors that favor cooling of the Earth's surface include:
A. reflection of solar radiation by clouds B. absorption of solar radiation by atmospheric particulates and aerosol
produced by volcanic activity C. removal of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through global photosynthetic
activity D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Climate change is expected to contribute to decreases in respiratory disorders caused by smog (ground-level ozone)
events.
false
The major greenhouse gases are:
A. carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane B. carbon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor C. oxygen,
nitrogen, and carbon dioxide D. chlorine, fluorine, methane and CFCs E. methane, oxygen, nitrogen.
A. carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane
5. The region of the atmosphere closest to the Earth's surface is the stratosphere.
false
6. The troposphere is that area of the atmosphere from the ground level to ten miles above the Earth's surface.
true
7. Butterflies’ habitat ranges in North America have shifted lower in elevation as temperatures increased.
false
The overall or net annual concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is being:
A. decreased by respiration B. increased by burning fossil fuels C. increased by photosynthesis D. all of these
E. A and C
B. increased by burning fossil fuels
The major anthropogenic source of excess carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is/are:
A. refrigerants, solvents and fire retardants B. microbial fermentation of organic matter in coal mines, oil well,
and livestock C. emissions from chemical fertilizers D. evaporation from the Earth's oceans E. combustion of
fossil fuels
E. combustion of
fossil fuels
If global temperatures increase, trees with what types of seed dispersal will be fastest to migrate northward?
A. wind dispersal B. bird dispersal C. mammal dispersal D. all of these E. A and C.
B. bird dispersal
Repeated or prolonged bleachings have proven to be fatal for some coral reefs, primarily due to the loss of nutrients
that the algae provide for the coral.
false
A rise in sea level is least likely to:
A. flood areas where one-third of the world's human population lives. B. save the coral reefs. C. accelerate
coastal erosion. D. contaminate coastal aquifers. E. disrupt coastal fisheries.
B. save the coral reefs
13. Experiments suggest that tree growth rates may increase with increasing levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
true
All of the following greenhouse gases have significantly increased in recent decades EXCEPT:
A. carbon dioxide. B. methane. C. water vapor. D. nitrous oxide.
C. water vapor
An increase in average temperature can:
A. shorten the growing season in regions with a relatively cool spring and fall B. beneficially affect crops in
regions where summer heat already limits production C. increase soil evaporation rates D. all of these E. A and
C.
C. increase soil evaporation rates
16. The most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere is water vapor.
true
During the months of the year when photosynthesis predominates over respiration in terrestrial ecosystems, carbon
dioxide concentrations in the atmosphere:
A. decrease slightly B. increase slightly C. stay the same D. There are no data to answer this.
A. decrease slightly
A greenhouse gas which is produced in the stomachs of ruminant animals and is increasing in concentrations in the
troposphere is:
A. CFCs B. carbon dioxide C. methane D. nitrous oxide E. carbon monoxide.
C. methane
How might global warming increase the risk of human infectious disease?
A. eutrophication would decrease B. mosquitoes and other vectors could become more prevalent C. increased
risk of skin cancer D. all of these E. A and C.
B. mosquitoes and other vectors could become more prevalent
20. Climate change can result only from human activities that change the atmosphere's composition.
false
21. A likely effect of global warming is lowering ocean levels because of evaporation.
false
Climate change can increase the risk of extinction for many species, especially those that are already endangered or
at risk due to:
A. isolation by geography or human development B. low population numbers C. a narrow temperature tolerance
range D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
As a result of climate change:
A. the timing of bird arrival in the Arctic may no longer coincide with the availability of their insect food sources
B. important breeding and nesting areas are projected to decrease sharply as trees shift their range northward C.
more tundra area, and thus more habitat for birds and their prey, will disappear D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Greenhouse gases:
A. transmit infrared radiation but absorb visible radiation B. transmit visible radiation but absorb infrared
radiation C. transmit both infrared radiation and visible radiation D. none of the above.
B. transmit visible radiation but absorb infrared
radiation
Increased greenhouse gases originate from:
A. burning fossil fuels B. ozone depletion C. deforestation D. all of these E. A and C
E. A and C
Direct temperature effects of climate change may include an increase in the incidence of heat waves, which can
especially affect people with heart problems and asthma.
true
What are some potential biological effects of a warmer climate on forests in the United States?
A. lower-elevation habitats (such as western Douglas fir forests) expanding into the higher alpine zone B. less
frequent forest fires C. encroachment of warm-adapted species into alpine meadows D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
28. The primary source of the greenhouse gas methane is the burning of fossil fuel.
false
29. Higher levels of ground level ozone can limit the growth of crops.
true
What impacts might global warming have on fish?
A. some bodies of water may become too warm for the fish that currently inhabit those areas B. the amount of
oxygen in some waters may increase C. increased mortality of eggs and larvae D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
31. One would expect to find less carbon dioxide in the atmosphere during late spring to early autumn.
true
Insect vector-borne diseases which could increase as a result of climate change include:
A. malaria B. cholera C. dengue fever D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
Examples of point sources of nutrient pollution include:
A. industrial discharges B. stormwater runoff C. thermal discharges from power plants D. all of these E. A
and C
A. industrial discharges
High turbidity in natural waters can be caused by:
A. growth of phytoplankton B. too few fish C. sediment loading D. all of these E. A and C
E. A and C
The two most important nutrients for stimulating entrophication are:
A. nitrogen and phosphorus B. carbon and oxygen C. pesticides and heavy metals D. sodium and chlorine E.
lead and mercury.
A. nitrogen and phosphorus
4. Dissolved oxygen is often depleted downstream of the point where water high in organic wastes is discharged.
true
Examples of nonpoint source pollutants include:
A. sediment runoff B. industrial effluents C. nutrients from the land D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
6. Sludge generated from municipal sewage is commonly used as fertilizer.
true
In shallow water, excess nutrients shift water quality in ways that favor the growth of phytoplankton at the expense
of benthic plants.
true
Oxygen gets into surface waters (streams, lakes, ponds, etc.) by:
A. dissolution of gases from the atmosphere B. absorption by photosynthesizing terrestrial plants C. release from
photosynthesizing aquatic plants D. all of these E. A and C
C. release from
photosynthesizing aquatic plants
Solving the problem of eutrophication may involve:
A. advanced sewage treatment to remove nutrients B. banning the use of detergents containing phosphates C.
controlling erosion to prevent sediment pollution D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
As forests and wetlands are replaced by farms, cities, and suburbs, the amount of nutrients entering surface waters
is decreasing.
false
11. Natural waters that are high in nutrients are called eutrophic.
true
Turbidity:
A. is a measure of water clarity B. increases with excessive sediments loading C. usually is associated with
nutrients D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Chemical treatments with herbicides to control the growth of phytoplankton:
A. may be detrimental to bottom-rooted plants B. are short-lasting; algae regrows as soon as chemicals dissipate
C. do not address the root causes of the problem D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Eutrophication refers to the ecosystem changes that occur with the introduction of:
A. waterborne diseases B. excess nutrients C. chemical pollutants D. pesticides E. synthetic organic
compounds.
B. excess nutrients
Organic wastes are considered important water pollutants because:
A. they stimulate excessive growth of detritus feeders B. they stimulate excessive growth of bacteria C. they
reduce water clarity D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
Examples of nonpoint source pollutants include:
A. fertilizers B. pesticides C. stormwater runoff D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
17. Lack of nutrients in water limits the growth of phytoplankton.
true
The greatest hazard of domestic sewage wastes is its:
A. potential for harboring disease-causing organisms B. content of toxic chemicals C. potential for causing
eutrophication D. potential for depleting dissolved oxygen E. bad odor.
A. potential for harboring disease-causing organisms
Farm practices which decrease the degree of eutrophication include:
A. not farming to the very edge of natural waterways B. no-till farming techniques C. use of organic fertilizers
D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
20. In the United States today, most sewage treatment plants remove nutrients from the wastewater stream.
true
All of the following will probably reduce the amount of oxygen dissolved in stream or lake water EXCEPT:
A. thermal pollution B. algal "blooms" C. accelerated eutrophication D. sewage waste discharged into the
water E. heavy metals such as lead and mercury.
E. heavy metals such as lead and mercury.
22. North America's largest estuary is the Chesapeake Bay.
true
A great risk of dense populations is that if an individual gets sick, the disease can spread rapidly throughout the rest
of the population.
true
Nitrogen can enter surface waters from:
A. surface runoff B. nitrogen fixation C. precipitation D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
The main reason to separate sewage and storm water runoff is to:
A. avoid fecal contamination of storm runoff B. prevent contamination of the sewage with oils and chemicals
from roadways C. reduce the volume of waste entering the wastewater treatment plant D. all of these E. A and
C
D. all of these
26. Runoff from farms is generally declining as farmers adopt nutrient management and runoff control techniques
true
Benthic organisms grow/live:
A. suspended in the water column B. attached to the bottom C. on top of the water surface D. within the guts of
aquatic organisms E. 10-20 inches deep within the sediment.
B. attached to the bottom
Sediments entering waterways in large amounts is detrimental to water quality because:
A. they increase the turbidity of water B. they are often accompanied by large amounts of nutrients C. they shift
the ecological balance of water in favor of algae, bacteria, protozoa and detritus feeders D. all of these E. A and
C
D. all of these
Sediments aggravate the problem of eutrophication because:
A. they absorb dissolved oxygen B. they contribute to reduced light levels C. they decrease water depths D. all
of these E. A and C
D. all
of these
Which of the following is a problem associated with sediment pollution?
A. nutrient enrichment of surface waters B. filling in of reservoirs C. blocking sunlight to photosynthesizing
aquatic organisms D. all of these E. A and C
D. all
of these
Low dissolved oxygen is generally associated with nutrient enrichment because:
A. phytoplankton uses oxygen in photosynthesis B. nutrients absorb dissolved oxygen C. dead phytoplankton
leads to an increased oxygen demand on the part of decomposers D. competition between phytoplankton and fish
for oxygen E. the oxygen combines with carbon in dead organic material to produce carbon dioxide.
C. dead phytoplankton
leads to an increased oxygen demand on the part of decomposers
The process whereby chemical pollutants become concentrated through passage up the food chain is called:
A. bioaccumulation B. biomagnification C. biodegradation D. biological oxygen demand E. none of the
above.
B. biomagnification
33. Phosphorus from sewage treatment plans has declined sharply, in large part because of the phosphate detergent ban.
true
Causes of eutrophication include:
A. excess organic wastes from livestock farms B. excess nutrients from waste treatment facilities C. excess
fertilizers D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
35. Point source pollutants are the easiest to regulate because they enter water bodies from specific locations.
true
Which of the following has NOT contributed to accelerated eutrophication of surface waters?
A. over-fertilization of agricultural fields B. destruction of natural wetlands C. erosion from deforested slopes
D. establishment of riparian woodlands E. All of the above have contributed.
D. establishment of riparian woodlands
BOD is:
A. a measure of the biological demand for oxygen B. a measure of water clarity C. a measure of the amount of
organic matter in water that can serve as food for microbes and detritus feeders D. all of these E. A and C
E. A and C
Effects of oil pollution on birds includes:
A. drowning B. hyperthermia C. loss of flight D. all of these E. A and C
E. A and C
2. Marsh vegetation, especially root systems, is easily damaged by fresh light oils.
true
3. Before an oil-affected bird can be released, it must demonstrate buoyancy and water-repellency.
true
Effects of oil pollution on birds includes:
A. damage to internal organs B. increase in the number of eggs laid C. pneumonia D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
5. Because the polar bear is not a marine mammal, it is not susceptible to the effects of oil pollution.
false
Oil spills occurring in marine environments are more frequent and often more destructive to the environment than
freshwater spills.
false
Fish absorb oil that is dissolved in water though their gills, accumulating it within the liver, stomach, and gall
bladder.
true
Which of the following methods were effective in cleaning up the oil spill from the Exxon Valdez?
A. burning B. chemical dispersants C. mechanical cleanup D. all of these E. A and C
E. A and C
Factors which increase the ability of an oil spill to spread include:
A. low surface tension B. high specific gravity C. low viscosity D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C
Because oil contamination can give fish and other animals different tastes and smells, predators will sometimes
consume more of them.
false
Once an oil-affected bird has been brought to a rehabilitation center:
A. oil is flushed from its eyes B. the birds must often be force-fed C. stomach-coating medicines may be
administered orally D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
An oil spill can harm birds and mammals by:
A. direct physical contact B. destruction of food sources C. toxicity D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
The risk from oil pollution to animal life in exposed sandy, gravel or cobbled beaches is less than in other habitats,
such as tidal flats.
true
Marine mammals such as sea otters and fur seals are at lower risk of hypothermia than are animals that have a layer
of blubber, such as walruses and sea lions.
false
15. The oil tanker Exxon Valdez spilled approximately 11 thousand gallons of crude oil in Prince William Sound.
false
16. Oil matting causes fur and feathers to lose their insulating properties.
true
Light refined oil products, such as gasoline and kerosene:
A. spread on water surfaces and penetrate porous soils quickly B. have low fire and toxic hazards C. evaporate
quickly and leave little residue D. all of these E. A and C
E. A and C
To increase biodegradation of oil spills, nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus are sometimes added to the
water.
true
19. Marsh environments are among the most sensitive freshwater habitat to oil spills due to the minimal water flow.
true
20. Sea birds and diving birds face the highest risks from oil pollution.
true
21. Marine organisms such as fish and whales are more likely to be harmed by an oil spill than turtles and seals.
false
Weathering is a series of chemical and physical changes that cause spilled oil to break down and become lighter
than water.
false
Because an otter will try to return to a habitat that is still contaminated by oil, released otters are tagged with
tracking devices.
true
24. Of all wildlife, fish are the most likely to be harmed by oil spills.
false
Freshwater habitats can be affected by oil spills in the following ways:
A. tidal flats trap the oil, affecting the bottom-dewlling organisms B. salt marsh vegetation is easily damaged by
oil C. shoreline plants such as cattails can be coated D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
A crop is sprayed with a pesticide to control an insect infestation. The infestation subsides, then a few weeks later,
it becomes worse. This phenomenon is known as:
A. resurgence B. a synergistic effect C. resistance D. a secondary pest outbreak E. none of these.
A. resurgence
The mode of action for glyphosate is:
A. photosynthesis inhibitor B. growth regulator C. amino acids synthesis inhibitor D. acetylcholinesterase
inhibitor E. axonic poison.
C. amino acids synthesis inhibitor
3. One of the most commonly-used active ingredients of pesticides is glyphosate.
true
A _______ causes changes in genetic material, and a _______ causes the formation of malignant tumors.
A. teratogen, mtuagen B. teratogen, carcinogen C. carcinogen, teratogen D. mutagen, teratogen E. mutagen,
carcinogen.
E. mutagen,
carcinogen.
Diazinon:
A. is a non-systemic organo-phosphate insecticide B. is used to control a wide variety of sucking and leaf eating
insects C. is an ingredient in pest strips D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
6. Agricultural use accounts for the majority of pesticide use.
true
Which of the following pesticides are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?
A. organophosphates B. triazines C. pyrethroids D. all of these E. A and C
A. organophosphates
The mode of action for pyrethroids is:
A. photosynthesis inhibitor B. growth regulator C. amino acids synthesis inhibitor D. acetylcholinesterase
inhibitor E. axonic poison.
E. axonic poison.
9. Toxic effects of organophosphates are due to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase.
true
First generation pesticides were abandoned or outlawed because:
A. they contained heavy metals like lead, mercury and arsenic B. they exhibited both bioaccumulation and
biomagnification C. pests quickly developed resistances to these pesticides D. all of these E. A and C
D. all of these
11. Permethrin acts as a contact poison through direct contact with target pests.
true
A non-systemic pesticide is a pesticide applied to a plant which is absorbed into its sap and so distributed
throughout the plant to make all parts of it poisonous to pests, without harming the plant.
false
Referring to a pesticide as "broad spectrum" means that:
A. a small amount covers a large area B. it is effective against a wide variety of pests C. it holds great potential
for the future D. all of these E. A and C
B. it is effective against a wide variety of pests
Referring to a pesticide as "broad spectrum" means that:
A. a small amount covers a large area B. it is effective against a wide variety of pests C. it holds great potential
for the future D. all of these E. A and C
B. it is effective against a wide variety of pests
2,4-D is highly toxic to:
A. humans B. most broad leaf crops C. wildfowl D. all of these E. A and C.
B. most broad leaf crops
The pesticides cycle includes:
A. runoff B. leaching C. vaporization D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
The phenomenon that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious
pests is known as:
A. resurgence B. a synergistic effect C. resistance D. a secondary pest outbreak E. a mutation
D. a secondary pest outbreak
The concentration of a toxicant in the environment that is lethal to one-half (50%) of experimental animals exposed
to it is referred to as the LD50 for that toxicant.
true
The mode of action for phenoxy herbicides is:
A. photosynthesis inhibitor B. growth regulator C. amino acids synthesis inhibitor D. acetylcholinesterase
inhibitor E. axonic poison.
B. growth regulator
A pesticide that does not absorb strongly to soil particles and has a lengthy environmental half-life would be
expected to have a low potential for groundwater contamination.
false
20. Biomagnification is bioaccumulation through several trophic levels of a food chain.
true
2,4-D:
A. functions as a systemic herbicide B. contains high levels of dioxin C. is a major component of Agent Orange
D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
In the course of using some pesticides, it was observed that:
A. some pest insects became increasingly resistant B. many pests were effectively controlled C. species of
insects that had not previously caused significant damage became serious pests D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
For it to be active, a systemic pesticide needs to dissolve in water and enter the plants through their roots.
true
The mode of action for triazines is:
A. photosynthesis inhibitor B. growth regulator C. amino acids synthesis inhibitor D. acetylcholinesterase
inhibitor E. axonic poison.
A. photosynthesis inhibitor
25. Atrazine is a weed-killer used mostly on farms.
true
26. Chronic toxicity results from short-term, low level exposure to a toxicant.
false
Which of the following pesticides affect the nervous system?
A. organophosphates B. triazines C. pyrethroids D. all of these E. A and C
E. A and C
The term "natural background" for dioxins refers to the dioxins that are in the environment from natural processes
plus dioxins from manmade sources.
false
2. POPs can circulate globally via the atmosphere, oceans, and other pathways.
true
The toxicity of a PCB is dependent not only upon the number of chlorines present, but the positions of the
chlorines.
true
Studies of workers exposed to PCBs found increases in:
A. rare liver cancers B. lung cancer C. malignant melanoma D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C
POPs are a set of chemicals that:
A. are generally toxic B. persist in the environment for long periods of time C. biomagnify D. all of these E.
A and C.
D. all of these
6. There is clear evidence that PCBs cause cancer in animals.
true
7. DDT lasts for a much shorter time in the environment in temperate regions than it does in the tropics.
false
8. PCBs with larger numbers of chlorines are less toxic.
false
Past uses for PCBs included:
A. hydraulic fluids B. fluorescent light ballasts C. insulators D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
The mechanisms of eggshell thinning as a result of chronic DDT exposure are not fully understood, but are thought
to be related to effects from its major metabolite, DDE.
true
DDT was NOT used for controlling:
A. numerous kinds of insects on agricultural crops B. lice on humans C. weeds D. malaria-carrying insects E.
flies in dairy barns.
C. weeds
The potency and fundamental level at which dioxins act on biological systems appears to be analogous to several
well studied hormones.
false
13. PCBs stick strongly to soil and will not usually be carried deep into the soil with rainwater.
true
DDT accumulates in higher doses in what body tissue in animals?
A. muscle B. bone C. adipose D. nervous E. skin.
C. adipose
Today, PCBs can still be released into the environment from:
A. poorly maintained hazardous waste sites that contain PCBs B. illegal or improper dumping of PCB wastes C.
leaks or releases from electrical transformers containing PCBs D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Potentially adverse effects that have been reported to be associated with exposure to dioxin and related compounds
in human populations at or near average background levels include:
A. delay of developmental milestones B. impacts on immune function C. elevated incidence of adult onset
diabetes D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
People in the United States are exposed to DDT mainly by eating foods containing small amounts of these
compounds.
true
18. PCBs may remain in your body and be stored for years, mainly in the fat and liver.
true
Babies can be exposed to DDT by drinking breast milk, but DDT from the mother cannot enter her unborn baby
through the placenta.
false
20. The most studied (and one of the most toxic) dioxins is TCDD.
true
21. Leafy vegetables generally contain more DDT than other vegetables.
true
22. Small daily doses of DDT causes tremors and seizures.
false
Because dioxins from natural and anthropogenic sources have been widely distributed throughout the environment,
almost every living creature except humans has been exposed to dioxins.
false
24. DDT is still used in some other areas of the world, most notably for controlling malaria.
true
Dioxins break down so slowly that some of the dioxins from past releases will still be in the environment many
years from now.
true
Dioxins are:
A. produced inadvertently by a number of human activities B. created intentionally C. created by natural
processes D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
27. PCBs with larger numbers of chlorines are more resistant to biodegradation.
true
28. Most human dioxin exposure occurs through the diet, through dietary intake of animal fats.
true
29. PCBs especially accumulate in fish and marine mammals.
true
Dioxins are formed during:
A. commercial or municipal waste incineration B. forest fires C. chlorine bleaching of pulp and paper D. all of
these E. A and C.
D. all of
these
The major dietary sources of PCBs are:
A. fish (especially sportfish that were caught in contaminated lakes or rivers) B. green leafy vegetables C. meat
and dairy products D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
32. The types of PCBs that tend to bioaccumulate in fish are the least carcinogenic components of PCB mixtures.
false
33. The most common health effect in people exposed to large amounts of dioxin is chloracne.
true
In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides such as DDT, it has been observed that certain species of
insects which had not previously caused significant harm have become serious pests. The best explanation for this
phenomenon is that:
A. the pesticide killed off predators which had previously held this species in check B. a mutation occurred in the
species C. the pesticide increased the vigor of the species D. DDT was able to be used by the pest as an
additional food source E. DDT is also a reproductive stimulator for some insect species.
A. the pesticide killed off predators which had previously held this species in check
POPs have been found in bogs, snow, and animals in the Arctic and Antarctic regions, far from where they were
ever used.
true
36. PCBs collect in milk fat and can enter the bodies of infants through breast-feeding.
true
Which of the following was NOT one of the apparent advantage(s) of DDT?
A. broad spectrum of effect B. persistent C. relatively non-toxic to humans D. inexpensive to produce E.
stimulated plant growth
E.
stimulated plant growth
PCBs have been shown to cause a number of serious health effects in animals, including effects on the:
A. immune system B. reproductive system C. nervous system D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Consumer products that still may contain PCBs include old fluorescent lighting fixtures and appliances.
true
PCBs:
A. have a low degree of reactivity B. are flammable C. have good insulating properties D. all of these E. A
and C.
E. A
and C.
Which of the following are members of the "dirty dozen" POPs?
A. DDT B. dioxin C. PCBs D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
DDT is highly toxic to:
A. fish B. humans C. aquatic invertebrates D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
Which is NOT a source of elemental mercury released to the air?
A. fossil fuel combustion B. mining and smelting C. solid waste incineration D. microbial methylation E.
production of cement.
D. microbial methylation
People may be exposed to lead when they:
A. live near hazardous waste sites B. cook in improperly glazed pottery or ceramic dishes C. have hobbies in
which lead is used D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
In the United States, lead can still be found in:
A. some paint pigments B. gasoline for automobiles C. ammunition and sinkers D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
4. Once lead falls onto soil, it sticks strongly to soil particles and remains in the upper layer of soil.
true
5. Small amounts of lead from lead pipe or solder may be released into water when the water is acidic.
true
You can be exposed to mercury vapors from:
A. the use of fungicides that contain mercury B. damaged or broken fluorescent light bulbs, barometers, and
thermometers C. contaminated clothes, furniture, and carpets D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
7. Studies in workers exposed to metallic mercury vapors have shown mercury-related increases in cancer.
false
8. Organic arsenic compounds are much more toxic than inorganic arsenic compounds.
false
9. It is more hazardous to swallow metallic mercury than it is to breathe mercury vapors.
false
Metallic mercury that enters the blood will generally accumulate in the:
A. brain B. liver C. kidneys D. muscles E. bones
C. kidneys
Dental fillings are potential sources of metallic mercury.
true
Which form of mercury is most easily absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract?
A. elemental B. inorganic C. methlymercury D. they are all about the same.
C. methlymercury
Mercury methylation is greater when the water has:
A. higher pH and lower DOC levels B. higher pH and higher DOC levels C. lower pH and higher DOC levels
D. lower pH and lower DOC levels.
C. lower pH and higher DOC levels
Food sources that have been found to contain high levels of mercury include:
A. fish B. corn C. shellfish D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
Methylmercury:
A. is converted from inorganic mercury by microorganisms B. usually stays on the surface of sediments or soil
C. is likely to settle to the bottom in aquatic environments D. all of these E. none of these.
D. all of these
Symptoms of mercury poisoning include:
A. personality changes B. tremors C. difficulties with memory D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
17. The main target for lead toxicity is the teeth and bones.
false
18. The nervous system is more sensitive to methylmercury toxicity than are other organs in the body.
true
Common forms of mercury found in the environment are:
A. metallic mercury B. mercuric sulfide (cinnabar ore) C. methylmercury D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
20. Most of the arsenic that enters the body will be gone within several days.
true
21. Mercury releases from natural sources have remained relatively constant in recent history.
true
22. Most of the toxicity to the residents of Minamata resulted from ingestion of methylmercury.
true
The number of people drinking arsenic-rich water in Bangladesh has increased dramatically since the 1970s due to
well-drilling and population growth.
true
24. The largest use for lead is in storage batteries in cars and other vehicles.
true
25. In the past, inorganic mercury was widely used in medicinal products for internal use.
true
26. Arsenic can cross the placenta and has been found in fetal tissues.
true
Dental amalgams:
A. contain approximately 50% metallic mercury B. have been determined to be a significant health hazard to the
general population C. release small amounts of mercury due to corrosion or chewing D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
28. Once organic mercury is in the bloodstream, it moves easily to most tissues and readily enters the brain.
true
Although most of the exposure pathways for metals are the same for children as those for adults, children may be at
a higher risk of exposure because of normal hand-to-mouth activity.
true
Mercury enters the environment as the result of:
A. weathering of minerals in rocks and soil B. volcanic activity C. human activity D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
31. Methylmercury can be more harmful to bird embryos when selenium is present in the diet.
true
Exposure to mercury can result in:
A. nervous system damage B. gastrointestinal tract damage C. kidney damage D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
In many relatively pristine areas, mercury concentrations have increased because atmospheric deposition has
increased.
true
34. States with fish consumption advisories for mercury are located mostly in the Southwest.
false
35. Most of the amount of lead taken into the body of an adult will be excreted within a couple of weeks.
true
36. Mercury levels found in most surface water are quite high.
false
A characteristic effect of chronic oral exposure to inorganic arsenic is a darkening of the skin and the appearance of
small "corns" or "warts" on the palms, soles, and torso.
true
38. Adults absorb a higher proportion of ingested lead than do children.
false
39. In critical periods of development before they are born, and in the early months after birth, children and fetuses are
particularly sensitive to the harmful effects of metallic mercury and methylmercury on the:
A. endocrine system B. nervous system C. reproductive system D. all of these E. A and C.
B. nervous system
Exposure to lead in the womb may:
A. slow mental development B. cause children to be born prematurely and have lower weights at birth C. cause
lower intelligence later in childhood D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
In Bangladesh:
A. most drinking-water used to be collected from open dug wells and ponds B. the arsenic contamination of
groundwater is of geological origin C. the most commonly manifested effect of arsenic so far is skin lesions. D.
all of these E. A and C.
D.
all of these
42. "Pressure treated" wood that is currently sold for residential use contains arsenic.
false
43. Inorganic and organic arsenic compounds are still used as pesticides in the United States.
false
Exposure to arsenic can result from:
A. eating food B. drinking water C. breathing air D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
45. Children are more sensitive to the health effects of lead than adults.
true
Which of these metals have been classified by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) as a
carcinogen?
A. lead B. mercury C. arsenic D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
47. Most of the total amount of lead in the body is contained in the bones and teeth.
true
Very small amounts of metallic mercury (for example, a few drops) can raise air concentrations of mercury to
levels that may be harmful to health.
true
49. Children may be exposed to lead by hand-to-mouth contact after exposure to lead-containing soil or dust.
true
Which type of organism will be likely to contain the most methylmercury?
A. sharks B. wheat C. small fish D. all will have about the same amount
A. sharks
Which type of organism will be likely to contain the most methylmercury?
A. sharks B. wheat C. small fish D. all will have about the same amount
A. sharks
51. Most of the high levels of lead found throughout the environment come from human activities.
true
Environmental sources of arsenic include:
A. wind-blown dust from soils and minerals B. lakes, rivers, or underground water C. incineration of waste
products D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
How is lead released into the environment?
A. through releases from mining B. during the burning of coal, oil, or wastes C. weathering and chipping of
lead-based paint D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Exposure to environmental estrogens can be from:
A. diet B. household products C. drinking water D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
2. Certain substances can mimic hormones by binding to specific hormone receptors inside cells.
true
Estrogenic chemicals are found in:
A. pesticides B. plastics C. detergents D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Phytoestrogens occur naturally in plants such as:
A. soybeans B. whole grains C. fruits and vegetables D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
5. Proven estrogenic compounds are no longer being manufactured and used worldwide.
false
6. Two weakly estrogenic compounds can be more potent, or produce more effect, than one compound by itself.
true
7. All environmental estrogens have a similar chemical structure.
false
Based on animal studies, possible male human health effects of endocrine disrupting compounds could include low
sperm counts and testicular cancer.
true
Some identified effects of EDCs in wildlife include:
A. abnormal blood hormone levels B. increased fertility C. skewed sex ratios D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
10. Some endocrine disrupters indirectly turn genes on and alter cell growth and division.
true
Exposure of a developing embryo to environmental estrogens has been linked to:
A. undescended testicles B. malformed Fallopian tubes C. altered sexual behavior D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Animals can and do accumulate endocrine disrupters in their fat and can pass them along to offspring and
predators.
true
Once bound with the receptor, the endocrine disrupter can:
A. produce a normal hormone response B. enhance the binding of natural hormones C. prevent natural hormones
from binding D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
In the town of Seveso, a significant increase in breast cancer risk with higher dioxin exposures was found more
than 10 years after initial exposure.
true
In females, estrogens:
A. foster development of female characteristics B. regulate liver metabolism C. protect bone strength and the
cardiovascular system D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Endocrine disrupters alter hormonal functions by:
A. mimicing the sex steroid hormones estrogens and androgens B. increasing hormonal binding to receptors C.
altering production and breakdown of natural hormones D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
Reproductive hormones regulate:
A. growth B. immunity C. metabolism D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Examples of reproductive effects of environmental estrogens include:
A. male juvenile alligators living in Florida's Lake Apopka had smaller than normal penises and abnormal testes
B. daughters of mothers who took the synthetic estrogen DES during pregnancy had higher rates of lung cancer C.
male fish living near municipal sewage outlets in England had both male and female sex characteristics D. all of
these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
19. Naturally-occurring compounds capable of producing estrogenic responses are called phytoestrogens.
true
20. DDT, some PCBs, and many phytoestrogens bind to estrogen receptors.
true
21. Only a specific hormone can trigger a specific receptor into action.
false
22. Natural hormones are less potent than any of the known synthetic environmental estrogens.
false
23. DDT has been shown to bypass the estrogen receptor (and thus stimulate cell division), but cannot bind to it.
false
1. Some states export their municpal solid waste to other states for processing.
true
Epidemiologic studies to assess whether adverse health effects have occurred near individual solid waste
incinerators have been unable to detect any effects.
true
The exhaust gases from waste incineration facilities may contain:
A. particulate matter B. dioxins and furans C. polycyclic aromatic compounds D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
4. The Microtox test is based upon the use of Ceriodaphnia dubia, a luminescent bacterium.
false
Which of the following species are used in acute aquatic toxicity testing?
A. Ceriodaphnia dubia B. Pimephales promelas C. Vibrio fischeri D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
Which of the following common household items should NOT be disposed of in landfills?
A. batteries B. toilet cleaners C. oil or enamel based paint D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
The degree of adverse effects to human health from exposure to hazardous air pollutants are dependent upon:
A. the ambient concentration in the area B. the characteristics of exposed individuals C. pollutant-specific
characteristics D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
8. The largest components of municipal solid waste are metals.
false
9. Organic matter in most landfills is usually completely digested by aerobic organisms.
false
Hazardous air pollutants released from municipal solid waste landfills include:
A. toluene B. lead C. vinyl chloride D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
Under normal operating conditions, waste incinerators produce incomplete combustion of the combustible portion
of waste and emit significant amounts of pollutants of concern.
false
Fly ash:
A. is a by product of solid waste incineration. B. is usually placed in landfills. C. may be contaminated with
heavy metals. D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Some of the problem(s) associated with storing solid waste in landfills is/are:
A. surface subsidence B. methane production C. ground water contamination D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Municipal solid waste:
A. includes all of the materials thrown away from homes B. never includes any organic waste, petroleum
products and pesticides C. includes all of the materials thrown away from commercial enterprises D. all of these
E. A and C.
E. A and C.
Common material(s) in municipal solid waste is/are:
A. glass. B. paper products. C. plastics. D. metals. E. all of the above
E. all of the above
Most municipal solid waste is:
A. organic matter. B. metals. C. water. D. soil. E. none of the above.
E. none of the above.
There is usually a good correlation between total ambient concentrations of persistent pollutants and local
emissions from an incinerator.
false
Persistent pollutants for which incinerators have contributed a substantial portion of the total national emissions
include:
A. dioxins B. fly ash C. DDT D. all of these E. A and C.
A. dioxins
After pollutants from an incineration facility disperse into the air, people close to the facility may be exposed
directly through inhalation or indirectly through consumption of contaminated food or water.
true
20. Landfill gas is primarily composed of methane and carbon dioxide.
true
Leachate from landfills may include:
A. pesticides B. plastics C. petroleum products D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
22. Heavy metals that may be present in the solid waste fed into an incinerator are often destroyed during combustion.
false
The majority of emissions of air pollutants at municipal solid waste landfills come from natural aerobic
decomposition.
false
24. Vinyl chloride exposure has been shown to increase the risk of a rare form of liver cancer in humans.
true
Which of the following chemicals might be found in landfill lechate?
A. toluene B. lead C. benzene D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
26. The principal gaseous products of waste incineration are carbon dioxide and water vapor.
true
The greatest component of municipal solid waste is:
A. yard waste B. metal C. glass D. paper and paperboard E. plastics.
D. paper and paperboard
28. Leachate is the mixture of water and chemicals that drains from the bottom of landfills.
true
What criteria did the EPA use to decide that there is no significant risk of horizontal gene flow from Bt corn?
A. the number of chromosomes in donor and recipient B. distance of pollen transfer C. the amount of seed
dispersal D. all of these E. A and C.
A. the number of chromosomes in donor and recipient
2. Bt corn was engineered to be resistant to the European Corn Borer.
true
If non-GE plants acquire a transgene for herbicide resistance from a GE crop plant:
A. their offspring will be resistant to the herbicide B. herbicide-resistant volunteers of crop plants might prove
more difficult to control C. farmers might no longer be able to use that particular herbicide to control weeds D.
all of these E. A and C.
D.
all of these
What criteria did the EPA use to decide that there is no significant risk of harm to the Monarch butterfly from Bt
corn?
A. percent survival to pupation B. levels of the Bt proteins that are likely to be found in the field C. adult weight
D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
5. Pollen from plants that are wind or insect pollinated does not travel considerable distance from the plant.
true
6. Herbicide tolerant soybeans may actually increase the total quantity of herbicides applied.
true
The EPA has determined that there is a significant risk of gene capture and expression of Bt endotoxin by wild or
weedy relatives of corn, cotton, and potato in the U.S.
false
Because most crops grown in the U.S. are native to the United States, most have wild relatives that they could
cross-pollinate.
false
9. TheBt-toxin CRYIAb kills moths, butterflies, as well as insects in other families.
false
10. Horizontal gene flow is the movement of genes from one organism to another.
true
Bt-toxins:
A. are cut in the insect's digestive system into a smaller piece that is highly toxic to insects B. bind to a specific
receptor on the surface of human and insect intestinal cells C. cause a disruption of electrolyte balance, leading to
death D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
A ten-year study of commercially-released GE crops determined that they are no more likely to grow outside an
agricultural field than their non-GE counterparts.
true
Resistance to glyphosate is engineered into a plant by adding a gene that encodes a glyphosate-resistant version of
the enzyme EPSPS.
true
Many traits in crop plants that are detrimental to their ability to "act like a plant in the wild." include:
A. large, starchy seeds with thinner coats B. seeds that stay attached to the plant C. larger fruit with fewer (or
no) seeds D. all of these E. A and C.
D. all of these
Genetically engineered crops that are widely-grown in the U.S. include:
A. corn B. potatoes C. soybeans D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
16. Reductions of insecticide use on Bt cotton have been minimal or insignificant.
false
17. Genes that are engineered into plants can be transmitted to non-GE plants, but not any of the other non-GE genes.
false
One result of the appearance of herbicide-resistant weeds might be the reduced use of the genetically engineered
crop.
false
19. The cotton bollworm, tobacco budworm, and pink bollworm are all are moth larvae.
true
Traits that tend to make a plant more "weedy" include the production of:
A. long-lived seeds B. new seeds all at once C. a large number of seeds D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C.
21. Roundup-Ready soybeans were engineered to resist applications of the herbicide glufosinate.
false
Which of the following strategies have been used to make plants resistant to herbicides?
A. the GE plant produces a new protein which detoxifies the herbicide B. the surface of the GE plant becomes
impenetrable to the herbicide C. the protein in the plant which is normally the target of the herbicide's action is
replaced by a new protein which is unaffected by the herbicide D. all of these E. A and C.
E. A and C
Many of the traits presently genetically engineered into plants increase the fitness of the plant but do not affect the
weediness of the plant.
true
Pollen from one plant may fertilize other plants of the same species, but never plants of other closely-related
species.
false
25. Genetically engineered plants with Bt-based insect resistance produce an insect toxin in all of their tissues.
true
26. Broad-spectrum herbicides kill all (or most) plants, and thus cannot be applied directly onto a field of crop plants.
true