Bacteriology Quiz 1

Front 1

what are the biological warfare bacteria? 7 of them

Back 1

1. bacillus anthracis
2. clostridium botulinum
3. yersinia pestis
4. francisella tularenisis
5. burkholderia mallei
6. salmonella typhimurium
7. brucella species

Front 2

what does bacillus antracis look like?

Back 2

large capsulated rod. Spores are highly resistant, and inhalation can lead to rapidly fatal disease.

Front 3

what is an example of cocci shaped bacteria?

Back 3

staphlococcus aureus (cocci in bunches)
streptococci (cocci in chains)

Front 4

what is an example of straight rods?

Back 4

pseudomonas, E. coli

Front 5

what is an example of curved rods?

Back 5

camplyobacter jejuni

Front 6

what is and example of branching bacteria?

Back 6

actinomyces, nocardia, dermatophilus

Front 7

what is an example of spiral shaped bacteria?

Back 7

leptospira, borrelia

Front 8

what is an example of cocco-bacillary shaped bacteria?

Back 8

pasteurella (often)

Front 9

what is an example of pleomorphic bacteria??

Back 9

corynebacterium

Front 10

what is an example of bacteria with no particular shape?

Back 10

mycoplasma.

Front 11

what does cocco-bacillary mean?

Back 11

rods which appear very short or ovoid (pasteurella multocida) often appears in this form

Front 12

what does pleomorphic mean?

Back 12

refers to various forms as irregular shapes within a single species or strain (corynebacterium may appear as rods or club shaped forms. cell arrangements like chinese letters may sometimes be seen).

Front 13

what color is gram positive?

Back 13

blue

Front 14

what color is gram negative?

Back 14

red

Front 15

what are some exceptions to gram stains?

Back 15

old gram-positive may stain red and appear as gram-neg.

bipolar

acid-fat mycobacterium

giemsa or sliver stain for spirochetes

Front 16

what are pseudomonas and e.coli look like after being stained?

Back 16

gram-negative rods

Front 17

what does campylobacter jejuni look like after its been stained?

Back 17

curved gram negative rods

Front 18

what does camplyobacter jejuni look like in an electron micrograph?

Back 18

curved rods

Front 19

what do Actinomyces and Nocardia look like when they are stained?

Back 19

gram positive branching bacteria.

Front 20

what does Dermatophilus look like after its been stained?

Back 20

gram-positive branching bacterium that appears like a railroad track.

Front 21

what is the primary stain in acid-fast staining?

Back 21

pink/ red

Front 22

what is the counter stain after decolorization in acid-fast staining?

Back 22

blue

Front 23

what does negative staining using india ink show of the bacterium?

Back 23

capsule as a clear halos around the bacterium

Front 24

what two bacteria form spores, that we have learned so far?

Back 24

clostridia and bacillus

Front 25

what are the 7 components of a bacteria outer envelope?

Back 25

1. capsule
2. flagella
3. pili or fimbriae
4. outer membrane/LPS (gram neg.)
5. periplastic space (gram neg.)
6. cell wall (absent in mycoplasma)
7. inner membrane

Front 26

give an example of a bacteria with a capsule

Back 26

they all have them

Front 27

can you see flagella with a gram-stain?

Back 27

no

Front 28

what sort of appendage does Salmonella have?

Back 28

flagella

Front 29

what sort of appendage does E. coli have?

Back 29

flagella and pili (fimbriae)

Front 30

what are 2 examples of bacteria that can form spores?

Back 30

Clostriudium and bacilllus

Front 31

what type of antigen is in the flagella?

Back 31

H-antigen

Front 32

what is the protein in the flagella?

Back 32

flagellin

Front 33

what is the function of the flagella?

Back 33

responsible for motility

Front 34

how can motility differentiate bacteria?

Back 34

most e.coli and salmonella are motile, wheras klebsiella are non-motile. All of these are enteric bacteria.

Front 35

how is motilty determined?

Back 35

by direct microscopic examination of wet mounts from broth culture, or by inoculation of soft agar in tubes using a straight wire, and looking for growth away from stab line after incubation.

Front 36

who is the father of microbiology? the first guy to visualize bacteria.

Back 36

anthony leeuwenhoek

Front 37

who had the germ theory of dz, culture of bacteria, attenuation, vaccination (antrax, fowl, cholera)

Back 37

Pasteur

Front 38

what were the ideas of Fracastorius of Itally 1546?

Back 38

living germs cause communicable dz.

Front 39

what did Koch reproduce and how?

Back 39

antrax by innoculation of pure cultures

Front 40

what are koch's postulates?

Back 40

1. agent should be isolated
2. pure culture on inoculation should reproduce the disease.
3. agent should be isolated again from the animal.

Front 41

what did Koch discover?

Back 41

mycobacterium (tuberculosis)

Front 42

what did Koch isolate?

Back 42

vibrio cholerae

Front 43

what is Joseph lister famous for?

Back 43

aspesis in surgery

Front 44

what is Karl Abbe famous for?

Back 44

oil immersion lens

Front 45

what is Christian Gram famous for?

Back 45

Gram stain

Front 46

what is salmon, the vet, famous for?

Back 46

salmonella

Front 47

what is shiga of Japan famous for?

Back 47

shigella

Front 48

what are some other great developments amongst the bact world?

Back 48

recognition of limitations to koch's posulates

development of mycology

Front 49

what bacteria is very common amongst cojuntivitis in cats?

Back 49

mycoplasm

Front 50

what do bacterial spores look like?

Back 50

highly resistant thick walled oval or spherical bodies

Front 51

how long does it take for bacteria to double in number?

Back 51

20 minutes

Front 52

how long does it take mycobacterium tuberculosis to double in number?

Back 52

24 hours

Front 53

what kind of bacteria can be present in the decline phase?

Back 53

viable but not culturable bacteria.

Front 54

what do most pathogens need as nutrition to grow?

Back 54

blood agar

Front 55

what are the phases of the bacterial growth curve?

Back 55

lag phase
log exponential growth phase
stationary phase
death or logarhimic decline phase

Front 56

as for cultivation, preservation, and inactivation of bacteria what are the conditions?

Back 56

1. aerobic
a. microaerophillic
b. anaerobic
2. thermophillic
3. physchorpillic

Front 57

what pathogens can live in aerobic environments?

Back 57

most pathogens

Front 58

what pathogens like to live in microaerophillic environments?

Back 58

campylobacter jejuni

Front 59

what pathogens like to live in anaerobic environments?

Back 59

fusobacterium

Front 60

what temp. is thermophillic, and what grows at that temperature?

Back 60

45 C, C. jejuni

Front 61

what temp is psychorphillic, and what grows at that temperature?

Back 61

4 C, listeria, yersinia enterocolitica

Front 62

how does one preserve bacteria?

Back 62

freeze drying (lyophilization)
freezing at -70C
freezing in liquid nitrogen (-190 C)

Front 63

how does one inactivate bacteria?

Back 63

thermal inactivation/ sterilization
chemical inactivation (killing) by formalin
0.5% or beta-propiolactone (vaccines)

Front 64

what is the proper way to collect samples?

Back 64

1. prevent skin contaminations
2. collect samples before Abx tx
3. dry swabs are not suitable
4. held at 4 C

Front 65

what happens if a catalase test is positive? 3% hydrogen peroxide

Back 65

it bubbles e.g. staph

Front 66

how would a bacteriologist isolate organisms such as salmonella from a fecal sample?

Back 66

use a selective or enriched broth medium to isolate organisms such. The feces are first innoculated into Rappaprot or selenite broth and incubated. The ingredients in these media suppress E.coli and enterics other than Salmonella. After 18 hours, the incubation subculture is done on BA and MAC agar plates.

Front 67

what is done after isolation and indentification of bacteria?

Back 67

antibiotic sensitivity is done.

Front 68

how can brucellosis (bovine) be diagnosed?

Back 68

bacterial supsensions are mixed with serum from the animal. If antibodies are present the bacteria clump together in visible aggregates.

Front 69

what is an example of latex particle agglutination testing?

Back 69

in this test, antigen or antibody is absorbed to the surface of latex polystyrene beads. The addition of specific antibody or antigen results in agglutination. In veterinary diagnostic labs, latex agglutination tests are used to type streptococci, camplyobacters

Front 70

what are flourescent antibody (FA) tests on slides?

Back 70

an indirect FA test is used to diagnose dogs infected with brucella canis. The brucella antigen is affixed to the surface of the slide. the animals serum is diluted and placed on the slide, covering the area in which antigen was placed. if antibody is present in the serum, it will bind to its specific antigen. Unbound Ab will be removed when the slide is washed. In the second stage, anti-canine globulin conjugated dye is added and will fluoresce when exposed to UV light. The conjugated marker will already be bound to the antigen on the slide and will serve as a marker when viewed under a fluorescent microscope.

Front 71

how are ELISA tests used?
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay?

Back 71

takes more time than the previous tests. Similar to the FA, instead of flourescent dye, enzyme is used. These tests are done in microtiter (mulit well) plates. At the end of the procedure, the addition of the enzyme substrate will detect the presence of the enzymes producing a characteristic color,and thus is indiciative of the level of specific antibody. the colored product can be read visually or spectrophotometrically.

Front 72

when are ELISA used in vet. med

Back 72

lyme- borrelia burgdorferi, hemorrhagic diarrhea in dogs due to Clostridium perfringens, he presence of the toxin is diagnostic; whereas cultures of the organism from feces is not because healthy dogs may have this bacterium in their feces.

Front 73

when is serotyping used?

Back 73

used to differentiate strains of bacteria such as e. coli. serotyping can used for epidermiological studies.

Front 74

when is delayed hypersensitivity used in vet med?

Back 74

to diagnose tuberculosis, by using Tuberculin. The same is used for Mallein to diagnose glanders in horses.

Front 75

what is pathogenesis?

Back 75

the mechanism of infection and to the mechanism by which dz develops. wht

Front 76

what are the 3 bacterial pathogenesis factors?

Back 76

1. host susceptibility
2. bacterial infectivity
3. virulence factors

Front 77

what are host susceptibility factors?

Back 77

species, breed, age, sex, genetic factors, physiologic factors, indigenous microflora, and immune competence determine host susceptibility

Front 78

what are some modifying factors to the hosts susceptibilty?

Back 78

stressful environment, nutritional factors, tissue damage, immunosuppression, metabolic dysfunction, and intercurrent dz

Front 79

what are bacterial infectivity factors?

Back 79

strain, genetic variation, virulence factors, stablity of the environment, route of entry, infective dose, tissue tropism, susceptibity to the host defense.

Front 80

what are virulence factors?

Back 80

pili, non-fimbiral adhesins, capsule, toxins

Front 81

pathogen

Back 81

an organism that can cause dz.

Front 82

infection

Back 82

refers to establishment of potentially pathogenic organism in a host. Infection does not necessarily imply clinical dz. An animal may be an infected carrier, but not showing any clinical signs.

Front 83

obligate pathogen

Back 83

an organism that almost always cause disease when it encounters animals or humans (e.g bacillus annthracis)

Front 84

primary pathogen

Back 84

a microbial agent that can initiate dz on its own (chlamydophila felis causes conjunctivis in cats). Secondary infection with another organism can worsen the condition.

Front 85

secondary pathogen

Back 85

a microbial agent that invades or establishes itself in tissues that have been infected by a primary agent. e.g. staph species which are normal commensal of the eye may cause secondary infection in a cat w/ chlamydial conjunctivitis

Front 86

placenta to fetus

Back 86

brucella infection can be transmitted to the fetus via placenta, and the newborn animal may carry the organism through maturity, when clinical dz will become manifest.

Front 87

via umbilicus in newborn

Back 87

contamination of umbilicus with e.coli can result in septicemia int he neonatal animal, e.g. calf

Front 88

direct horizontal transmission

Back 88

direct: aerosol, biting, veneral, skin dz by direct contact

Front 89

indirect horizontal transmission

Back 89

(fomites) food, water, bedding, kennels, pens, etc. dz outbreaks due to salmonella commonly occur via horizontal transmission

Front 90

vertical transmission

Back 90

mother to offspring- dogs infected with brucella canis can transmit infection to the offsprings

Front 91

organ specific

Back 91

some bacteria tend to be organ specific, or they have a predilection for certain organs (e.g. s. agalactinae- mammary gland, brucella abortus- genital organs)

Front 92

what is hamburger dz caused by

Back 92

/ e.coli strands which cause hamburger dz, belong to specific serotypes, and produce Shiga toxin which damages blood vessels

Front 93

how do bacteria interact with host?

Back 93

attachment
immune escape
invasion of host cell
antigenic variation
apoptosis
toxins

Front 94

how do bacteria attach?

Back 94

capsular material, components of the outer membrane, and pili

Front 95

immune escape

Back 95

antiphagocytic capsules (klebsiella pneumonia)
cytotoxns (leukotoxin- kills leukocytes)
coagulase (clots host cell fibrin to impede the movement of the immune survellience cells.

Front 96

toxins

Back 96

exotoxins- the genes encoding these proteins may be chromosomal or plasmid (tetanus neurotoxin, E. coli enterotoxin) or bacteriophage (clostridium botulinum toxin)

endotoxin are lipid A component of lipopolysaccharides or gram-ve bacteria cell wall envelope
and endotoxins

Front 97

what are the 4 types of acquisition of virulence factors?

Back 97

mutation
transformation
transduction
conjugation

Front 98

transformation

Back 98

refers to acquisition of naked DNA from the immediate environment. For example, non-pathogenic Steptococcus pneumoniea can acquire the gene for capsule production from the environment, and become pathogenic.

Front 99

transduction

Back 99

bacteriophage mediated introduction of novel genetic info. For e.g. certain non-toxigenic clostridia can get infected with phage, and start producing botulinum toxin.

Front 100

conjugation

Back 100

process by which DNA is tranferred form a donor to a recipient. Bacteria can acquire virulence factors and antimicrobial drug resistance by these mechanisms. Acquisition of multiple drug resistance via conjugation is common among bacteria such as e. coli and salmonella.

Front 101

exotoxins

Back 101

are proteins produced by bacteria that are usually secreted into the surrounding medium, but are sometimes bound to the bacterial surface and release upon lysis. These toxins are produced by a variety of bacteria , including gram-positives and gram-negatives

Front 102

endotoxins

Back 102

are lipopolysaccharides of the outer membranes of gram-negative bacteria , and acts as a toxin in certain circumstances

Front 103

what are the activities of how exotoxins attack?

Back 103

1. types of host cells they attack
2. disease with which they are associated
3. their action

Front 104

what are some examples of the types of host cells exotoxins attack?

Back 104

neurotoxin and leukotoxin

Front 105

what are some examples with disease that exotoxins are associated with?

Back 105

tetanus toxin, cholera toxin

Front 106

what are someexamples of actions of exotoxins?

Back 106

e.g. adenylate cyclase, a toxin produced by bordetella bronchispetica, a pathogen that causes kennel cough in dogs. Verotoxin, a toxin that causes toxic effect on cells when it is combined with sulfonamines.

Front 107

what does E. coli enterotoxin cause?

Back 107

accumulation of fluid in the intestines resulting in diarrhea in neonatal pigs. It also causes ballooning of the intestinal segments. Diarrhea occurs when the enterotoxin is released.

Front 108

what does the neurotoxin Clostridium botulinum cause?

Back 108

paralysis of the tongue and causes flaccid paralysis of muscles.

Front 109

what does tetanus neurotoxin cause?

Back 109

spastic contractoin of muscles. It causes lockjaw

Front 110

is tetanus more common in horses or dogs?

Back 110

horses

Front 111

Ehrlich

Back 111

arsenical against treponema

Front 112

Fleming

Back 112

Penicillum mold and staph

Front 113

Domagk

Back 113

Sufonaminde and strep

Front 114

what antibiotics were discovered in the 1940's and 50's?

Back 114

Penicillin, Streptomycin, Tetracyclines

Front 115

What Ab's were discovered in the 50-70's?

Back 115

New Penicillins, Aminoglycosides

Front 116

what Ab's were discovered in the 70-90's?

Back 116

Cephalosporins, Quinolones

Front 117

what Ab's were discovered in the 90's?

Back 117

Fluroquinolones, very few new drugs.

Front 118

what generation of Fluoroquinolones are Cipro, Baytril, and Orbax?

Back 118

second generation

Front 119

antibiotic

Back 119

a chemical substance produced by a bacterium or fungus, or made chemically, which has the capacity to dilute solution or inhibit growth or destroy microorganisms

Front 120

broad spectrum

Back 120

(tetracyclines)

Front 121

bactericidal

Back 121

kills bacteria e.g. penicillin

Front 122

bacteriostatic

Back 122

inhibits growth e.g. tetracyclines

Front 123

narrow spectrum

Back 123

Bacitracin, Penicillin G

Front 124

how are antibiotics grouped?

Back 124

on mechanism of action e.g. cell wall inhibiitors; Penicillin

Front 125

how are antibiotics chemically grouped?

Back 125

e.g. beta lactams ring

Front 126

how are abx chosen?

Back 126

1. diagnosis
2. susceptibility of causal agent
3. nature of infection (local, systemic)
4. pharmacokinetics
5. host species, age, pregnancy

Front 127

what is the recommended dosage for antibiotics?

Back 127

3-5x MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration) gives effective blood and tissue levels against a susceptible organism w/ minimal side effects.

Front 128

what are the routes of drug administration?

Back 128

PO, IV, IM, SQ, local (eye, ear)

Front 129

can rabbits be given penicillin or cephalosporins?

Back 129

no, the penicillin group of drugs can cause fatal enteritis and death in rabbits

Front 130

can aminoglycosides such as gentimicin be given orally?

Back 130

no they are not absorbed by the GI tract and are destroyed in the stomach.

Front 131

can penicillin g be given orally?

Back 131

no, it will be destroyed in the stomach.

Front 132

what organism causes strangles in horses, what are the signs, and how is it treated?

Back 132

streptococcus equi
swollen submandibular area
penicillin

Front 133

what organism causes pink eye in cattle, what are signs, how is it treated?

Back 133

Moraxella bovis
pink eye
liquamycin-LA (long acting)

Front 134

what Abx inhibit cell wall synthesis?

Back 134

penicillins and cephalosporins

Front 135

what Abx cause damage to cell membrane?

Back 135

polymyxin

Front 136

what Abx inhibit nucleic acid synthesis or function of bacteria?

Back 136

Sulfonamindes or Quinolones

Front 137

what Abx inhibit protein synthesis?

Back 137

Tetracyclines, aminoglycosides

Front 138

what are 4 resistance mechanisms of bacteria to Abx?

Back 138

1. destruction enzymes
2. alteration of target site
3. reduction of bacterial cell permeability
4. development of alternate metabolic pathway

Front 139

what is drug resistant staph aureus's mechanism of action against Abx?

Back 139

produces beta lactamase to destroy beta lactam ring of penicillin, which inactivates the Abx

Front 140

what are the 6 major groups of antimicrobial groups of drugs?

Back 140

1. beta lactam drugs (penicillin, cephalosporins)
2. tetracyclines (doxycycline)
3.Aminoglycosides (gentamicin)
4. macrolides (erythromycin)
5. sulfonamide-trimethoprim
6. floroquinolones (enrofloxicin)

Front 141

what is pen. G's main activity and application?

Back 141

strep, coryne
strangles-horses

Front 142

what is Ampicillin, amoxycillin's main activity and application?

Back 142

Strep, coryne, and some G-ves
Resp. infections

Front 143

what is clavamox's main activity and application?

Back 143

B-lactamase producers
better (+ anaerobes)

Front 144

what are cefadroxil and ceftiofur's main activity and application?

Back 144

3rd generation: psudomonas
pseud wounds, etc.

Front 145

what are the 5 beta lactam drugs we need to know for this test?

Back 145

1. Pen. G.
2. Ampicillin, amoxy
3. Clavamox
4. Cefadroxil
5. Ceftiofur

Front 146

what is the main activity and application of tetracyclines?

Back 146

brucella, mycoplasma
+ rickettsia, chlamydia

Front 147

what is the main activity of and the application of aminoglycosides?

Back 147

Gentamicin: pseudom
otitis externa

Front 148

what is the main activity and application of Sulfa+trimethoprim?

Back 148

E.coli, bordetella
UTI, resp. infection

Front 149

what is the main activity and application of Fluoroquinolones?

Back 149

G-ves, G+ves, Psed.
UTI, resp, skin infections

Front 150

what is the main activity and application of macrolides?

Back 150

Erythromycin: campy
Camplyobacter diarrhea

Front 151

Is Pen G a broad or narrow spectrum Ab?

Back 151

narrow

Front 152

Is Ampicillin a broad or narrow spectrum Ab?

Back 152

broad

Front 153

what Ab is a potentiated pencillin?

Back 153

Ampicillin + sulbactam
amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

Front 154

what does potentiated penicillin mean?

Back 154

penicillin + beta-lactamase inhibitiors such as sulbactam and clavulanic acid

Front 155

are 1st generation cephalosporins narrow or broad spectrum ?

Back 155

narrow

Front 156

are 3rd generation cephalosporins broad or narrow spectrum?

Back 156

broad spectrum

Front 157

is cefadroxil a first or third generation cephalosporin?

Back 157

first

Front 158

is ceftiofur a 1st or 3rd generation cephalosporin?

Back 158

3rd

Front 159

is tetracycline broad or narrow spectrum?

Back 159

broad, against G+ves, G-ves (incl. brucella, mycoplasma, chylamydia)

Front 160

what is the name of the tetracycline used in cattle?

Back 160

Oxytetracycline

Front 161

what is the name of the tetracycline used in dogs?

Back 161

doxycycline

Front 162

what does Tetracycline do to enteric bacteria?

Back 162

destroys all normal flora

Front 163

what two types of bacteria are generally resistant to tetracycline?

Back 163

E.Coli and Salmonella

Front 164

what is the name of the tetracycline used in dogs?

Back 164

doxycycline

Front 165

what organism is Avian chlamydiosis caused by, what are signs, how is it treated?

Back 165

Chlamyodophila psittaci
nasal and occular discharge, diarrhea
Tetracycline

Front 166

what does Tetracycline do to enteric bacteria?

Back 166

destroys all normal flora

Front 167

what organism causes conjunctivitis in cats, what are signs, what are treatments?

Back 167

Mycoplasma felis
conjuctivitis
tetracycline

Front 168

what two types of bacteria are generally resistant to tetracycline?

Back 168

E.Coli and Salmonella

Front 169

what organism is Avian chlamydiosis caused by, what are signs, how is it treated?

Back 169

Chlamyodophila psittaci
nasal and occular discharge, diarrhea
Tetracycline

Front 170

what organism causes conjunctivitis in cats, what are signs, what are treatments?

Back 170

Mycoplasma felis
conjuctivitis
tetracycline

Front 171

what is the name of the tetracycline used in dogs?

Back 171

doxycycline

Front 172

what does Tetracycline do to enteric bacteria?

Back 172

destroys all normal flora

Front 173

what two types of bacteria are generally resistant to tetracycline?

Back 173

E.Coli and Salmonella

Front 174

what organism is Avian chlamydiosis caused by, what are signs, how is it treated?

Back 174

Chlamyodophila psittaci
nasal and occular discharge, diarrhea
Tetracycline

Front 175

what organism causes conjunctivitis in cats, what are signs, what are treatments?

Back 175

Mycoplasma felis
conjuctivitis
tetracycline

Front 176

what is the organism that causes canine monocytic ehrilichosis, how is it transmitted, what is the treatment?

Back 176

Ehrilicia canis
ticks
worldwide; tetracycline

Front 177

what is the organism that causes canine granulocytic ehrlichoisis, how is transmitted, what is the tx?

Back 177

Ehrilicia ewingii
ticks
USA- oxytetracycline

Front 178

what is the organism that causes rocky mountain spotted fever, who gets it, how is it transmitted, what is the tx?

Back 178

Rickettsia ricketsii
dogs, humans
ticks
Americas: oxytetracycline

Front 179

what is the organism that causes salmon poisoning, what is the host, what are the signs, what is tx?

Back 179

neorickettsia helminthoeca
fish with fluke
fever, v+, d+
Western US: oxytetracycline

Front 180

what is so great about oxytetracycline?

Back 180

It can last up to 5 days, it is long lasting, cattle only need on IM inj.

Front 181

what are the 5 aminoglycosides we need to know for this class?

Back 181

1. streptomycin
2. neomycin
3. kanamysin
4. gentamicin
5. amikacin, tobramycin

Front 182

streptomysin

Back 182

oldest, resistance is common

Front 183

neomycin

Back 183

better than streptomycin

Front 184

kanamycin

Back 184

slightly better than neomycin

Front 185

gentamycin

Back 185

better that strepto, neo, and kana. Esp., for G-ves inclu. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 186

Amikacin/ Tobramycin

Back 186

better than gentamycin, incl. psuedomonas

Front 187

what caues canine and feline otitis, what is it tx?

Back 187

Pseudomonas aerugionsa
Gentamicin

Front 188

What are the 4 macrolides we need to know?

Back 188

1. erythromycin
2. tylosin
3. tiamulin
4. tilmisosin

Front 189

erythromycin

Back 189

G+ves mainly (strep and staph) campy and lepto

Front 190

tylosin

Back 190

G+ves, mycoplams

Front 191

tiamulin

Back 191

used in swine esp. against actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae, brachyspira hyodysenteria

Front 192

tilmicosin

Back 192

bovine resp. des (pasturella)

Front 193

what combination of drugs are used to treat Rhodococcus equi pnemonia?

Back 193

Erythromycin and rifampin

Front 194

is sulfonamine and trimethoprim broad or narrow spectrum?

Back 194

broad

Front 195

what two bacteris is sulfonamide+ trimethoprim not effective against?

Back 195

campy and psedu.

Front 196

what 3 organisms is sulfonamide + trimethoprim used for?

Back 196

E. coli, salmonella, nocardia

Front 197

what is sulfadiazine + trimethoprim used for in dogs?

Back 197

UTI

Front 198

what is sulfadoxine + trimethoprim used for, which animals?

Back 198

large animals

Front 199

are fluorquinonlones broad or narrow spectrum?

Back 199

broad (G-ves and G+ves)

Front 200

what are 2 examples of fluoroquinolones that are used in dogs, pet birds, and reptiles?

Back 200

Enrofloxacin, orbifloxican

Front 201

the older quinolones, nalidixic acid, is it narrow or broad spectrum?

Back 201

narrow

Front 202

are fluoroquinolones effective against anaerobes?

Back 202

no

Front 203

where does fluoroquinolones distribute well to?

Back 203

urinary tract, respiratory tract, bone, skin.

Front 204

what is the human derivative of enrofloxican?

Back 204

ciprofloxacin

Front 205

the older quinolones, nalidixic acid, is it narrow or broad spectrum?

Back 205

narrow

Front 206

are fluoroquinolones effective against anaerobes?

Back 206

no

Front 207

where does fluoroquinolones distribute well to?

Back 207

urinary tract, respiratory tract, bone, skin.

Front 208

what is the human derivative of enrofloxican?

Back 208

ciprofloxacin

Front 209

bacitracin

Back 209

G+ves narrow spectrum topical application

Front 210

vancomycin

Back 210

G+ves human use mainly

Front 211

polymyxin

Back 211

G-ves

Front 212

what 3 bacteria do not need antibiotic susceptibility testing?

Back 212

Corynebacterium, Erysipelothrix, bacillus

Front 213

what results will broth dilution give in antibiotic susecptibility testing?

Back 213

MIC minimal inhibitory concentration of drg

Front 214

what is minimal inhibitory concentration?

Back 214

the lowest concentration of a drug at which the bacterium tested does not show growth. If 3 times the MIC of the drug can be achieved w/o toxic effects, the bacterium is said to be susceptible to the drug.

Front 215

what is a very common method of Ab susceptiblility testing?

Back 215

Kirby-bauer method. refer zone interpretatoin chart to determine susceptibility

Front 216

what are e-tests used for?

Back 216

MIC, used in special cases.

Front 217

what is ampicillin or amoxy used for?

Back 217

gram +ve resp. infection

Front 218

what is pen g used for?

Back 218

strep, coryne
eg. strangles, horse

Front 219

what is clavamox used for?

Back 219

b-lactamase producers and anaerobes

Front 220

what is cefadroxil or ceftiofur used for?

Back 220

3rd generation cephalo.
psuedomonas

Front 221

what are tetracyclines used for?

Back 221

brucella, mycoplasma
eg. rickettsia, chlamydia

Front 222

what are aminogylcosides used for?

Back 222

Gentamycin (can not be given PO), psuedomonas
otitis externa

Front 223

what is sulfa+ trimethoprim used for?

Back 223

E.coli, bordetella
eg. UTI, resp infect.

Front 224

what are fluroquinolones used for?

Back 224

G-ves, G+ves, Pseudo
e.g UTI, resp, skin infections
Baytril

Front 225

what are macrolides used for?

Back 225

Erythromycin: campy- camplobacter diarrhea

Front 226

what are 5 ways to sterilize and disenfect?

Back 226

1. physical agents
2. moist heat
3. dry heat
4. radiation/ UV light
5. Filtration

Front 227

moist heat

Back 227

boiling does not kill spores, autoclaving is very effective.

Front 228

dry heat

Back 228

for glassware

Front 229

radiation/ UV

Back 229

for theaters and inoculating hoods. Ionizing radiation/ gamma rays for catheters, plastic petri dishes (inactivate spores)

Front 230

filtration

Back 230

serum, injectable solutions (mycoplama will pass through)

Front 231

what are properties of ideal chemical agents?

Back 231

kill spores, acts fast, acts in organic matter, low temps, wide pH range, non-toxic, stable

Front 232

phenol coefficient

Back 232

PC 40 = 40 X killing power compared to phenol

Front 233

soluble alcohols

Back 233

rapidly bactericidal (not sporicidal)

Front 234

sterilizing gas

Back 234

ethylene oxide (limited use) (kills some spores; 4-18 hrs. exposure required)

Front 235

disinfectant gas

Back 235

formaldehyde-sporicidal (farm use)

Front 236

glutaraldehyde

Back 236

used on inanimate objects (2% sporicidal)

Front 237

halogens

Back 237

chlorides (incl. cloride dioxide), Iodines- sporcidial at right pH

Front 238

phenolics

Back 238

acts in organic matter (not sporicidal)

Front 239

detergents

Back 239

chlorhexidine (not sporicidal)

Front 240

how long can mycoplamsa survive

Back 240

3 days

Front 241

leptospira

Back 241

10 d

Front 242

mycobacterium bovis

Back 242

6 m

Front 243

salmonella

Back 243

8 m

Front 244

fungal spores

Back 244

10 m

Front 245

bacillus antracis

Back 245

> 50 y in soil

Front 246

what is the proper way to disinfect and control dz?

Back 246

autoclave, clean b4 disenfect exception- antrax. Min. of 30 min. req. contact time for disenfection. Formalin 5% spray for antrax, peracetic acid and chlorine dioxide are tuberculocidal

Front 247

can alcohols or phenolics destroy spores?

Back 247

no

Front 248

sterilization

Back 248

refers to the destruction of all forms of microbial life

Front 249

disinfection

Back 249

destruction of pathogenic microorganisms assoc. w/ inanimate objects

Front 250

antisepsis

Back 250

inactivation or destruction by chemical means, of microbes and associates with the animal

Front 251

where can you use disinfectant gas?

Back 251

on instuments, it is sporicdal but it will damage skin

Front 252

is choline dioxide sporical ?

Back 252

yes

Front 253

what is an example of hypocholorites?

Back 253

clorox

Front 254

fungi can either be filamentous branching ___ or unicellular ____, aerobic

Back 254

molds
yeast

Front 255

how long does it take to grow fungi in the lab

Back 255

1-4 weeks at 25C

Front 256

what type of agar is needed to grow fungi?

Back 256

sabouraud agar (pH 5.5)

Front 257

mycelium

Back 257

mass of hyphae (flaments)

Front 258

dimorphic

Back 258

having yeast form 37C and mycelial form 25C

Front 259

conidia

Back 259

spores

Front 260

antrhoconidia/ arthrospores

Back 260

spores from hyphal fragmentation (ring worm fungi)

Front 261

geophillic

Back 261

natural habitat is soil

Front 262

zoophillic

Back 262

animals are source

Front 263

dermatomycoses

Back 263

ring worm fungi (skin)

Front 264

yeast and yeast like fungi

Back 264

candida malasszia (dermatitis, otitis)

Front 265

subcutaneous mycoses

Back 265

sporotrichosis

Front 266

systemic mycoses

Back 266

aspergillosis, blastomycosis, histoplasmosis, coccidoidomycosis, zygomycosis

Front 267

what are some mycology lab. procedures

Back 267

wet mount
scotch tape mounts
histolgical sections
latex aggultination

Front 268

what does wet mount test for?

Back 268

dermatophytes in hair/ skin use 10% KOH

Front 269

what is a scotch tape mount?

Back 269

scotch tape mounts of the surface fo fungal colonies in lactophenol cotton blue can help in making a dx (e.g aspergillous has typical sporing head)

Front 270

how do you use histological sections to dx mycology

Back 270

histogical sections of tissue stained with PAS or Methenamine silver stain are useful in dx

Front 271

how are latex agglut. and ELISA used to dx mycology?

Back 271

latex aggult. and ELISA are used for detection of certain fungal antigens in clinical specimens. Molecular methods such as PCR may become more important in future.

Front 272

amphoterican b

Back 272

toxic

Front 273

ketoconazole (Nizoral)

Back 273

systemic use for a variey of fungal infections

Front 274

nystatin

Back 274

narrow spectrum drug. For candida infections

Front 275

grisefulvin

Back 275

given orally for ring worm infection

Front 276

what are dermatophytes?

Back 276

cause dermatomycosis or ringworm
zoonotic
alopecia, erythema, crusts
immunity assoc. w/ DTH

Front 277

how do you dx dermatomycosis?

Back 277

wood's lamp, wet mount (KOH), culture on Sabouraud's medium

Front 278

erythema

Back 278

redding of the skin, inflammation

Front 279

explain the pathogenesis of dermatomycosis

Back 279

hyphae in stratum corneum, hair roots -> keratinases, elastases, proteases-> hair breaks. Host inflammatory response -> erythema. Fungus moves to next hair follicle -> circular lesions increase in size

Front 280

what is resistance to re-infection of dematomycosis associated with?

Back 280

DTH

Front 281

M. canis dermatophyte

Back 281

zoophilic, cats, dogs mainly

Front 282

m. gypseum dermatophyte

Back 282

geophillic
rodents, dogs, horses

Front 283

M. nanum dermatophyte

Back 283

pigs

Front 284

T. verrucosum dermatophyte

Back 284

zoophillic
cattle

Front 285

t. equimum dermatophyte

Back 285

zoophilic
horses

Front 286

t. mentagrophytes

Back 286

zoophilic
dogs, horses, cats

Front 287

what shape is microspoum canis?

Back 287

spindle shape

Front 288

what is the shape of microsporum gypseum?

Back 288

boat shaped

Front 289

what is the shape of trichophyton metagrophytes?

Back 289

cigar shaped

Front 290

how do you control/ treat dermatophytes in contaminated area?

Back 290

use sodium hypochlorite, formalin, or enilconazole

Front 291

how do you control/ treat dermatophyes topically?

Back 291

lime sulfur, imidazole (ketaconazole) creams, shampoo's

Front 292

how to you treat/ control dermatophytes systemically?

Back 292

grisefulvin, itraconazole, ketaconazole oral for dogs/ cats

Front 293

what animals can be vaccinated against dermatophytes?

Back 293

cats and cattle wh

Front 294

what is the organism that causes aspergillosis?

Back 294

A. fumigatus

Front 295

what causes brooder pneumonia in chicks?

Back 295

aspergillosis

Front 296

what causes mycotic abortion in cattle?

Back 296

aspergillosis

Front 297

what causes gutteral pouch mycosis, keratomycosis (keratitis) in horses

Back 297

aspergillosis

Front 298

what does nasal aspergillosis in dogs do?

Back 298

destroys the turbinate bones, profuse blood tinged exudate from nose.

Front 299

what does aspergillus produce that destroys the structural barriers of the lung?

Back 299

elastases and proteases

Front 300

what is the pathogenesis of mycotic abortion due to aspergillus?

Back 300

aspergillus spores-> blood -> placental invasion -> imparied circulation -> fetal death

Front 301

what is the pathogenesis of nasal aspergillosis in dogs?

Back 301

elastase, protease, dermonecrotoxin -> destruction of turbinate bones, epistaxis (bleeding from the nose)

Front 302

how is aspergillosis diagnosed with a wet mount?

Back 302

KOH wet mounts of deep scraping, tissue- seperate hyphae.
lung sample conidial heads

Front 303

what are other ways to dx aspergillosis?

Back 303

radiograph, rhionscopy
culture on SAB medium- wet mount of colony surface- typical conidal heads
seroloigcal test (AGID) for dogs

Front 304

how do you prevent aspergillosis in poultry?

Back 304

cahnge litter frequently, and px buildup

Front 305

how do you px aspergillosis in cattle?

Back 305

dont give deteriorated hay and silage

Front 306

how do you use ketoconazole in horses?

Back 306

locally

Front 307

how do you use intraconazole in horses?

Back 307

systemically

Front 308

what can natamycin and miconazole topical be used for in horses?

Back 308

keratinitis

Front 309

what is the preferred treatment of nasal aspergillosis in dogs?

Back 309

clotrimazole nasal infusion is the preferred tx for nasal aspergillosis in dogs.

Front 310

what is the second option to tx of nasal aspergillosis in dogs?

Back 310

fluconazole systemic

Front 311

what type of fungi may occur in tissues?

Back 311

round/ oval hypahe

Front 312

what are the 2 types of yeast that are commonly found on skin?

Back 312

candida, malassezia

Front 313

what causes susceptibility to yeast infections?

Back 313

immunosuppression, Abx therapy, dz

Front 314

what are 3 very important yeasts?

Back 314

candida, cryptococcus, and malassezia

Front 315

what is thrush?

Back 315

cadidasis/ moniliasis

Front 316

what yeast is a commensal of the alimentary tract?

Back 316

candida albicans

Front 317

what type of yeast adheres to muscle?

Back 317

candida

Front 318

what type of yeast adheres to epithelium?

Back 318

pseduohyphae

Front 319

how do you dx candidias?

Back 319

KOH wet mount or gram stain, budding yeast. culture, latex agglut., antigen kits

Front 320

what is tx of candidiasis?

Back 320

nystatin topical, ketoconazole, nystatin oral for GI overgrowth

Front 321

what is the habitat for cryptococcus neoformans?

Back 321

soil, pigeon droppings

Front 322

what animals does cryptococcus affect?

Back 322

cats (more) and dogs

Front 323

what is the pathogensis of cryptococcus?

Back 323

airbourne infection-> nasal granulomas-> paranasal sinuses-> hematogenous dissemination

Front 324

what are symptoms of cryptococcus infections?

Back 324

sneezing, snuffling, mucoplurent/ hemorrhagic nasal discharge

Front 325

how do you treat/ control cryptococcus?

Back 325

itraconazole, fluconazole (both better than ketoconazole)
decontaiminate premises

Front 326

in what temperature does crytococcus neoformans remain in yeast form?

Back 326

in both environment 25 C and host 37C

Front 327

what shape is malassezia pachydermatitis?

Back 327

bottle, peanut, or food shaped

Front 328

what does malassezia cause?

Back 328

otitis externa in dogs when too many
thick elephant looking skin

Front 329

what is the pathogenesis of malassezia?

Back 329

chronic dermatitis (pruitis, alopecia, erythema) lipids help attachement to cell wall components-> pruitis-> skin thickens (elephant-like skin)

Front 330

how is malassezia dx?

Back 330

gram stain, wet mounts, also culture in SAB (fungus) and BA (bacteria)

Front 331

what is the tx of malassezia?

Back 331

nystatin or clotrimozole topical. ketoconizole oral for dermatitis (ketoconazole is the best for malassezia)