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854 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is heredity
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the transmission of traits from one generation to the next
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what is genetics
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the scientific study of heredity and variation
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what are the 2 methods of reproduction and explain
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asexual- mitosis gives rise to 2 identical daughter cells
sexual- 2 parents contribute DNA to one offspring. The sperm & egg fuse during fertilization to give rise to a single cell that will develop into offspring |
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what is a life cycle
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the genration to generation sequence of stages in the reproductive history of an organism
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what forms the basis of variations we see in organisms?
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homologous chromosomes
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What are alleles?
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alternative forms of a gene
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how how sex chromosomes distinguished from other chromosomes
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by being non homologus (females have XX & males have XY)
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what is a human somatic cell
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any cell other than gamete
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what is karyotype
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an ordered display of pairs of chromosomes from a cell
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what are the steps of meiosis
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interphase I of meiosis (chromosome replicate), meiosis I (homologus chromosomes seperate), meiosis II (sister chromatides seperate)
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what happens during prophase I
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homologus chromosomes become closely associated in synapsis, exchange segments via crossing over, and then seperate.
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what happens in synapsis
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homologus chromosomes loosely pair up, aligned gene by gene
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what indicates that crossing over had occured?
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presence of chiasma
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what happens in metaphase I
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paired homologus chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate, with one chromosome "facing" each pole. Then kinetochore microtubules attach to one of the 2 homologus chrsomosome, so that one homologue will be drawn to one pole, and the other homologue to the other pole.
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what happens in anaphase I
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pairs of homologus chromosomes seperate
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what does the chiasmata do
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hold homologues together
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what happens during telophase I and cytokinesis
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2 haploid daughter cells form
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what happens during prophase II
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a new spindle apparatus forms in each cell, and the nuclear membrane breaks down
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what happens in metaphase II
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chromosomes align along the metaphase plate in each cell and kinetochore microtubules from opposite poles attach to opposite sides of the same centromere
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what happens in telophase II
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the nuclear membranes re-form around 4 different clusters of chromosomes, and the chromosomes begin decondensing
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What does cytokinesis do
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seperates the cytoplasn and 4 haploid cells result
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what are the steps in mitosis
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prophase (chrmosome replicate), metaphase & telophase(chromosomes align at the metaphase plate), sister chromatids seperate during anaphase
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compare mitosis and meiosis
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1- mitosis conserves the # of chromosome sets, producing cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell
2-meiosis reduces the # of chromosome sets from 2 (diploid) to one (haploid), producing cells that differ genetically from eachother and from the parent cell 3- the mechanism for seperating sister chromatids is virtually identical in meiosis II and mitosis |
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what are 3 events unique in meiosis?
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1-synapsis and crossing over in prophase I
2-at the metaphase plate, there are paired homologus chromosomes , instead of sister chromatids, that seperate and are carried to opposite poles of the cell |
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whats the original source of genetic diversity?
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mutations (change in an organism's DNA)
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what is parthenogenesis
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development of an adult unfertilized egg which undergoes a mitotic division without cell cleavage to become a diploid cell
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what 3 mechanisms contribute to genetic variation?
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1-independant assortment of chromosomes
2-crossing over 3-random fertilization |
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what is the # of combinations possible when chromosomes assort independantly into gametes?
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2^n where n is the haploid #
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what is independant assortment
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the results of alternative arrangements of maternal & paternal homologus chromosome pairs on the metaphase plate in meiosis I
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what happens during crossing over?
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homologus chromosomes pair up gene by gene and homologus portions of 2 nonsister chromatids trade places
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what is random fertilization
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the matter of chance of which 2 gametes fuse to form a zygote
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what is synapotnemal complex
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mechanism 4 double DNA strand damage repair
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what does gene disorder refer to
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the harmful effect a detrimental allele produces when it occurs at a significant frequency in a population
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what are most human genetic disorders caused by
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a mutated DNA sequence which encodes an altered protein
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what is a pedigree
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a family tree that describes the interrelationships of parents and children across generations.
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what do the dominance/recessiveness relationships of alleles depend on?
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the level at which we examine the phenotype
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What is Tay-Sachs disease?
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a dysfunctional enzyme causes an accumulation of lipids in the brain
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For Tay-Sachs disease, what are the dominance/recessiveness relationships of alleles?
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organismal level- the allele is recessive
biochemical level-the phenotype if incompletely dominant molecular level- the alleles are codominant |
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What causes cystic fibrosis
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mutation in the CFTR gene, which encodes a PM chloride channel protein. the mutation encodes a protein that is not efficiently delivered to the plasma membrane
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what does the loss of CFTR at PM do?
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it impairs the ability of cells to transport chloride ions into and out of the cell. Released Cl= causes the cells to release water (osmosis) and the water things the mucus. Without Cl- transport, there is less water, and the music thick and syrupy.
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what is sickle cell disease caused by?
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the substitution of a single amino acid in the hemoglobin protein in red blood cells.
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What kind of disorder is sickle cell anemia?
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a recessive inherited disorder in which afflicted individuals have defective hemoglobin, and thus are unable to properly transport oxygen to tissues.
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what are the symptoms of sickle cell anemia
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-physical weakness
-organ damage -paralysis |
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is the allele dominant or recessive for sickle cell disease
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organismal level- nonsickle allele is incompletely dominant to the sickle cell allele.
molecular level- the 2 alleles are codominant as both normal and abnormal (sick cell) hemoglobins are synthesized |
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What are the characteristics of sickle cells
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-breakdown of red blood cells
-clumping of cells and clogging of small blood vessels -accumulation of sickled cells in spleen |
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homozygous (sickle cell) wild types are susceptible to what?
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malaria
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if a phenotype is due to autosomal dominant allele, individuals who are homozygous or heterozygous for the trait will display which phenotype?
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the dominant phenotype
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What is an example of a late onset lethal dominant disorder?
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Huntington's disease
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What is Huntington's disease and what is it caused by?
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it is a degenerative disease of the nervous system. its caused by defects in the huntington protein that leads to its gradual aggregation in the brain
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whats the mutation in huntington's disease and why is it dominant?
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trinucleotide repeat expansion disorder like Fragile-X syndrome which is a constriction at the tip of the X chromosome
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what is the phenomenon known as anticipation?
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when individuals are phenotypically normal, but their sons were affected, and later generations showed earlier onset and more severe symptoms.
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what is the normal function of protein made by FMRI
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to bind to mRNAs involved in neuron function and regulate translation
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What happens if the FMRI protein is not made?
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these mRNAs are not translated in sufficient amounts, the nerve cells die;loss of nerve cells can result in MR
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What is Fragile X syndrome caused by
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an expansion of CGG repeat
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what repeat if Huntington's disease caused by
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CAG repeat
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What is Friedrich's ataxia caused by
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GAA repeat
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What is myotonic dystrophy caused by
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CTG repeat
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what happens when the polyglutamine tract expands
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the protein must be folded correctly for its normal function but if the polyglutamine tract is expanded, the folding of this protein will not be normal
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if a trait appears equally often in males and females, what is it likely to be?
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autosomal
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if males are much more likely to have the trait, what is it likely to be?
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X-linked
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An affected male produces
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-carrier daughters
-normal sons |
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A carrier female produces
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-carrier and normal daughters
-affected and normal sons |
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what is nondisjunction?
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when the X chromosomes dont seperate
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what is trisomy
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3 chromosomes
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what is monosomy
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1 chromosome
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non disjunction of sex chromosomes can result in:
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-XXX triple-X females
-XXY males (Klinefelter syndrome) -XO females (Turner syndrome) -OY nonviable zygotes -XYY males (Jacob syndrome) |
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what does deletion do
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removes a chrmosomal segment
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what does duplication do
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repeats a segment
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what does inversion do
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reverses a segment within a chromosome
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what does translocation do
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moves a segment from one chromosome to another, nonhomologus one.
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what is genomic imprinting
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the phenotype depends on which parent passed along the alleles for those traits & it involves the silencing of certain genes that are "stamped" with an imprint during gamete production
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Whats an example of genomic imprinting?
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the mutant Igf2 allele inherited from the mother results in the mutant Igf2 not being expressed but the mutant Igf2 allele inherited from the father results in the normal Igf2 allele not being expressed
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what are extranuclear genes (or cytoplasmic genes)
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genes found in organelles in the cytoplasm, such as mitochondria and chloroplasts. theyre inherited maternally
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what do mutations in mitochondrial DNA do
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disrupt the mitochondria's ability to efficiently generate energy for the cell.
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What are frequently observed features of mutations in mitochondrial DNA
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-muscle weakness
-problems with movement -diabetes -loss of intellectual functions (dementia) -hearing loss -abnormalities involving the eyes and vision |
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mutations in four mitochondrial genes have been identified in people with what disease?
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Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
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what are multifactorial disorders
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disorders with a genetic component plus environmental influence
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What necessitated cellular specialization and cellular signaling?
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the evolution of multicellular organisms
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what is cell communication necessary for?
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structural and functional integrity of tissues and organs
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what is signal transduction
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the process by which a cell converts an extracellular signal into a response
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what is a hormone
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an information-carrying molecule that is secreted from a cell, circulates in the body, and acts on target cells far from the signaling cell
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how do polypeptides serve as hormones
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theyre not lipid soluble; bind to receptors on surface of target cell
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how do amino acid derivatives serve as hormones
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most are not lipid soluble; bind to receptors on surface of target cell
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how do steroids serve as hormones?
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theyre lipid soluble; bind to receptors inside target cell
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what is the overview of cell signaling?
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1-reception (extracellular signal molecule binds to a receptor protein)
2-transduction (activation of an intercellular signaling pathway that is mediated by a series of signaling proteins) 3-response (one or more of these proteins interacts with a target protein) |
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what is transduction
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when cascades of molecular interactions relay signals from receptors to target molecules in the cell
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whats good about multistep pathways?
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-can amplify a signal: a few molecules can produce a large cellular response
-provide more opportunities for coordination and regulation |
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what is phosphorylation of proteins
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a major mechanism for regulating the activity of proteins, moving from an inactive to an active state.
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what is a ligand
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the signal molecule which fits into the receptor in a way thats similar to the interaction between a substrate and the catalytic site of an enzyme
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what are the 3 main types of membrane receptors?
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-G-protein-linked receptors
-receptor tyrosine kinases -ion channel receptors |
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what are G proteins
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peripheral membrane proteins located inside the cell that are closely associated with transmembrane signal receptors
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when are G proteins activated
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when they bind GTP
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when are G proteins deactivated
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when they hydrolyze the bound GTP and GDP
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what do tyrosine-kinase receptors do
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they mediate growth factors and local regulators that stimulate cells to grow and reproduce
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what is a distinguished feature of the tyrosine-kinase receptor
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it can activate many signal transduction pathways simultaneously, in contrast to the G protein receptor, which only activated a single pathway at a time
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what are ion-channel receptors
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oftern referred to as ligand-gated ion channel. when a signal molecule binds as a ligand to the receptor, the gate allows specific ions, such as Na+ or Ca+ through a channel in the receptor
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What did it show when the activation of glycogen phosphorylase by epinephrine could not happen with purified components in a test tube
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-epinephrine does not activate glycogen phosphorylase directly
-the plasma membrane is somehow involved |
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what are second messengers
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small, non-protein, water-soluble molecules or ions that can readily spread throughout cells by diffusion
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what is the most common second messenger
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cyclic AMP (cAMP) and Ca++
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how does cAMP work?
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adenylyl cyclase, an enzyme in the plasma membrane, converts ATP to cAMP in response to an extracellular signal, phophodiesterase converts cAMP to AMP, quenching the signal.
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what did Sutherland show about cAMP
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that when epinephrine is bound to plasma membrane, cAMP is elevated and then glycogen is broken down to glucose
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what happens with epinephrine is bound to its receptor site?
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adenylyl cyclase is activated
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what is PlP2
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a membrane phospholipid thats cleaved by phospholipase C into inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG)
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what are relay molecules
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molecules that relay the signal from the receptor to the response
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what do phosphatase enzymes do
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remove the phosphates
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what does cell signaling lead to
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regulation of cytoplasmic activities or transcription
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what is apoptosis
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programmed or controlled cell suicide; a cell is chopped and packaged into vesicles that are digested by scavenger cells
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what are caspases
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main proteases (enzymes that cut up proteins) that carry out apoptosis
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what can apoptosis be triggered by
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-an extracellular death-signaling ligand
-DNA damage in the nucleus -protein misfolding in the endoplasmic reticulum |
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what is a virus
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a genome enclosed in a protective coat; viruses are infectious particles consisting of nucleic acid encases in a protein coat, and in some cases, a membranous envelope.
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what is an isolated virus
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a merely packaged set of genes going from one host to another.
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how do viruses reproduce
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using lytic or lysogenic cycles
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what is the lytic cycle
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a phage reproductive cycle that culminates in the death of the host cell. It also produces new phages and digests the host's cell wall, releasing the progeny viruses.
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what is a virulent phage
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a phage that reproduces only by the lytic cycle
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what does late gene expression generate
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capsid proteins and lytic enzymes
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what is the lysogenic cycle
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it replicates the phage genome without destroying the host. The viral DNA molecule is incorporated into the host cell's chromosome.
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what is the integrated viral DNA known as
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prophage (provirus)
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what are temperate phages
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phages that use both the lytic and lysogenic cycles
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what are the 2 key variables on the basic scheme of viral infection and reproductions that are represented among animal viruses
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1-the type of nucleic acid that serves as virus genetic material
2-the presence of absence of a membranous envelope |
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what is a viral genome usually
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a single linear or circular molecule of nucleic acid
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what is a capsid
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a protein coat which encases a genome
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what are viral envelopes
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membranes cloaking their capsids; they're derived from the membrane of the host cell but also have some viral proteins and glycoproteins embedded within
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what is a host range
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the limited range of host cells which each type of virus can infect
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how do viruses identify host cells
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by a "lock and key" fit between proteins on the outside of virus and specific receptor molecules on the host's surface.
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where is the broadcast variety of RNA genomes found
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in viruses that infect animals
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The genome is a template for what?
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mRNA synthesis
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The mRNA is a template for what?
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viral genome replication
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what are retroviruses
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they're enveloped viruses possessing an RNA genome, and replicate via a DNA intermediate
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what's an example of a retrovirus
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Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the virus that causes AIDS
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how may viruses damage or kills cells
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by causing the release of hydrolytic enzymes from lysosomes
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what are vaccines
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harmless variants or derivatives of pathogenic microbes, that stimulate the immune system to mount defenses against the actual pathogen
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what is AZT (azido thymidine)
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a pyrimidine analogue used as an anti-HIV because it interferes with reverse transcriptase
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what is the emergence of viral diseases due to?
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1-mutation that alters virus host range or pathogenicity
2-spread of existing viruses from one species to another 3-dissemination of a virus from a small, isolated population to a larger population |
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what do RNA viruses (like influenza) tend to have high mutation rates?
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because replication of their nucleic acid lacks proofreading
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what are prions
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infectious proteins that spread a disease; a misfolded form of a normal brain protein
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what is genomics?
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the study of all the genes in an organism and how they function together
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what is bioinformatics
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the application of computational methods to the storage and analysis of biological data
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What are the 3 stages of the Human Genome Project
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1-genetic (linkage) mapping
2-physical mapping 3-DNA sequencing |
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what is a linkage map (genetic map)
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it maps the location of several thousand genetic markers on each chromosome
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what is a genetic marker
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a gene or other identifiable DNA sequence
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What are recombination frequencies used for
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to determine the order and relative distances between genetic markers
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whats a physical map
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it expresses the distance between genetic markers, usually as the number of base pairs along the DNA
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how is a physical map constructed
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by cutting a DNA molecule into many short fragments and arranging them in order by identifying overlaps
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what are sequencing machines used for
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to determine the complete nucleotide sequence of each chromosome
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what is the whole-genome shotgun approach
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powerful computer programs are used to order fragments into a continuous sequence
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what are the 2 approaches to sequencing DNA
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1-hierarchical sequencing
2-shotgun sequencing |
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what is comparative genomics
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the analysis and comparison of genomes from different species. the purpose is to gain a better understanding of how species have evolved and to determine the function of genes and non-coding regions of the genome
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what does conservation in primary sequence predict?
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conservation in secondary and tertiary structure
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how many base pairs does the human genome contain
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about 3 million nucleotide base pairs
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what is the average gene size
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about 3000 bases, but sizes vary greatly
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what is the total number of genes in a human
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22,000
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By how much do human DNA sequences differ from one another
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less than .1%
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what does the bulk of most eukaryotic genomes consist of
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noncoding DNA sequences (junk DNA)
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what are pseudogenes
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former genes that have accumulated mutations and are nonfunctional
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what are exons
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regions of genes coding for protein or giving rise to rRNA and tRNA
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what is simple sequence DNA
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contains many copies of tandemly repeated short sequences
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what is a short tandem repeat (STR)
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a series of repeating units of 2-5 nucleotides
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what is the basis of change at the genomic level
|
mutation
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what is the evolution of the ancestral globin gene
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1-duplication of ancestral gene
2-mutation in both copies 3-transposition to different chromosomes -further duplications and mutations |
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what do errors in meiosis result in
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an exon being duplicated on one chromosome and deleted from the homologus chromosome
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what happens in exon shuffling
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errors in meiotic recombination lead to some mizing and matching of exons, either within a gene or between 2 nonallelic genes
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what may multiple copies of similar transposable elements do
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facilitate recombination, or crossing over between different chromosomes
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what can insertion of transposable elements within a protein-coding sequence do
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block protein production
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what can insertion of transposable elements within a regulatory sequence do
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increase of decrease protein production
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what do comparative studies of genomes do
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-advance our understanding of the evolutionary history of life
-help explain how the evolution of development leads to morphological diversity |
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what are highly conserved genes
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genes that have changed very little over time
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what do highly conserved genes inform us about
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relationships among species that diverged from each other a long time ago
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what is the significant difference between mice and humans and chimps?
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in the structure of genes and the activities of their protein products
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what is HAR-1
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rapidly evolving gene thats expressed in the brain & encodes a stable structural RNA that seems to be involved in regulating the expression of many other genes
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what is HAR2
|
gene that regulates expression in the wrist and thumb during fetal development...contributes to morphological changes required for dexterity
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what is AMY1
|
salivary amylase, facilitates starch digestion
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what is LCT
|
lactase, in most species only expressed in nursing infants
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whats the FOXP2 gene
|
its product turns on genes involved in vocalization
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what is cancer
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a growth disorder of cells
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where do cancers originate from
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a single cell which has become unable to regulate its growth(replication) and begins to proliferate in an uncontrolled manner, forming a tumor
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what are tumors characterized by
|
deregulation of cell division and cell death
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what is tumor caused by
|
either increased cell division or decreased apoptosis
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what is tumorigenesis
|
a multi-step process by multiple genetic alterations that progressively transform normal cells into malignant cells
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what are the 6 acquired capabilities of cancer cells
|
1-growth signal autonomy
2-evasion of growth inhibitory signals 3-evasion of apoptosis 4-unlimited replicative potential 5-angiogenesis 6-invasion and metastasis |
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what is mitogenic signaling transmitted to the nucleus via?
|
complex cytoplasmic circuits called "signal transduction" pathways
|
|
genes that normally regulate cell growth and division during the cell cycle include:
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-genes for growth factors
-their receptors -intracellular molecules of signaling pathways |
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what are oncogenes
|
cancer-causing genes
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what are proto-oncogenes
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normal cellular genes that code for proteins that stimulate normal cell growth and division
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A DNA change that makes a proto-oncogene excessively active converts it to what?
|
an oncogene, which may promote excessive cell division and cancer
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what is Ras
|
the first and foremost human oncogene
|
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what is the Ras protein
|
encoded by the ras gene, its a G protein that relays a signal from a growth factor receptor to a cascade of protein kinases
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what does Ras signaling do
|
upregulates levels of cyclin D, which is required for G1/S transition
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Deregulating Ras signaling impacts which cellular activities
|
-cytoskeleton cell motility
-translation -apoptosis -cell-cell junctions -endocytosis -nuclear transport Ca+2 signaling -membrane trafficking vesicle formation -transcription -cell-cycle progression |
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What is apoptosis (programmed cell death)
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a latent, rapid cell suicide program that is activated by damaged or deranged cells, leading to their elimination
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what is p53
|
the key effector of the apoptotic response; prevents the proliferation of damaged cells
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what does p53 do if DNA damage is detected?
|
it initiates DNA repair pathway
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what does p53 do if damage/stress is prolonged or severe
|
it promotes programmed cell death
|
|
how does p53 work?
|
it binds to specific DNA sits and activates the expression of certain target genes. The protein products of these target genes are the effectors of the p53 response, which includes cell cycle arrest (withdrawl), DNA repair, & programmed cell death (apoptosis)
|
|
what genetic changes accompany tumor progression in the colon
|
-loss of tumor suppressor gene APC
-activation of ras oncogene -loss of tumor suppressor gene DCC -loss of tumor suppressor p53 -additional mutations |
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what is the plasma membrane
|
the boundary that separates the living cell from its surroundings; it exhibits selective permeability, allowing some substances to cross it more easily than others
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what are cellular membranes
|
fluid mosaics of lipids and proteins
|
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what does amphipathic mean
|
they have both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions
|
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what do membrane lipids include
|
phospholipids and sterols (cholesterol and phytosterols)
|
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what is a simple membrane
|
a phospholipid bilayer
|
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what part of the protein is hydrophillic
|
the polar and charged amino acids
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what part of the protein is hydrophobic
|
the nonpolar amino acids
|
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what is membrane fluidity
|
membrane lipids drift laterally, and even "flip flop"
|
|
what is fluorescence photobleaching
|
1-label lipids with a fluorescent "tag"
2-focus a strong beam on a cell surface to bleach the label 3-watch how fast the label comes back from unbleached parts |
|
what happens to membranes as temperatures cool
|
membranes switch from a fluid state to a solid state
|
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what are integral proteins
|
at least partially inserted into membranes; most completely span out (even several times)
|
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what are peripheral proteins
|
attached to the membrane surface, cytoskeleton, ECM but not inserted
|
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when is the asymmetrical distribution of proteins, lipids, and associated carbohydrates in the plasma membrane determined
|
when the membrane is built by the ER and Golgi apparatus
|
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what are transmembrane proteins
|
integral proteins that span that membrane
|
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what are some functions of membrane proteins
|
1)transport
2)enzymatic activity 3)signal transduction 4)intercellular joining 5)cell-cell recognition 6)attachment to the cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix (ECM) |
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how do cells recognize each other
|
by binding to surface molecules, often carbohydrates, on the plasma membrane
|
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do hydrophobic (nonpolar) molecules pass through the membrane rapidly?
|
yes
|
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do polar molecules cross the membrane easily
|
no
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what is diffusion
|
the net drift of molecules in the direction of lower concentration due to random thermal movement
|
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what happens at dynamic equilibrium
|
many molecules cross one way at cross in the other direction
|
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what is passive transport
|
the diffusion of a substance across a membrane without the expenditure of cellular energy
|
|
what is osmosis
|
the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane
|
|
what is the direction of osmosis determined by
|
a difference in total solute concentration
|
|
what is tonicity
|
the ability of a solution to cause a cell to gain or lose water
|
|
what is an isotonic solution
|
solute concentration is the same as that inside the cell; no net water movement across the plasma membrane
|
|
what is a hypertonic solution
|
solute concentration is greater than that inside the cell; cell loses water
|
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what is hypotonic solution
|
solute concentration is less than that inside the cell; cell gains water
|
|
what is osmoregulation
|
control of water balance
|
|
what do cell wall do
|
help maintain water balance
|
|
what happens to plant cells in a hypertonic environment
|
plant cells lose water & eventually, the membrane pulls away from the cell wall, a usually lethal effect called plasmolysis
|
|
what is facilitated diffusion
|
transport proteins speed movement of molecules across the plasma membrane
|
|
what do transport proteins do
|
allow passage of hydrophilic substances across the membrane
|
|
what are channel proteins
|
transport proteins that have a hydrophilic channel that certain molecules or ions can use as a tunnel
|
|
what are carrier proteins
|
transport proteins that bind to molecules and change shape to shuttle them across the membrane
|
|
what is a gated channel
|
a membrane channel whose permeability is regulated;facilitated or mediated transport system
|
|
what are 2 major types of gated channels involved in the opening of the channel
|
1-voltage-gated channel (response to changes in electrical potential)
2-ligand-gated channel (response to the binding of a molecule, such as a neurotransmitter, to a specific receptor) |
|
what is active transport
|
the movement of a solute across a biological membrane such that the movement is directed upward in a concentration gradient (against the gradient) and requires the expenditure of energy
|
|
what is membrane potential
|
the voltages across each cells' membranes (electrical potential energy from opposite charge seperation)
|
|
what is the electrochemical gradient
|
2 combined forces which drive the diffusion of ions across the membrane
-a chemical force -an electrical force |
|
what is an electrogenic pump
|
a transport protein that generates the voltage across the membrane (membrane potential)
|
|
when does cotransport (couples transport) occur
|
when active transport of a solute indirectly drives transport of another solute
|
|
what does bulk transport across the plasma membrane occur by
|
exocytosis & endocytosis
|
|
what are vesicles
|
the way in whcich large molecules, such as polysaccharides and proteins, cross the membrane
|
|
what is exocytosis
|
when the cell secretes (exports) macromolecules by fusion of vesicles with the plasma membrane
|
|
what happens in endocytosis
|
the cell takes in macromolecules by forming vesicles from the plasma membrane
|
|
what are 3 types of endocytosis
|
-phagocytes (cellular eating): cell engulfs particle in a vacuole
-pinocytosis (cellular drinking):cell creates sesicle around fluid -receptor-mediated endocytosis: binding of ligands to receptors triggers vesicle formation |
|
what is receptor-mediated endocytosis
|
a process by which specific substances are brought into the cell that are in low concentration or only to be used in specific cell types
|
|
what is the living cell
|
a miniature chemical factory where thousands of reactions occur; it extracts energy and applies energy to perform work
|
|
what is metabolism
|
the totality of an organism's chemical reactions
|
|
what do catabolic pathways do
|
release energy by breaking down complex molecules into simpler compounds
|
|
what do anabolic pathways do
|
consume energy to build complex molecules from simpler ones
|
|
what is bioenergetics
|
the study of how organisms manage their energy resources
|
|
what is energy
|
the capacity to do work
|
|
what are different forms of energy
|
-heat
-chemical -electrical -mechanical -radiant |
|
what id potential energy
|
stored energy; energy that matter possesses because of its location or structure
|
|
what are examples of potential energy
|
-chemical
-nuclear -gravitational -mechanical |
|
what is kinetic energy
|
energy of movement
|
|
what are examples of kinetic energy
|
-electrons
-atomos -waves -molecules -objects |
|
what is thermodynamics
|
the study of energy transformations
|
|
what does the 1st law of thermodynamics state?
|
the energy of the universe is constant; energy can be transferred and transformed, but it cant be created or destroyed
|
|
what does the 2nd law of thermodynamics state?
|
every energy transfer or transformation increases the entropy (disorder) of the universe, because some energy is always lost, usually as heat.
|
|
how does energy enter the ecosystem
|
as light
|
|
how is energy lost in the ecosystem
|
as heat
|
|
what does the free-energy change of a reaction tell us?
|
whether the reaction occurs spontaneously
|
|
what needs to happen for a chemical reaction to be spontaneous
|
the reactants must have more potential energy than the products and/or be more ordered than the product
|
|
when there's high potential energy, is there more or less order?
|
more order
|
|
what is a living system's free energy (G)
|
energy that is available to do work when temperature and pressure and uniform, as in a living cell
|
|
How do we determine how a metabolic reaction has changed the free energy of the cell?
|
We measure the change in free energy, delta G
|
|
what is the change in free energy?
|
G final state - G initial state
|
|
what is the change is free energy during a process related to
|
the change in enthalpy (delta H), and the change in entropy or disorder (delta S), times the temperature
|
|
what is the delta G is a negative number
|
the products have less free energy than the reactant and more disorder
|
|
The delta G needs to be what in order for the process to be spontaneous
|
negative delta G
|
|
what is free energy a measure of
|
a system's instability, its tendency to change to a more stable state; higher G to lower G
|
|
what is equilibrium
|
the state of maximum stability
|
|
whats an exergonic (energy toward) reaction
|
it proceeds with a net release of free energy and is spontaneous
|
|
what's an endergonic (energy toward) reaction
|
it absorbs free energy from its surroundings and is not spontaneous
|
|
what three main kinds of work does a cell do
|
-mechanical
-transport -chemical |
|
How do cell manage energy resources to do work
|
by energy coupling, the use of an exergonic process to drive an endergonic one
|
|
what does ATP do
|
drives endergonic reactions by phosphorylation, transferring a phosphate group to some other molecule, such as a reactant.
|
|
what are enzymes
|
proteins that carry out most catalysis in living organisms
|
|
what do enzymes do
|
stabilize associations between substrates (molecules that will undergo a chemical reaction)
|
|
what is the initial energy needed to start a chemical reaction called
|
the free energy of activation, or activation energy
|
|
what is a catalyst
|
a chemical agent that speeds up a reaction without being consumed by the reaction
|
|
what is the active site
|
the region on the enzyme where the substrate binds
|
|
what is the reactant that an enzyme acts on called
|
the enzyme's substrate
|
|
what does induced fit mean
|
that many enzymes change shape when they bind to the substrate
|
|
how can the active site lower an E_A_ barrier?
|
-orienting substrates correctly
-straining substrate bonds -providing a favorable microenvironment -covalently bonding to the substrate |
|
what's an acid-base catalysis
|
enzyme chain transfer H+ to or from the substrate- a covalent bond breaks
|
|
what's covalent catalysis
|
a functional group in a side chain bonds covalently with the substrate
|
|
what's metal ion catalysis
|
metals on side chains loose or gain electrons
|
|
what are environmental factors that affect enzyme activity
|
-optimal temperature
-optimal pH |
|
what are cofactors
|
nonprotein enzyme helpers, usually metal ions, (minerals) found in the active site participating in catalysis
|
|
what are coenzymes
|
nonprotein organice molecules required for proper enzymatic activity
|
|
what are inhibitors
|
molecules that bind to an enzyme to decrease enzyme activity
|
|
what do competitive inhibitors do
|
bind to the active site of an enzyme, competing with the substrate
|
|
how would chemical chaos result
|
if a cell's metabolic pathways were not tightly controlled
|
|
what is allosteric regulation
|
a protein's function at one site is affected by binding of a regulatory molecule at another site, called an allosteric site
|
|
what do allosteric inhibitors do
|
stabilize the inactive form of the enzyme, inhibiting activity
|
|
what do allosteric activators do
|
stabilize the active form of the enzyme, promoting enzyme activity
|
|
what is cooperativity
|
a form of allosteric regulation that can amplify enzyme activity
|
|
what are caspases
|
proteolytic enzymes
|
|
what is feedback inhibition
|
the switching off of a metabolic pathway by its end product
|
|
what is photosynthesis
|
the process that converts solar energy into chemical energy
|
|
how do autotrophs sustain themselves
|
without eating anything derived from other organisms
|
|
where do heterotrophs obtain their organic material from
|
other organisms
|
|
what do photoautotrophs do
|
use the energy of sunlight to make organic molecules from the water and carbon dioxide
|
|
why is only 5% of the sun's energy that reaches the Earth converted into chemical energy?
|
-not all wavelengths absorbed
-much energy is lost during conversion of light energy to chemical energy, and during the carbon fixation reactions |
|
what are the 2 sets of reactions that photosynthesis consists of
|
-light dependent reactions
-light independent reactions |
|
What do the light-dependent reactions produce
|
O2 from H2O
|
|
what do light-independent reactions produce
|
sugar from CO2
|
|
what are light dependent and light independent reactions linked by
|
electrons
|
|
what are chloroplasts
|
highly structured, membrane-rich organelles
|
|
what are thylakoids
|
internal vesicle-like structures: these are embedded with photosynthetic pigments, such as chlorophyll
|
|
what is grana (granum)
|
columns or stacks of thylakoids
|
|
what is stroma
|
semi-liquid surrounding thylakoids
|
|
what do light reactions convert
|
solar energy into NADPH & ATP and release molecular oxygen (splitting of water)
|
|
what does the calvin cycle convert
|
CO2, ATP, and NADPH into sugar (carbon fixation)
|
|
what is the electromagnetic spectrum
|
the entire range of electromagnetic energy, or radiation
|
|
what is wavelength
|
the distance between crests of waves
|
|
what are pigments
|
substances that absorb visible light
|
|
why do leaves appear green
|
because chlorophyll reflects and transmits green light
|
|
what is the main photosynthetic pigment
|
chlorophyll a
|
|
what are accessory pigments called
|
carotenoids
|
|
what do carotenoids do
|
absorb excessive light that would damage chlorophyll
|
|
what do accessory pigments like chlorophyll b do
|
broaden the spectrum used for photosynthesis
|
|
what is an absorption spectrum
|
a graph plotting a pigment's light absorption versus wavelength
|
|
what is a porphyrin ring
|
light-absorbing "head" of molecule; note magnesium atom at center
|
|
whats the hydrocarbon tail
|
it interacts with hydrophobic regions of proteins inside thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts; H atoms not shown
|
|
what is a photon
|
a discrete amount of light energy
|
|
what happens when a molecule absorbs a protein
|
one of its electrons is elevated to a higher orbital
|
|
what are photons absorbed
|
when the energy of the photon is equal to the difference between the ground state and the excited state of the electron
|
|
red photons raise electrons to which state
|
state 1
|
|
blue photons raise photons to which state
|
state 2
|
|
what is fluorescence
|
the afterglow when excited electrons fall back to the ground state and photons are given off
|
|
what is a photosystem
|
a reaction center associated with light-harvesting complexes
|
|
what are the 2 types of photosystems in the thylakoid membrane
|
1-photosystem II
2-photosystem I |
|
photosystem II is best at absorbing what wavelength
|
680 nm
|
|
photosystem I is best at absorbing what wavelength
|
700 nm
|
|
what do photosystems I & II have in common
|
both have chlorophyll a; but they're associated with different proteins, which affects their absorption spectra
|
|
what are the 2 possible routes for electron flow
|
1-cyclic
2-linear |
|
what is the predominant route of electron flow & explain
|
Linear (non cyclic) electron flow: light energy drives the synthesis of both NADPH and ATP by energizing both photosysystems in the thylakoid membrane
|
|
Describe mitochondria
|
-oxidative phosphorylation
-energy of electron comes from food -protons are pumped from the matrix to the intermembrane space -ATP is made in the matrix -ATP is made utilizing NADH |
|
Describe chloroplasts
|
-photophosphorylation
-energy of electron comes from sunlight -protons are pumped from stroma into the thylakoid space -ATP is made in stroma -ATP is made without utilizing NADPH |
|
what is carbon fixation
|
CO2 is incorporated into organic molecules that are already in the chloroplasts
|
|
what must happen for net synthesis of one G3P
|
the cycle must take place 3 times, fixing 3 molecules of CO2
|
|
G3P molecules produced by the Calvin cycle are often used to make what
|
glucose and fructose (combined to form sucrose)
|
|
what are the main photosynthetic products
|
sucrose & starch
|
|
what is the energy entering chloroplasts as sunlight stored as
|
chemical energy in organic compounds
|
|
what does energy flow into the ecosystem as
|
sunlight
|
|
what does energy leave the ecosystem as
|
heat
|
|
what does photosynthesis generate
|
O2 and organic molecules, which are used in cellular respiration
|
|
what is the most important source of chemical potential energy
|
electrons
|
|
What does hydrolysis of the bond between the 2 outermost phosphate groups result in?
|
formation of ADP and Pi (H2PO-4) in a highly exergonic reaction, with 7.3 kcal of energy released per mole of ATP hydrolyzed
|
|
what is energy coupling
|
when a reactant is phosphorylated, the exergonic phosphorylation reaction is paired with an endergonic reaction
|
|
when do endergonic reactions become exergonic
|
when the substrates of enzymes involved are phosphorylated
|
|
what are reduction-oxidation reactions (redox reactions)
|
a class of chemical reactions that involve the loss or gain of an electron
|
|
When does an electron lose potential energy
|
when it shifts from a less electronegative atom to a more electronegative atom, therefore the reduced version has more energy than the oxidized one
|
|
What is the partner that becomes reduced in cellular respiration when glucose is oxidized
|
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)
|
|
What is a second electron acceptor in cellular respiration
|
flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
|
|
what is the 4 step process of cellular respiration
|
1-glucose is broken down to pyruvate
2-pyruvate is processed to form acetyl-CoA 3-Acetyl-CoA is oxidized to CO_2_ 4-compounds that were reduced in steps 1-3 (NADH and FADH_2_) are oxidized in reactions that lead to ATP production |
|
what is glycolysis
|
a series of 10 chemical reactions, its the first step in glucose oxidation
|
|
what happens in glycolysis
|
glucose is broken down into 2 3-carbon molecules of pyruvate, and the potential energy released is used to phosphorylate ADP to form ATP
|
|
what are the 2 major phases of glycolysis
|
-energy investment phase
-energy payoff phase |
|
what is an isomerase
|
an enzyme that rearranges a molecule into a structural isomer
|
|
what is substrate-level phosphorylation
|
when an enzyme transfers a phosphate group from a substrate molecule to ADP
|
|
what is coenzyme A
|
a cofactor; it accepts acetyl groups and transfers them to substrates
|
|
where does the citric acid cycle or Krebs cycle take place
|
in the mitochondrial matrix
|
|
whats the citric acid cycle
|
the acetyl group of acetyl CoA joins the cycle by combining with oxaloacetate, forming citrate. The next 7 steps decompose the citrate back to oxaloacetate, making the process a cycle
|
|
what is the electron transport chain (ETC)
|
the proteins involved in the redox reactions
|
|
How does electron transport generate ATP?
|
electron transfer in the electron transport chain causes proteins to pump H+ from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space
|
|
what is the H+ in electron transport referred to as
|
a proton-motive force, emphasizing its capacity to do work
|
|
what is ATP synthase
|
an enzyme complex consisting of an ATPase "knob" component (the F1 unit) and a membrane bound, proton-transporting base component (the F0 unit), connected by a "stalk."
|
|
what is chemiosmosis
|
the use of energy in a H+ gradient to drive cellular work
|
|
why is oxygen the most effective electron acceptor
|
because of its high electronegativity
|
|
what are smaller drops in free energy associated with
|
ATP synthesis
|
|
what are larger drops in free energy associated with
|
the production of NADH and FADH_2_
|
|
what is the sequence of energy flow during cellular respiration
|
glucose -> NADH ->electron transport chain -> proton-motive force ->
|
|
in the absence of O2, how is ATP produced
|
glycolysis couple with fermentation or anaerobic respiration to produce ATP
|
|
what does fermentation consist of
|
glycolysis plus reactions that regenerate NAD+, which can be reused by glycolysis
|
|
how much ATP does cellular respiration produce
|
38 ATP per glucose molecule
|
|
how much ATP does fermentation produce
|
2 ATP per glucose molecule
|
|
what is a characteristic of obligate anaerobes
|
they carry out fermentation or anaerobic respiration and cant survive in the presence of O2
|
|
what is a characteristic of facultative anaerobes
|
they can survive using either fermentation or cellular respiration
|
|
how are fatty acids broken down
|
by beta oxidation and yeield acetyl CoA
|
|
what is control of catabolism based mainly on
|
regulating the activity of enzymes at strategic points in the catabolic pathway
|
|
what is overnourishment
|
excessive intake of food energy with the excess stored as fat
|
|
what does insulin do
|
it promotes transport of glucose into body cells, and stimulates liver and muscle cells to store glucose as glycogen, blood glucose drops
|
|
what does the pancreas do
|
secretes the hormone glucagon into the blood
|
|
what does glucagon do
|
it promotes the breakdown of glycogen in the liver and the release of glucose into the blood
|
|
what is glucagon
|
a peptide hormone (29aa) that is synthesized by the alpha cells of the pancreas
|
|
what is the primary function of glucagon
|
to increase levels of glucose in the blodd
|
|
what is cell division
|
a process in which cells make 2 daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell
|
|
what does cell division require
|
replication of genomic DNA, and then separation of the 2 copies of genomic DNA into daughter cells
|
|
what are the functions of cell division
|
1-reproduction
2-growth and development 3-tissue renewal |
|
A cell cannot divide into 2, 2 into 4, etc. unless which 2 processes alternate?
|
1-doubling the genome (which is the total complement of DNA)
2-separating the duplicated genome into 2 identical halves |
|
where does DNA replication begin
|
at the origin of replication
|
|
why is cell division in eukaryotes more problematic?
|
1-eukaryotes have more than 1 chromosome
2- eukaryotes have much more DNA/unit space |
|
what is the eukaryotes' mechanism to separate chromosomes in the nucleus?
|
1-duplication of each chromosome during the S phase of the cell cycle produces a chromosome consisting of 2 identical sister chromatids that are attached
2-condense the chromosomes into a compact form 3-separate the sister chromatids 4-distribute these exact replicas equally between the 2 daughter cells |
|
what are the phases that the cell cycle consists of
|
G1=cell growth and preparation of the chromosomes for replication
S=synthesis of DNA (replication) G2=growth and preparation for chromosomal segreagation M=2 parts: mitosis (nuclear division) and cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm) |
|
what is mitosis
|
the process by which cells divide their genetic material and nucleus (=nuclear division)
|
|
what is cytokinesis
|
division of the cytoplasm
|
|
what are chromosomes
|
a combination of DNA and proteins
|
|
what is chromatin
|
the DNA-protein complax which is organized and packaged by associated associated proteins
that maintain chromosomal structure and control gene activity |
|
what are histones
|
basic proteins, acidic DNA coils tightly around histone core, resembles beads on a string
|
|
what is nucleosome
|
DNA wrapped around the core of 8 histone proteins
|
|
what is condensins
|
a complex of proteins which aids the scaffold of proteins
|
|
what are sister chromatids
|
2 copies of the replicated chromosome
|
|
what is the centromere
|
constriction in chromosome, contains DNA repeats that bind specific proteins
|
|
what is kinetochore
|
protein "disc" that will bind mitotic spindle
|
|
what is cohesin
|
complex of proteins holding replicated chromosomes together, at their centromeres, until they are properly configured for seperation
|
|
what are the 5 sub-phases of mitosis
|
-prophase
-prometaphase -metaphase -anaphase -telophase |
|
what happens just before mitosis begins
|
1-in S phase, chromosomes have been duplicated.
2-the seeds of the mitotic spindle (centrioles) begin to grow |
|
what is the centrosome
|
microtubule-organizing center that nucleates the formation of the mitotic spindle
|
|
what is the mitotic spindle
|
a cytoskeletal machine composed of microtubules and associated proteins
|
|
what are the 3 classes of microtubules in the fully formed mitotic spindle
|
1-astral
2-kinetochore 3-overlap |
|
what happens during prophase
|
the mitotic spindle appears to push the centrosomes away from eachother. The centrosomes are actually propelled toward opposite ends (poles) of the cell by the lengthening of the microtubules between them. chromosomes condense, with sister chromatids joined together
|
|
what happens during prometaphase
|
the nuclear envelope fragments. the microtubles from the spindle interact with the chromosomes
|
|
what is the metaphase plate
|
an imaginary plane equidistant between the poles in which the sister chromatids are all arranges in a line. it occurs because the spindle fibers are pushing and pulling one another with and equal and opposite force.
|
|
what happens during anaphase
|
sister chromatids are suddenly separated and each is pulled toward the pole to which it is attached by spindle fibers. each can now be considered a chromosome
|
|
what are cohesins
|
proteins that hold sister chromatids together
|
|
what happens during telophase
|
2 nuclei begin to form, surrounded by the fragments of the parent's nuclear envelope. chromatin become less tightly coiled. cytokinesis begins.
|
|
what did similar types of fusion experiments demonstrate
|
-if one cell is in S and the other is in G1, the G1 nucleus immediately entered S phase
-if a cell in M phase was fused to any other cell in any other phase, the second nucleus entered mitosis -conclusion from these and other experiments is that events of the cell cycle are directed by a distinct cell cycle control system, a cyclically operating set of molecules that both triggers and coordinates key events |
|
what is a checkpoint
|
the process by which an incomplete upstream event generates a signal that inhibits the initiation of downstream events. a checkpoint in the cell cycle is a critical control point where stop and go signals regulate the cycle.
|
|
where are the 3 major checkpoints found
|
in the G1, G2, and M phases
|
|
what may happen if the cell proceeds past a checkpoint
|
-insufficient cell size
-incomplete chromosome replication -incomplete attachment of chromosomes to microtubules |
|
what do checkpoint defects result in
|
-genomic instability
-mutability -disarray |
|
what are the molecules that induce progression through the cell cycle
|
cyclically activated protein kinases
|
|
what are the 2 types of proteins involved in cell cycle control
|
-cyclins
-cyclin dependent kinases |
|
what are cyclins
|
proteins that are produced in synchrony with the cell cycle
|
|
what forms cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks)
|
the complex of kinases and cyclin
|
|
whats an example of an internal signal
|
that kinetochores not attached to spindle microtubules send a molecular signal that delays anaphase
|
|
why do cancer cells grow out of control
|
-make required growth factors themselves
-have abnormal signaling pathways that fail to convey frowth factor signals or that are constitutively active -have defects in Cdks or other cell cycle signaling machinery that normally insures DNA replication and mitosis occur only when conditions are favorable |
|
what do treatments for metastasizing cancers include
|
high-energy radiation and chemotherapy with toxic drugs
|
|
why were peas a good experimental system
|
-they're easy and inexpensive to cultivate
-reproduce quickly -can be raised in a small space, in large numbers -amenable to genetic analyses -come in many varieties |
|
what does self pollination result in
|
true breeding lines
|
|
what would Mendel do in a typical breeding experiment
|
he would cross pollinate two contrasting true-breeding varieties. this mating or crossing produces a mixed variety (hybrid) and so is called a hybridization
|
|
what are the parents in hybridization called
|
the P generation
|
|
what are the hybrid offspring called
|
the F1 generation
|
|
what is produced when F1 hybrids self-pollinate
|
F2 generation
|
|
describe the process of cross-pollination
|
1-remove anthers from one plant
2-collect pollen from a different plant 3-transfer pollen to a stigma of the individual whose anthers have been removed |
|
what is a gene
|
a segment of DNA that encodes for a protein or (more accurately) an RNA molecule.
|
|
what does Mendel's law of segregation state
|
that allele pairs seperate or segregate during gamete formation and randomly unite at fertilization
|
|
what are the 4 related concepts that contribute to Mendel's model that he proposed to account for his 3:1 pattern
|
1-there are alternative forms for genes called alleles and these different forms account for variations in inherited characters
2- for each character, an organism inherits 2 alleles, one from each parent 3-if 2 alleles at a locus differ, then one, the dominant allele determines the organism's appearance; the other recessive allele has no noticeable effect on the organism's appearance 4-the 2 alleles for each character segregate during gamete production and end up in different gametes |
|
what is the punnet square a useful tool for
|
determining the ratios of specific offspring that could be expected from a particular breeding
|
|
what is an organism having a pair of identical alleles said to be?
|
homozygous for the gene controlling that character
|
|
what is an organism having the 2 different alleles
|
heterozygous for that gene (Pp)
|
|
what happens in dihybrid crosses
|
true breeding plants that differed in 2 characteristics were examined
|
|
what does the law of independent assortment state?
|
that each pair of alleles segregates independently of other pairs of alleles during gamete formation
|
|
how can we determine probability of any genotype or phenotype
|
by multiplying together the probability of an egg and sperm having a particular allele
|
|
what is continuous variation
|
the greater the number of genes influencing a character, the more continuous the expected distribution of character variation will be
|
|
what is incomplete dominance
|
the phenotype of the heterozygote is intermediate between those of the 2 homozygotes
|
|
what is codominance/multiple allelism
|
2 or more alleles affect the phenotype in seperate distinguishable ways, that is, several alleles are dominant over the recessive
|
|
what is epistasis
|
non allelic gene interaction that affects phenotype
|
|
what is pleiotropy
|
the ability of a gene to affect an organisms phenotype in many different ways
|
|
what is the information content of DNA in the form of?
|
specific sequences of nucleotides
|
|
what is gene expression
|
the process by which DNA directs protein synthesis, includes 2 stages: transcription & translation
|
|
what is the "one gene-one enzyme" experiment
|
they irradiated Neurospora with x-rays (which were known to induce mutations) and screened the survivors for mutants which could no longer grow on minimal medium, but could grow on complete medium, and also on minimal medium if it was supplemented with one essential nutrient
|
|
what is the link between genotype and phenotype
|
proteins
|
|
what is the central dogma that summarizes the flow of information in cells
|
DNA code for RNA, which codes for proteins.
|
|
how are the instructions for assembling amino acids into proteins encoded into DNA
|
there are 20 amino acids but there are only 4 nucleotide bases in DNA
|
|
what is the triplet code
|
a series of non-overlapping, three nucleotide words, called codons. one codon specifies one amino acid.
|
|
how is the genetic code redundant?
|
because amino acids are specified by more than one codon
|
|
how is the genetic code unambiguous
|
because any one codon always specifies the same one amino acid
|
|
what is the reading frame
|
after the start codon, subsequent codons are read in frame as a series of non-overlapping three letter words
|
|
what does insertion or deletion of a single base pair cause?
|
a "frameshift" mutation that will cause the genetic message to be misread.
|
|
what is transcription
|
RNA synthesis
|
|
what is the promotor
|
the DNA sequence where RNA polymerase attaches
|
|
what is a transcription unit
|
the stretch of DNA that is transcribed
|
|
what is the transcription initiation complex
|
the completed assembly of transcription factors and RNA polymerase bound to a promoter
|
|
what happens during initiation
|
after RNA polymerase binds to the promoter, the DNA strands unwind, and the polymerase initiates RNA synthesis at the start point on the template strand
|
|
what are introns
|
noncoding regions called intervening sequences
|
|
what are exons
|
other regions that are eventually expressed, usually translated into amino acid sequences
|
|
what occurs during splicing
|
it removes introns & joins exons, creating an mRNA molecule with a continuous coding sequence
|
|
what do spliceosomes consist of
|
a variety of proteins and several small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs) that recognize the splice sites
|
|
what is the ribozyme
|
the RNA molecule has enzymatic activity. because it is single stranded, it can form various secondary structures, and specially modified bases contribute to catalytic activity.
|
|
what is translation
|
the process of protein synthesis using an mRNA template to specify the order of amino acids
|
|
what does translation require
|
the function of a very large number of mulecules
|
|
what happens in translation
|
-codons are translated sequentially into amino acids as a ribosome moves along an mRNA
-tRNAs act as adapters, bringing amino acids to the ribosome by the appropriate base pairing between the codon of the mRNA & the anti-codon of tRNA -each different tRNA has a specific anti-codon that recognizes and base pairs with the codon of the mRNA |
|
what do tRNAs function as
|
adaptors in reading information from RNA into synthesis of protein
|
|
how are molecules of tRNA different?
|
-each carries a specific amino acid on one end
-each has an anticodon on the other end |
|
why is each tRNA used repeatedly
|
-to pick up its designated amino acid in the cytosol
-to deposit the amino acid at the ribosome -to return to the cytosol to pick up another copy of that amino aicd |
|
Describe structure of tRNA
|
-short and have characteristic secondary structure called a cloverleaf, which is stabilized by the presence of unusual bases, and intramolecular base pairing
-also contains a 3' CCA tail that is added post-transcriptionally and is the site at which amino acids are attached |
|
which 2 regions of tRNA remain single stranded?
|
-the anti-codon
-the 3' amino acid attachment site |
|
what are the 3 stages of translation
|
-initiation
-elongation -termination |
|
what are the 3 cavities on the ribosome into which a tRNA fits?
|
E, P site, and A site
|
|
what are the A & P sites on the ribosome for?
|
for incoming and resident tRNAs
|
|
what is the E site on the ribosome for
|
outgoing tRNAs
|
|
what is codon recognition
|
binding of charged tRNA to ribosome A site &hydrogen binding between codon & anti-codon)
|
|
what happens during the formation of a peptide bond?
|
an rRNA molecule catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond between the polypeptide in the P site (P=peptidy) with the new amino acid in the A site
|
|
what happens during translocation
|
the ribosome moves along the mRNA, one codon at a time
|
|
where does protein synthesis begin on free ribosomes?
|
in the cytosol
|
|
what allows translation to begin in prokaryotic cell while transcription progresses
|
lack of a nuclear envelope
|
|
hows a eukaryotic cell different from a prokaryotic cell
|
-the nuclear envelope separates transcription from translation
-extensive RNA processing occurs in the nucleus |
|
what are mutations
|
changes in the genetic material of a cell or virus
|
|
what are point mutations
|
chemical changes in just one base pair of a gene
|
|
what does a change of a single nucleotide in a DNA template strand lead to
|
production of an abnormal protein
|
|
what are the 2 categories in which point mutation within a gene can be divided into
|
-base-pair substitutions
-base-pair insertions or deletions |
|
what does a base-pair substitution do
|
replaces one nucleotide and its partner with another pair of nucleotides
|
|
what kind of mutations can a base-pair substitution cause
|
silent, missense, or nonsense mutations
|
|
what is special about silent mutations
|
they do not change the amino acid specified by the codon
|
|
what is special about missense mutations
|
they still code for an amino acid, but not the right amino acid
|
|
what is special about nonsense mutations
|
they change an amino acid codon into a stop codon, nearly always leading to a nonfunctional protein
|
|
what are insertions and deletions
|
additions or losses of nucleotide pairs in a gene
|
|
what are frame-shift mutations
|
single bases inserted or deleted, usually leads to nonfunctional proteins
|
|
when can spontaneous mutations occur
|
during DNA replication, recombination, or repair
|
|
by which mechanisms do mutagens cause mutations
|
-depurination
-deamination -oxidation |
|
what is depurination
|
loss of the purine (A or G) base from the nucleotide
|
|
what does deamination of cytosine to uracil result in
|
a C:T transition
|
|
what are ROS (reactive onxygen species)
|
superoxide, hydrogen peroxide, hydroxyl radicals
|
|
what does UV light form
|
pyrimidine dimers; stable covalent bonds between adjacent pyrimidines
|
|
what is DNA adducts
|
covalent bond between mutagen and DNA
|
|
what is organic chemistry
|
the study of compounds that contain carbon
|
|
what does electron configuration determine
|
the kinds and # of bonds an atom will form with other atoms
|
|
what are hydrocarbons
|
organic molecules consisting of only carbon & hydrogen
|
|
what are isomers
|
compounds with the same molecular formula but different structures and properties
|
|
what are structural isomers
|
have different covalent arrangements of their atoms
|
|
what are geometric isomers
|
have the same covalent arrangements but differ in spatial arrangements
|
|
what are enantiomers
|
isomers that are mirror images of each other
|
|
what are functional groups
|
the components of organic molecules that are most commonly involved in chemical reactions
|
|
what are the 7 most important functional groups
|
-hydroxyl group
-carboxyl group -sulfhydryl group -methyl group -carbonyl group -amino group -phosphate group |
|
what are the functional properties of a hydroxyl
|
-polar
-attracts water molecules |
|
what are the functional properties of a carbonyl
|
a ketone and an aldehyde may be structural isomers with different properties
|
|
what are functional properties of carboxyl
|
-has acidic properties
-the covalent bond between oxygen and hydrogen is so polar that hydrogen ions ten to dissociate reversibly |
|
what are the functional properties of amino
|
acts as a base; can pick up a proton from the surrounding solution
-ionized with a charge of 1+ under cellular conditions |
|
what are the functional properties of sulfhydryl
|
2 sulfhydryl groups can interact to help stabilize protein structure
|
|
what are the functional properties of phosphate
|
-makes the molecule of which it is a part an anion
-can transfer energy between organic molecules |
|
what is ATP?
|
adenosine triphosphate, the primary energy transferring molecule in the cell, it consists of an organic molecule called adenosine attached to a string of 3 phosphate groups
|
|
How do functional groups contribute to molecules?
|
they contribute to a molecule's solubility, polarity, stability, charge, and/or activity
|
|
what are the 4 most important atoms which make up 96% of the matter found in organisms
|
hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, oxygen
|
|
what are trace elements
|
elements required in minute amounts
|
|
what is matter
|
anything that takes up space and has mass
|
|
what makes up matter
|
elements
|
|
what makes up elements
|
atoms
|
|
what is an atom
|
the smallest unit of matter that retains the properties of an element
|
|
what are molecules and compounds
|
when atoms are combines in fixed numbers
|
|
what makes up the nucleus
|
protons and neutrons
|
|
what is the neutron charge
|
0
|
|
what is the proton charge
|
+1
|
|
what is the electron charge
|
-1
|
|
what is the atomic #
|
# protons
|
|
what is the atomic mass
|
# protons + # neutrons in daltons (amu)
|
|
what are isotopes
|
atomic forms of the same element with different number of nuetrons
|
|
what are radioactive isotopes valuable as
|
-determining the age of samples
-cytotoxic and mutagenic agents -induce mutations in DNA -biological "tracers": radioactive labeling of biological molecules and following their fate in a cell or organism |
|
what is energy
|
the capacity to cause change
|
|
what is potential energy
|
energy that matter had because of its location or structure
|
|
what is energy level
|
an electron's state of potential energy
|
|
what is an orbital
|
the 3-dimensional space (path) where an electron is found 90% of the time
|
|
what are valence electrons
|
electrons in the outermost shell
|
|
what are elements with a full valence shell
|
chemically inert
|
|
whats a covalent bond
|
the sharing of a pair of valence electrons by 2 atoms
|
|
what is electronegativity
|
an atom's attraction for the electrons in a covalent bond
|
|
whats special about a covalent bond
|
the atoms share the electron equally
|
|
whats special about a polar covalent bond
|
one atom is more electronegative, and the atoms dont share the electron equally
|
|
how are ionic bonds in a dry environment
|
strong (salt crystals form)
|
|
how are ionic bonds in a wet environment
|
weak (salt crystals dissolve in water)
|
|
when is a hydrogen bond formed
|
when a hydrogen atom covalently bonded to one electronegative atom is also attracted to another electronegative atom
|
|
what are weak chemical bonds called
|
Van der Waals Interactions
|
|
what is a molecule's shape determined by
|
the positions of its atoms' valence orbitals
|
|
what are chemical reactions
|
the making and breaking of chemical bonds
|
|
what are reactants
|
the starting molecules of a chemical reaction
|
|
what are products
|
the final molecules of a chemical reaction
|
|
what does polarity allow water molecules to do
|
form hydrogen bonds with each other
|
|
what are 4 of water's properties that facilitate an environment for life
|
-cohesive behavior
-ability to moderate temperature -expansion upon freezing -versatility as a solvent |
|
what is cohesion
|
the phenomenon that collectively, hydrogen bonds hold water molecules together
|
|
what is adhesion
|
an attraction between different substances
|
|
what is surface tension
|
a measure of how hard it is to break the surface of a liquid
|
|
what is heat
|
a measure of the total amount of kinetic energy due to molecular motion
|
|
what is temperature
|
measures the intensity of heat due to average kinetic energy of molecules
|
|
what can water's high specific heat be traced to
|
hydrogen bonding
|
|
what is evaporation
|
transformation of a substance from liquid to gas
|
|
what is heat of vaporization
|
the heat a liquid must absorb for 1g to be converted to gas
|
|
what is evaporative cooling
|
the process of a liquid evaporating as its remaining surface cools
|
|
what are substances that dissolve in water called
|
hydrophillic
|
|
what are substances that don't dissolve in water called
|
hydrophobic
|
|
what is a colloid
|
a stable suspension of fine particles in a liquid
|
|
what is a hydration shell
|
a sphere of water molecules which surrounds an ion which is dissolved in water
|
|
what is molecular weight
|
the sum of all of the weights of all the atoms in a molecule
|
|
what is a mole
|
the # of grams of a substance that equals its molecular weight
|
|
what is molarity
|
# of moles of solute per liter of solution
|
|
what is pH defined by
|
-log[H+]
|
|
what are buffers
|
solutions in which the pH remains relatively constant when small amounts of acid or base are added
|
|
what is acid precipitation
|
rain, snow, or fog with a pH lower than 5.2
|
|
what does a release of CO2 from fossil fuel combustion contribute to
|
-a warming of earth called the "greenhouse" effect
-acidification of the oceans |
|
whats a polymer
|
a high molecular weight compound consisting of long chains that may be open, closed, linear, branched, or cross linked
|
|
do condensation or dehydration reactions require of yield energy?
|
they require energy
|
|
do hydrolysis reactions require or yield energy
|
yield energy
|
|
whats a condensation reaction
|
monomer in, water out
|
|
whats a hydrolysis reaction
|
water in, monomer out
|
|
whats a carbohydrate
|
a carbon hydrate or hydrated carbon atoms
|
|
what are the types of carbohydrates?
|
-monosaccharides
-oligosaccharides -polysaccharides |
|
what is the general empirical formula for carbohydrates?
|
(CH2O)n
|
|
what do mono & disaccharides end in
|
the suffix "ose"
|
|
when is a disaccharide formed
|
when a dehydration reaction joins 2 monosaccharides
|
|
what is the bond that holds the disaccharide together called?
|
covalent bond, glycosidic linkage
|
|
what are the structure and function of a polysaccharide determined by
|
its sugar monomers and the positions of glycosidic linkages
|
|
what is starch used for
|
energy storage in plant cells
|
|
what is glycogen used for
|
energy storage in animal cells
|
|
what is cellulose used for
|
structural support in cell walls of plants and many algae
|
|
what is cellulose
|
a straight chain polysaccharide composed on glucose molecules linked by means of beta glycosidic bonds
|
|
what are polysaccharides made from
|
sugar monomers by removal of water (condensation synthesis)
|
|
what is amylose
|
the form os starch that is composed of long, unbranched chains of glucose units which are joined by means of glycosidic bonds
|
|
what is amylopectin
|
the form of starch that is composed of long, branched chains of glucose units which are joined by means of alpha and glycosidic bonds
|
|
what is glycogen
|
a highly branched homopolysaccharide of D-glocose units that is a major form of storage of carbohydrate in animals; the glucose units are linked by means of alpha and alpha glycosidic bonds
|
|
what is cellulase
|
an enzyme that digests cellulose
|
|
what is chitin
|
a structural polysaccharide, its found in the exoskeleton of arthropods, it provides structural support for the cell walls of many fungi
|
|
what are lipids
|
a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules
|
|
what is the unifying feature of lipids
|
having little or no affinity for water
|
|
what are the most biologically important lipids
|
-neutral lipids (fats (oils)
-phospholipids -steroids |
|
what are fats constructed from
|
glycerol and fatty acids
|
|
what is glycerol
|
a 3-carbon alcohol with a hydroxyl group attached to each carbon
|
|
what does a fatty acid consist of
|
a carboxyl group attached to a long carbon skeleton
|
|
how do fats form
|
via dehydration reactions
|
|
what do fats consist of
|
glycerol linked by ester linkages to 3 fatty acids
|
|
describe saturated fatty acids
|
have the max # of hydrogen atoms possible and no double bonds
|
|
describe unsaturated fatty acids
|
have one or more double bonds. can be commercially hydrogenated to make margarine or shortening
|
|
what do waxes contain
|
fatty acids combined with other alcohols and hydrocarbons
|
|
what is a phospholipid
|
two fatty acids and a phosphate group attached to a glycerol
|
|
what is amphipathic
|
hydrophobic + hydrophillic
|
|
how do phospholipids arrange themselves when in an aqueous environment
|
phospholipid bilayer or phospholipid micelle
|
|
what are steroids
|
lipids characterized by a carbon skeleton consisting of 4 fused rings
|
|
what are sterols
|
steroids with a polar-OH group on one end, and a non-polar hydrocarbon on the other end
|
|
what do steroid hormones control
|
development, behavior, and biochemical processes.
|
|
where does trans fat come from
|
commercial hydrogenation of oils. it changes the texture and shelf-life, but isnt natural & its unhealthy
|
|
what are the 2 types of nucleic acids
|
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
ribonucleic acid (RNA) |
|
what is DNA
|
genetic material that organisms inherit from their parents
|
|
what does DNA contain
|
the information that cells reuire to function; genes that code for proteins
|
|
what are the components of nucleotides
|
-nitrogenous base
-pentose sugar -phosphate |
|
what are the 2 families of nitrogenous bases
|
-pyrimidines: have single 6-membered ring
-purines: have a 6-membered ring fused to a 5-membered ring |
|
what are sugars
|
poly-hydroxyaldehydes or ketones
|
|
what is glucose
|
a hexose containing 6 carbon atoms
|
|
what is ribose
|
a pentose containing 5 carbon atoms
|
|
how is the nitrogenous base linked to the other ribose sugar
|
through a bond denoted as the N-beta glycosyl bond
|
|
whats a double helix
|
2 polynucleotides spiraling around an imaginary axis in a DNA molecule
|
|
whats antiparallel
|
the arrangement in the DNA double helix,where the 2 backbones run in opposite 5'->3' directions from eachother
|
|
how do the nitrogenous bases in DNA pair up
|
-adenine with thymine
-guanine with cytosine |
|
in all cellular DNAs regardless of the species:
|
-the # of adenosine residues is equal to the # of cytidine residues
-the # of guanosine residue is equal to the # of cytidine residues -sum of purine residues equals sum of pyrimidine residues |
|
how are bases from 2 strands held together by
|
hydrogen bonds
|
|
what is base pairing used for?
|
-preserving info
-repairing mistakes -transferring info |
|
what is the primary structure of RNA
|
single strand of ribonucleotides linked by phosphodiester bonds
|
|
whats the secondary structure of RNA
|
stem-loop hairpins may form by internal H-bonding
|
|
what are the chemical differences between DNA & RNA
|
-uracil base vs. thymine base
-ribose sugar vs. deoxyribose sugar |
|
what's the function of enzymatic proteins
|
selective acceleration of chemical reactions
|
|
what's the function of structural proteins
|
support
|
|
what's the function of storage proteins
|
storage of amino acids
|
|
what's the function of transport proteins
|
transport of other substances
|
|
what's the function of hormonal proteins
|
coordination of an organism's activities
|
|
what's the function of receptor proteins
|
response of cell to chemical stimuli
|
|
what's the function of contractile and motor proteins
|
movement
|
|
what's the function of defensive proteins
|
protection against disease
|
|
what are amino acids
|
organic molecules with carboxyl and amino groups
|
|
why do amino acids differ in their properties
|
due to different side chains, called R groups
|
|
what is a protein
|
a polymer of amino acids linked to one another by peptide bonds
|
|
what is a peptide bond formation called
|
dehydration or condensation
|
|
what does a functional protein consist of
|
one or more polypeptides twisted, folded, and coiled into a unique shape
|
|
what determines a protein's 3-dimensional conformation
|
the sequence of amino acids (primary structure)
|
|
what do the coils and folds of secondary structure result from?
|
hydrogen bonds between repeating constituents of the polypeptide backbone
|
|
what are the typical secondary structures of proteins
|
-a coil called an alpha helix
-a beta pleated sheet |
|
what can depict a protein's conformation
|
ribbon models and space-filling models
|
|
what is tertiary structure of proteins determined by
|
interactions among various side chains (R groups)
|
|
what are the possible interaction between R groups?
|
-hydrogen bonds
-ionic bonds -hydrophobic interactions -van der Waals interactions |
|
what are disulfide bridges
|
strong covalent bonds
|
|
when does quarternary structure result?
|
when 2 or more polypeptide chains form one macromolecule
|
|
what is collagen
|
a fibrous protein consisting of 3 polypeptides coiled like a rope
|
|
what is hemoglobin
|
a globular protein consisting of 4 polypeptides
|
|
what is sickle-cell disease & what does it result from
|
an inherited blood disorder, results from a single amino acid substitution in the protein hemoglobin
|
|
what can cause a protein to unravel
|
alternations in pH, salt concentration, temperature, or other environmental factors
|
|
what is denaturation
|
loss of a protein's native conformation
|
|
what are chaperonins
|
protein molecules that assist the proper folding of other proteins
|
|
what has protein mis-folding been implicated in
|
cystic fibrosis, Alzheimer's, and Parkinson's
|
|
what is the cell theory
|
-all organisms are made of cells
-the cell is the functional unit of life, the simplest collection of matter that can live -all cells are descended from earlier cells |
|
what are the basic features of all cells
|
-plasma membrane
-semifluid substance called cytosol -chromosomes (carry genes) -ribosomes (make proteins) |
|
what are the 2 types of cells
|
prokaryotic or eukaryotic
|
|
what is a prokaryote
|
a simple, unicellular organism, such as bacterium, that lacks a discrete nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane, and that contains its genetic material within a single chromosome
|
|
what is a eukaryotic
|
DNA exists in chromosomes, in a nucleus thats bounded by a membranous nuclear envelope. eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles. eukaryotic cells are generally much larger than prokaryotic cells.
|
|
what are the most common shapes of prokaryotes
|
-spheres (cocci)
-rods (bacilli) -spirals |
|
what do prokaryotic cells lack?
|
nuclei and membrane-bound organelles
|
|
what is the most important feature of nearly all prokaryotic cells & why
|
their cell wall, which maintains cell shape, provides physical protection, and prevents the cell from bursting in a hypotonic environment
|
|
what is peptidoglycan
|
a network of sugar polymers cross-linked by polypeptides.
|
|
what does penicillin do
|
it inactivates the enzyme that cross-links the strands, weakening the cell wall, eventually destroying the cell.
|
|
what is a capsule
|
an outer sticky, jelly-like coat made of lipo-poly-saccharide around the bacteria
|
|
what is the gram stain used for
|
for scientists to classify many bacterial species into Gram-positive and Gram-negative groups based on cell wall composition
|
|
what is different about gram-negative bacteria
|
have less peptidoglycan and an outer membrane that can be toxic, and they are more likely to be antibiotic resistant
|
|
what is a large surface (cell membrane) needed for
|
for the cell to interact with the environment
|
|
why are cells divided into compartments
|
to reduce diffusion distances and to separate "incompatible" reactions and their products
|
|
describe bright-field microscopy
|
light passes directly through these human cells. unless natural pigments are present, there is little contrast and details are not distinguished
|
|
describe phase-contrast microscopy
|
contrast in the image is increased by emphasizing differences in refractive index (the capacity to bend light), thereby enhancing light and dark regions in the cell.
|
|
describe differential interference-contrast microscopy
|
it uses 2 beams of polarized light. the combined images look as if the cell is casting a shadow on 1 side
|
|
describe fluorescence microscopy
|
a natural substance in the cell or a flourescent dye that binds to a specific cell material is stimulated by a beam of light, and the longer wavelength fourescent light is observed coming directly from the eye
|
|
describe confocal microscopy
|
it uses fluorescent materials but adds a system of focusing both the stimulating and emitted light so that s single plane through the cell is seen.
|
|
describe stained bright-field microscopy
|
a stain added to preserve cells enhances contrast and reveals details not otherwise visible.
|
|
what are the 2 basic types of electron microscopes
|
-scanning electron microscopes: focus a beam of electrons onto the surface of a specimen, providing images that look 3D
-transmission electron microscopes (TEMs): focus a beam of electrons through thin sections of a specimen |
|
what are TEMs used for
|
mainly to study the internal ultrastructure of cells
|
|
describe transmission electron microscopy
|
a beam of electrons is focused on the object by magnets. objects appear darker if they absorb the electrons. if the electrons pass through they are detected on a fluorescent screen.
|
|
describe scanning electron microscopy
|
directs eletrons to the surface of the sample, where they cause other electrons to be emitted. these electrons are viewed on a screen. the 3-dimensional surface of the object can be visualized.
|
|
describe freeze-fracture microscopy
|
cells are frozen and then a knife is used to crack them open. they crack often passes through the interior of plasma and internal membranes. the "bumps" that appear are usually large proteins embedded in the interior of the membrane
|
|
what does cell fractionation do
|
it takes cells apart and seperates the major organelles from one another, by size, using high-speed centrifuges
|
|
what is the plasma membrane
|
the membrane at the boundary of every cell that acts as a selective barrier, thus regulating the cells chemical composition
|
|
what is the nucleus
|
the genetic library of the cell, contains most of the cell's genes
|
|
what is chromatin
|
the complex of DNA and protein that makes up the eukaryotic chromosome. when the cell isnt dividing, it isnt visible with a light microscope
|
|
what is nucleolus
|
a region in the nucleus active in the synthesis of ribosomal RNA and ribosome assembly
|
|
what is a nuclear envelope
|
the double membrane in eukaryotes that encloses the nucleus separating it from the cytoplasm
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what is nuclear lamina
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the nuclear side of the envelope containing protein filaments (intermediate filaments) that maintain the shape of the nucleus
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what is nuclear pore complex
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the multi-protein structure forming a channel through the nuclear envelope allowing selected molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm
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what is a ribosome
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a particle composed of ribosomal RNA and ribosomal proteins that associates with messenger RNA and catalyzes the synthesis of protein
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which 2 locations do ribosomes carry out protein synthesis in
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-in the cytosol (free ribosomes)
-on the outside of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) or the nuclear envelope (bound ribosomes) |
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what does the endomembrane system do
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it regulates protein traffic and performs metabolic functions in the cell
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what are the components of the endo (within) membrane system
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-nuclear envelope
-endoplasmic reticulum -golgi apparatus -lysosomes -vacuoles -plasma membrane |
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what is the endoplasmic reticulum
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a network of membranous tubules and sacs within the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, where lipids are synthesized and membrane bound proteins and secretory proteins are made
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what is the different between smooth ER & rough ER
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smooth ER lacks ribosomes but rough ER has ribosomes studding its cytosolic surface
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what is smooth ER involved in
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lipid synthesis, carbohydrate metabolism, detoxification (liver), calcium storage
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what is rough ER involved in
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the synthesis of membrane bound proteins and secretory proteins, which are distributed by transport vesicles
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what is the golgi apparatus
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the shipping and recieving center
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what is cisternae
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flattened membranous sacs in the golgi apparatus
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what are the functions of the golgi apparatus
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-modifies proteins and lipids made in the ER, and sorts and packages them into transport vesicles
-manufactures macromolecules, such as cell wall polysaccharides in plants and extracellular matrix glycosaminoglycans in animal cells. |
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what is a lysosome
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a membranous sac of hydrolytic enzymes found in animal cells. its produced by the ER + Golgi
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what is tay-sachs caused by
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mutation in gene encoding an enzyme that digests gangliosides, a fatty acid found in brain and nerve cells.
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what are vacuoles
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membrane-bound sacs with varied functions
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what are food vacuoles formed by
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phagocytosis
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what do contractile vacuoles do
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pump excess water out of cells
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what do central vacuoles do
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hold organic compounds and water
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what is tonoplast
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membrane that surrounds the central vacuole
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what is mitochondria the site of
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cellular respiration
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what are chloroplasts the sites of
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photosynthesis
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what do mitochondria produce
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ATP, the cells energy currency
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whats the structure of mitochondria
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they have a smooth outer membrane and a higly folded inner membrane. the inner membrane creates 2 compartments: intermembrane space and mitochondrial matrix. the membrane folds, called cristae, present a large surface are for membrane bound enzyme complexes that synthesize ATP
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what does chloroplast structure include
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-thylakoids, membranous sacs
-stroma, the internal fluid |
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what is the peroxisome
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a membrane-bounded organelle that uses molecular oxygen to oxidize organic molecules. in the process, hydrogen peroxide is produced.
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what are the functions of peroxisome?
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-detoxification of alcohols and other compounds
-breaking down fatty acids |
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what is the cytoskeleton
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a network of fibers that organizes structures and activities in the cell
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what does the cytoskeleton do
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helps to support the cell and maintain its shape
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what are the 2 networks that comprise the cytoskeleton
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-microfilaments
-intermediate filaments -microtubules |
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what are microtubules
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hollow rods about 25nm in diameter and variable length
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what are functions of microtubules
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-shaping the cell
-guiding movement of organelles |
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what is the centrosome
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a "microtubule-organizing center: from which spindle microtubules grow out of
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how do microtubules polymerize (grow) & depolymerize (shrink)
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by adding and removing heterodimers
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what are kinesins
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motor molecules that move various types of vesicles along microtubule tracks.this process is ATP dependent.
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what does cilia do
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it circulates fluids, moves egg into oviduct, lines air passages to sweep mucus containing bacteria, pollutants, etc.
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what is flagella required for
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sperm motility
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what is the common ultrastructure that cilia and flagella share
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a core of microtubules , called an axoneme, sheathed by the plasma membrane
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what is dynein
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a motor protein which "walks" along the microtubules causing them to bend
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what are microfilaments
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solid rods about 7nm in diameter, built as a twisted double chain of actin subunits
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what is the structural role of microfilaments
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to bear tension, resisting pulling forces within the cell
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what are microfilaments formed by
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actin subunits
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what is actin
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the most abundant intracellular protein in a eukaryotic cell
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what are the 2 forms in which actin exists
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-G-actin, a globular monomer
-F-actin, a linear polymer of G-actin subunits |
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what does each actin molecule contain
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a Mg+2 complexed with either ATP or ADP
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what is cytoplasmic streaming
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a circular flow of cytoplasm within cells
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what do intermediate filaments do
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support cell shape and fiz organelles, including the nucleus, in place, and are more permanent than MT and MF
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what are nuclear lamins
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dense mesh under nuclear envelope that anchors the chromosomes and shapes the nucleus
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what are vimentins
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the type of IF found in fibroblasts (connective tissue)
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what are extracellular structures of the cell
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-cell walls of plants
-the extracellular matrix (ECM) of animal cells -intercellular junctions |
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what is the cell wall
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an extracellular structure that distinguishes plant cells from animal cells;it protects the plant cell, maintains its shape, and prevents uptake of water
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what are cell wall made of
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cellulose microfibrils embedded in a matrix of other highly branched polysaccharides and protein
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what is middle lamella
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thin layer of "sticky" polysaccharides between primary walls of adjacent cells
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what are plasmodesmata
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channels between adjacent plant cells, ions, small molecules pass
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what are the functions of the ECM (extracellular matrix)
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-protection
-support -adhesion -movement -regulation |
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what are integrins
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membrane proteins that connect ECM to cytoskeletal-associated proteins
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what is glycoprotein
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large proteins like collagen and fibronectin, with small CHO
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what happens at tight junctions
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membranes of neighboring cells are pressed together, preventing leakage of extracellular fluid
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what do desmosomes (anchoring junctions) do
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fasten cells together into strong sheets
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what do gap junctions (communication junctions) do
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provide cytoplasmic channels between adjacent cells
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what does the chromosome theory of inheritance state
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-mendelian genes have specific loci (positions) on chromosomes
-chromosomes undergo segregation and independent assortment |
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what does the law of segregation state
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that the 2 alleles for each gene separate during gamete formation
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what does the law of independent assortment state
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alleles of genes on non homologous chromosomes assort independently during gamete formation
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where does the first solid evidence associating a specific gene with a specific chromosome come from
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Thomas Hunt Morgan, an embryologist
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what make fruit flies a convenient organism for genetic studies
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-they breed at a high rate
-a generation can be bred every 2 weeks -they have only 4 pairs of chromosomes |
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what is wild type
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normal phenotype
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what are mutant phenotypes
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traits alternative to the wild type
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what does the chromosomal theory of inheritance state
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that genes are present on chromosomes
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what are linked genes
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genes located on the same chromosome that tend to be inherited together
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what is genetic recombination
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the production of offspring with combinations of traits differing from either parent
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what are parental types
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offspring with a phenotype matching one of the parental phenotypes
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what are recombinant types or recombinants
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offspring with nonparental phenotypes (new combinations of traits)
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what does crossing over of homologous chromosomes do
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it breaks the physical connection between genes on the same chromosome
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what is a genetic map
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an ordered list of the genetic loci along a particular chromosome
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what did Alfred Sturtevant predict about genes
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that the farther apart 2 genes are, the higher the probablility that a crossover will occur between them and therefore the higher the recombination frequency
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what is a linkage map
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a genetic map of chromosome based on recombination frequencies
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what are cytological maps
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they indicate the position of genes with respect to chromosomal features
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what are single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
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anonymous markers which can be detected by molecular techniques, such as PCR and DNA sequencing
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what are hermaphrodites
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organisms that have both male and female organs and produce both typed of gametes
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what are dioecious organisms
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they come in 2 sexes, male or female, and each individual will produce only 1 type of gamete
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an individual who inherits 2 X chromosomes usually develop as what?
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a female
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an individual who inherits an X and a Y chromosome usually develops as what?
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a male
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what a SRY
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sex determining region Y chromosome, its a transcription factor required from testis production
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what is DAZ
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another Y chromosome gene required for sperm production
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what can the differences between Y chromosomes be used for?
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to establish or reconstruct paternal lineages
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what is a Barr Body
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when one X chromosome per cell condenses into a compact object
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what is a sex-linked gene
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a gene located on either sex chromosome
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what does a female need for a recessive sex-linked trait to be expressed?
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2 copies of the allele
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what does a male need for a recessive sex-linked trait to be expressed?
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one copy of the allele
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what are some disorders caused by recessive alleles on the X chromosome in humans?
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-color blindness
-duchenne muscular dystrophy -hemophilia |
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what did James Watson and Francis Crick introduce?
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an elegant double-helical model for the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA
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what does the DNA program direct the development of?
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biochemical, anatomical, physiological, and behavioral traits
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what is the phenomenon transformation?
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a change in genotype and phenotype due to assimilation of foreign DNA
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what are bacteriophages (phages)
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viruses widely used in molecular genetics research
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what happens during DNA replication
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the parent molecule unwinds, and 2 new daughter strands are built based on base-pairing rules
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what does watson and crick's semiconservative model of replication predict?
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that when a double helix replicates, each daughter molecule will have one old strand and one newly made strand
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what is conservative replication
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the original chromosome is copied but remains unchanged. one chromosome is composed of old strands and the other of new strands
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what is dispersive replication
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the replication process generates 2 new chromosomes, with new and old sections of DNA mixed together randomly.
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where does replication begin
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at the origins of replication, where the 2 DNA strands are separated, opening up a replication "bubble"
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what is the rate of elongation in bacteria?
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500 nucleotides per second
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what is the rate of elongation in human cells?
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50 per second
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what is a nucleoside triphosphate
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each nucleotide that is added to a growing DNA strand
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what happens as each monomer of dNTP joins the DNA strand?
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it loses 2 phosphate groups as a molecule of pryophosphate
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what is the initial nucleotide strand?
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a short RNA primer
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what is primase?
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an enzyme that can start RNA chain from scratch and adds RNA nucleotides one at a time using the parental DNA as a template
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what is a replication fork?
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a Y-shaped region where new DNA strands are elongating
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what are helicases
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enzymes that untwist the double helix at the replication forks (the protein pulls itself along the DNA strand, mechanically separating the strands, using energy from ATP hydrolysis)
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what does single-stranded binding protein do
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it binds to and stabilizes single-stranded DNA until it can be used as a template (these are proteins with "+" charged domains that interact with DNA, and other domains that interact with 1 another)
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what does topoisomerase do
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it corrects "overwinding" ahead of replication forks by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands
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what is the lagging strand
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the other new strand of DNA; it is synthesized as a series of segments called Okazaki fragments, which are joined together by DNA ligase
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what is the function of the protein helicase
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unwinds parental double helix at replication forks
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what is the function of the single-strand binding protein
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binds to and stabilizes single-stranded DNA until it can be used as a template
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what is the function of the protein topoisomerase
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relieves "overwinding" strain ahead of replication forks by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands
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what is the function of the protein primase
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synthesizes an RNA primer at 5' end of leading strand and of each okazaki fragment ofl agging strand
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what is the function of the protein DNA pol III
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using parental DNA as a template, synthesizes new DNA strand by covalently adding nucleotides to the 3' end of a pre-existing DNA strand or RNA primer
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what is the function of the protein DNA pol I
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removes RNA nucleotides of primer from f' end and replaces them with DNA nucleotides
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what is the function of the protein DNA ligase
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joins 3' end of DNA that replaces primer to rest of leading strand and joins okazaki fragments of lagging strand
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why can DNA polymerase remove the mismatched base in DNA
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because its epsilon subunit acts as a 3'-5' exonuclease that removes deoxyribonucleotides from DNA
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what is a nuclease
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an enzyme that breaks phosphodiester bonds that join nucleotides
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when does mismatched repair occur?
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when mismatched bases remain after DNA synthesis is complete. mismatch repair enzymes recognize the mismatched pair, remove a section of the newly synthesized strand that contains the incorrect base, and fill in the correct bases.
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what are telomeres
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bona fide DNA ends that dont prevent the shortening of DNA molecules, but they do postpone the erosion of genes near the ends of DNA molecules
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how have cancer cells attained immortality?
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by overexpressing the gene that encodes an enzyme called telomerase
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what happens during recombinant DNA?
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nucleotide sequences from 2 different sources, often 2 species are combines in vitro into the same DNA molecule
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what do restriction enzymes do
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recognize DNA sequences termed restriction (cleavage) sites
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what is palindromes
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when it is the same sequence read 5' to 3'
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why can any 2 restriction fragments be joined together
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because they have complementary overhangs (single-stranded) regions that are stabilized by hydrogen bonding
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what does cloning a gene mean?
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that a gene (or piece of DNA) is isolated, ligated into a suitable cloning vector, and amplified
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what are plasmids
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double stranded circular DNA, the most common cloning bectors
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what must a cloning vector contain to be useful?
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-origins of replication (E. coli)
-selectable marker -unique restriction sites to allow ligation of fragment |
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what is a genomic library
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a collection of recombinant molecules which represent the entire genome of an organism
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what is a bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC)
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a large plasmid that has been trimmed down and can carry a large DNA insert
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what do cDNA libraries contain?
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recombinant fragments that correspond only to the small portion of the genome that is actually expressed
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how is a complementary DNA (cDNA) library made?
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by cloning DNA made in vitro by reverse transcription of all the mRNA produced by a particular cell
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what a gel electrophoresis
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a technique that uses a gel as a molecular sieve (filter) to separate nucleic acids or proteins by size
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what is hybridization
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a phenomenon in which your DNA of interest is denatured and allowed to re-anneal with a "probe" which is complementary to it
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what is an expression vector
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a cloning vector that contains a highly active prokaryotic promoter
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what 3 step cycle brings about a chain reaction that produces an exponentially growing population of identical DNA molecules
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heating, cooling, and replication
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what 3 steps does each PCR involve?
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-denaturation
-annealing of primers -DNA synthesis |
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what sources has PCR amplified DNA from?
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-tiny amount of blood, seme, saliva, skin cells, hair follicles, etc found at crime scenes
-single embryonic cells for rapid prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders -DNA of viral genes from cell infected with difficult to detect viruses such as HIV or hepatitis viruses -fragments of ancient DNA |
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what do some polymorphisms have to do with?
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the copy number of STR's (short tandem repeats)
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how can relatively short DNA fragments by sequenced?
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by the dideoxy chain termination method
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what do DNA microarray assays do
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compare patterns of gene expression in different tissues, at different times, or under different conditions
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what happens during in vitro mutagenesis
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mutations are introduced into a cloned gene, altering or destroying its function
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how can gene expression be silenced?
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using RNA interference (RNAi)
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what does organismal cloning produce?
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one or more organisms genetically identical to the "parent" that donated the single cell
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what is a totipotent cell
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a cell that can generate a complete new organism
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what happens during nuclear transplantation
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the nucleus of an unfertilized egg cell or zygote is replaced with the nucleus of a differentiated cell
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what is a stem cell
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a relatively unspecialized cell that can reproduce itself indefinitely and differentiate into specialized cells of one or more types
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what are embryonic stem cells
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stem cells isolated from early embryos at the blastocyst stage
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what is the aim of stem cell research
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to supply cells for the repair of damaged of diseased organs
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what is gene therapy
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-the alteration of an afflicted individual's genes as a means of disease treatment
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what requirement is there for gene therapy of somatic cells to be permanent
|
the cells that recieve the normal allele must be the ones that multiply throughout the patient's life
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what are vectors used for
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delivery of genes into specific types of cell
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what medically important proteins can be produced in bacteria?
|
-human insulin
-atrial peptides -interferon -tissue plasminogen activator -human growth hormone |
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how are transgenic animals made
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by introducing genes from one species into the genome of another animal
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what are transgenic animals
|
pharmaceutical "factories", producers of large amounts of otherwise rare substance for medical use
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what can genetic engineering be used for
|
to modify the metabolism of microorganisms
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what is EnviroPig engineered for
|
to carry the gene for the enzyme phytase, which breaks down phosphorus in feed and reduces excretion of harmful phosphates in the environment
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why has adoption of genetically modified (GM) crops resisted in some areas?
|
because of questions abouot
-crop safety for human consumption -movement of genes into wild relatives -loss of biodiversity |