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53 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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Which of the following are weapons of mass
destruction? 1. Chemical weapons 2. Biological agents 3. Nuclear weapons 4. All of the above |
Weapons of mass destruction, such as chemical, biological, and radiological (CBR)warfare
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Which of the following warfare agents are used to kill or disable personnel by affecting their blood, nerves, lungs, or stomach?
1. CW 2. BW 3. Nuclear 4. All of the above |
In chemical warfare (CW) operations, chemical agents can kill or disable personnel by affecting their blood, nerves, eyes, skin, lungs, or stomach.
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Generally, antipersonnel agents are divided
into how many types? 1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
Broadly speaking, there are two types of antipersonnel agents—casualty and incapacitating.
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Cramps, breathing difficulty, nausea,
headache, convulsions, and contractions of the pupils are all symptoms of which of the following types of contamination? 1. Tear agent 2. Nerve agent 3. Choking agent 4. Blister agent |
Nerve agent
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Burns from exposure to mustard vapor will be more serious in which of the following body areas?
1. Neck 2. Groin 3. Armpits 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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A person exposed to a blood agent may
experience respiratory paralysis within what length of time? 1. Seconds 2. Minutes 3. Hours |
• High Exposure (high concentrations)
o The onset is rapid, often within minutes. Symptoms include transient increased rate and depth of breathing; convulsions (within 30 seconds); apnea; cardiac arrest (within a few minutes) |
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Atropine and 2-PAM C1 oxime are used
to counteract the effects and relieve the symptoms of which of the following agents? 1. Nerve 2. Blood 3. Blister 4. Choking |
The rapid action of nerve agents calls for immediate administration of the antidotes atropine and pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM C1).
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What type of agents are used to produce
temporary misery and harassment? 1. Blister 2. Choking 3. Riot control 4. Nerve |
RCAs are classified as either tear agents or vomiting agents and are characterized by very low toxicity and brief action. They are used to produce temporary misery and harassment.
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Which of following agents can be used
in BW operations? 1. Living organisms 2. Toxins 3. Microtoxins 4. All of the above |
Biological warfare (BW) is the intentional use of living organisms, toxins, and microtoxins to disable or to destroy people and domestic animals, damage crops, or deteriorate supplies.
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Which of the following diseases can be
spread as part of a BW attack? 1. Cholera 2. Anthrax 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Mumps |
Microorganisms can spread diseases, such as anthrax, typhoid fever, cholera, and influenza.
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In its early stage, which of the following
is/are symptoms of BW attack? 1. Fever 2. Inflammation 3. Malaise 4. Each of the above |
In the early stages of any biological disease, the general symptoms include fever, malaise, and inflammation.
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Nuclear weapons have the capability of
destroying areas in which of the following ways? 1. Blast 2. Shock 3. Nuclear radiation 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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Nuclear explosions are divided into how many classes?
1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
high altitude blast, an air blast, a surface blast, and a subsurface blast.
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What would be the most effective type of
nuclear strike to use against a battle group at sea? 1. High altitude blast 2. Air blast 3. Surface blast 4. Subsurface burst |
An air blast would be most effective to use against a battle group at sea because it would structurally damage and/or sink many ships.
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What type of nuclear strike would be
used to destroy satellites and interrupt communications systems through the effects of EMP? 1. High altitude blast 2. Air blast 3. Surface blast 4. Subsurface burst |
A high altitude blast is defined as a blast that takes place above 100,000 feet. The major aim of this blast is to destroy or interrupt satellites and communication systems through the effect of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP).
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In what type of nuclear strike would the
shock wave near ground zero be greater than the blast wave? 1. High altitude blast 2. Air blast 3. Surface blast 4. Subsurface burst |
Most of the damage caused by a surface blast is due to the shock (or blast) wave that accompanies the explosion.
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What are the effects of nuclear weapons?
1. Blast waves only 2. Incendiary only 3. Radiation only 4. Blast waves, incendiary, and radiation |
Blast waves, incendiary, and radiation
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If a nuclear blast at night causes you to
experience flash blindness, you can expect your vision to recover in what length of time? 1. 15 minutes 2. 2 hours 3. 3 hours 4. 45 minutes |
Flash blindness is normally temporary, though, the eyes can recover in about 15 minutes in the daytime and in about 45 minutes at night.
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You should be able to don and adjust your
protective mask in what maximum amount of time? 1. 10 seconds 2. 20 seconds 3. 30 seconds 4. 40 seconds |
You should be able to don (put on) and adjust your mask within 10 seconds.
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The MCU-2/P protective mask has how
many voice emitters? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
Two voice emitters
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In its early stage, which of the following
is/are symptoms of BW attack? 1. Fever 2. Inflammation 3. Malaise 4. Each of the above |
In the early stages of any biological disease, the general symptoms include fever, malaise, and inflammation.
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Nuclear weapons have the capability of
destroying areas in which of the following ways? 1. Blast 2. Shock 3. Nuclear radiation 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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Nuclear explosions are divided into how many classes?
1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
high altitude blast, an air blast, a surface blast, and a subsurface blast.
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What would be the most effective type of
nuclear strike to use against a battle group at sea? 1. High altitude blast 2. Air blast 3. Surface blast 4. Subsurface burst |
An air blast would be most effective to use against a battle group at sea because it would structurally damage and/or sink many ships.
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What type of nuclear strike would be
used to destroy satellites and interrupt communications systems through the effects of EMP? 1. High altitude blast 2. Air blast 3. Surface blast 4. Subsurface burst |
A high altitude blast is defined as a blast that takes place above 100,000 feet. The major aim of this blast is to destroy or interrupt satellites and communication systems through the effect of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP).
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In what type of nuclear strike would the
shock wave near ground zero be greater than the blast wave? 1. High altitude blast 2. Air blast 3. Surface blast 4. Subsurface burst |
Most of the damage caused by a surface blast is due to the shock (or blast) wave that accompanies the explosion.
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What are the effects of nuclear weapons?
1. Blast waves only 2. Incendiary only 3. Radiation only 4. Blast waves, incendiary, and radiation |
Blast waves, incendiary, and radiation
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If a nuclear blast at night causes you to
experience flash blindness, you can expect your vision to recover in what length of time? 1. 15 minutes 2. 2 hours 3. 3 hours 4. 45 minutes |
Flash blindness is normally temporary, though, the eyes can recover in about 15 minutes in the daytime and in about 45 minutes at night.
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You should be able to don and adjust your
protective mask in what maximum amount of time? 1. 10 seconds 2. 20 seconds 3. 30 seconds 4. 40 seconds |
You should be able to don (put on) and adjust your mask within 10 seconds.
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The MCU-2/P protective mask has how
many voice emitters? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
Two voice emitters
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What is TREE?
1. The absorption of EMP by electrical conductors 2. Interference of passive sonar systems 3. The affect of gamma or neutron radiation on shipboard electronic systems 4. Interference of radio transmission through ion fields |
TRANSIENT RADIATION EFFECTS ON ELECTRONICS (TREE)
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A survey team is made up of what minimum
number of personnel? 1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
A survey team, or monitoring party, consists of a minimum of three people—a monitor, a recorder, and a messenger.
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What person is in charge of a survey team?
1. Monitor 2. Recorder 3. Messenger 4. Exec |
The monitor is in charge of the party.
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Areas contaminated by CW, BW, or nuclear
agents are identified by markers having what shape? 1. Triangular 2. Hexagonal 3. Circular 4. Square |
The markers are triangular in shape, with a base of approximately 11 1/2 inches and sides of about 8 inches.
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What type of radiation hazard must enter the body through ingestion or cuts to cause bodily harm?
1. Alpha particles 2. Beta particles 3. Gamma rays 4. Neutrons |
Alpha particles have little skin-penetrating power and must be taken into the body through ingestion or cuts to be injurious.
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The nonself-reading, high-range casualty
dosimeter measures what maximum amount of gamma radiation? 1. 5 roentgens 2. 200 roentgens 3. 600 roentgens 4. 200 milliroentgens |
Its range is 0 to 600 roentgens.
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What kit is used to check areas suspected
to have been contaminated by CW agents? 1. M248A2 kit 2. M256A1 kit 3. M258A1 kit 4. M262A2 kit |
Special detection equipment, such as the M256A1 vapor sample detector kit and the M8 and M9 liquid chemical agent papers, is used to detect CW agents.
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Which of the following actions should
personnel topside take if an airburst occurs? 1. Close their eyes 2. Drop to the deck 3. Cover as much exposed skin as possible 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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Which of the following pieces of protective
equipment is/are the most important in protecting you against CBR agents? 1. Coveralls 2. Protective mask 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Steel-toed shoes |
The protective mask, or gas mask, is your most important piece of protective equipment against CBR agents.
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Protective masks serve how many functions?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
The mask serves two functions:
1. It filters the air, removing particles of dust that may be radioactive or otherwise contaminated. 2. It purifies the air of many poisonous gases. |
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You should be able to don and adjust your
protective mask in what maximum amount of time? 1. 10 seconds 2. 20 seconds 3. 30 seconds 4. 40 seconds |
You should be able to don (put on) and adjust your mask within 10 seconds.
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The MCU-2/P protective mask has how
many voice emitters? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
Two voice emitters
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The chemical protective overgarment
consists of how many parts? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
The chemical-protective overgarment consists of two pieces—a smock and trousers.
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The chemical protective overgarment can
be used for protection against radiological contamination. 1. True 2. False |
The protective overgarment protects against all CBR agents and is permeable to water vapor.
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Which of the following statements best
describes the purpose of the mission oriented protective posture (MOPP)? 1. Provides a means to establish levels of readiness 2. Provides a method for identifying agents 3. Provides a means to prevent contaminants from entering the ship 4. Provides a method for cleansing the ship of CBR agents |
Mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) is a means of establishing levels of readiness.
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At what MOPP level would all protective
equipment be worn with the hood up and secured? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
MOPP Level-3
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How many levels of decontamination
are there? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
There are four levels of decontamination—
emergency personnel decontamination, limited operational decontamination, operationally complete decontamination, and complete decontamination. |
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A decontamination team usually consists
of how many people? 1. Five 2. Two 3. Six 4. Four |
Decontamination teams are formed to hose and scrub down the ship. A team usually consists of six people—the monitor, who is in charge; two hosemen; and three other team members.
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What is the most effective way to
decontaminate biological agents? 1. Burning 2. Using dry heat 3. Using steam under pressure 4. Using a chemical disinfectant |
Using a chemical disinfectant is the most effective way to decontaminate BW agents
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Aboard ship, a decontamination station
has how many parts? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
Each decon station is divided into three parts—
1. A contaminated or an unclean area 2. A washing area 3. A clean area |
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Showering will destroy nuclear and biological agents.
1. True 2. False |
Remember that showering doesn’t destroy nuclear agents or many of the BW agents—it merely washes them away.
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The Collective Protection System (CPS)
consists of how many protection zones? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
The system is divided into two
protection zones: 1. The total protection (TP) zone, which provides a pressurized, toxic-free environment 2. The limited protection (LP) zone, which isn’t pressurized and doesn’t provide protection against gaseous chemical agents |
The collective protection system (CPS) protects specific areas of the ship from the effects of CBR contamination by filtering the air supply and maintaining an overpressure to prevent the penetration of contaminants.
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Which of the following CPS levels provides
the maximum operational protection envelope? 1. Level I 2. Level II 3. Level III 4. Level IV |
Level III—the maximum operational protection envelope. Level III provides sufficient protection of the ship for mission requirements, but does not include launching aircraft or troops.
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